immunology final Flashcards

Which cells are the first responders during acute inflammation?

Toll-like receptors recognize:

Which cell type releases histamine during allergic reactions?

Which complement protein is a major opsonin?

NK cells kill target cells that:

Which molecule is an anaphylatoxin?

Interferon-α is primarly produced in response to:

Defensins are:

The oxidative burst in neutrophils requires:

Which is a professional antigen-presenting cell?

Mannose-binding lectin activates which complement pathway?

The major function of macrophages is:

Which cytokine activates macrophages?

Which cell type produces type I interferons?

Which receptor recognizes LPS on gram-negative bacteria?

Which cells forms pus?

C-reactive protein (CRP) promotes:

Which chemokine attracts neutrophils?

Dendritic cells migrate to lymph nodes via:

Which complement pathway is antibody-dependent?

Which immune cells release major basic protein?

Which organ filters bloodborne pathogens?

Which cytokine causes septic shock?

Which cell bridges innate and adaptive immunity?

Which cell is most effective in killing helminths?

Which innate cell presents antigen via MHC II?

What do PRRs (pattern recognition receptors) detect?

Which complement protein is most important for opsonization?

Which cells kill virally infected cells without prior sensitization?

What triggers the alternative complement pathway?

Which molecule mediates leukocyte rolling?

What is the main component of NETs (neutrophils extracellular traps)?

What is a pro-inflammatory cytokine?

Acute phase proteins are produced by the:

Which innate cell presents lipid antigens on CD1 molecules?

IFN-γ is produced mainly by:

Which cells release histamine in response to C3a and C5a?

Which phagocyte is long-lived?

Which cells produce antibodies?

CD8+ T cells recognize antigen presented on:

Which antibody is produced first in a primary response?

Which enzyme mediates V(D)J recombination:

Which antibody class crosses the placenta?

T-cell maturation occurs in the:

Class-switch recombination requires which enzyme?

Th1 cells activate:

Th2 cells activate:

IgA is most associated with:

Which immunoglobulin is pentameric?

MHC II presents peptides from:

Which cells activate naive T cells?

Which cytokine is key for Th17 differentiation?

Regulatory T (Tregs) cells suppress immunity using:

Memory B cells allow for:

Somatic hypermutation occurs in the:

Which molecule provides costimulation (secondary activation signal) to T-cells?

Affinity maturation increases:

Anergy (T-cell unresponsiveness) results from

Which cells kill virus-infected cells in adaptive immunity?

Thymic positive selection ensures T cells:

Thymic negative selection eliminates T cells that:

Which cytokine is essential for T-cell proliferation?

Which antibody neutralizes toxins?

CD4 binds to:

what is an epitope?

Cross-presentation allows dendritic cells to present:

IL-4 promotes which antibody isotype?

CD28 on T cells binds to:

Which antibody is associated with allergic reactions?

Naive B cells express:

Which cytokine drives Th1 differentiation?

Th17 cells are important for defense against:

Which cells are essential for germinal center formation?

Which processes require AID?

IgG is most effective in:

What is clonal selection?

What cytokine activates CD8+ T cells?

What is central tolerance?

Which cell type kills cells via perforin and granzyme?

What is required for T-cell activation?

What is peripheral tolerance?

which isotypes can activate complement?

what is the purpose of the thymus?

T-cell receptor recognizes:

Which antibody is dimeric in secretions?

Which T cells help activate B cells?

Which cytokine inhibits immune responses?

Plasma cells primarily reside in the:

Type I hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by:

Anaphylaxis is an example of:

Type II hypersensitivity involves:

Serum sickness is which type of hypersensitivity?

Contact dermatitis is mediated by:

Graves disease is caused by antibodies that:

Myasthenia gravis results from antibodies that:

Immune complexes deposit in tissues in which hypersensitivity?

Tuberculin skin testing is:

Rheumatoid arthritis is mainly:

Which hypersensitivity involves complement activation on cell membranes?

Lupus is primarliy associated with:

Anti-dsDNA antibodies are found in:

Hashimoto thyroiditis involves:

Goodpasture syndrome targets which tissues?

Type IV hypersensitivity occurs after:

Autoimmunity may result from:

Celiac disease is caused by T-cell response to:

Molecular mimicry occurs when:

Which cytokine drives chronic autoimmune inflammation?

Which hypersensitivity features wheals and flares?

Hemolytic transfusion reactions are:

Immune complex deposition in glomeruli indicates:

Multiple sclerosis affects the:

Autoantibodies against intrinsic factor cause:

Atopic asthma is mediated by:

Chronic transplant rejection is mediated by:

Which hypersensitivity is mediated ONLY by T cells?

Anti-CCP (cyclic citrullinated peptide) antibodies appear in:

What cell types drives Type IV hypersensitivity?

Immune thromocytopenic purpura (ITP) is:

Asthma is associated with increased:

Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS) is triggered by:

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia is mediated by:

What mediates damage in Type III hypersensitivity?

Epitope spreading refers to:

Which hypersensitibity uses Fc receptors on macrophages?

What drives granuloma formation?

Which illness is associated with anti-histone antibodies?

Food allergies are:

Autoimmune disease more common in women because of?

HLA-B27 is associated with:

PPD (purified protein derivative) test is a:

Stevens-Johnson syndrome involves:

In Type II hypersensitivity complement leads to:

Autoimmune disease often involve elevated:

Pemphigus vulgaris involves antibodies against:

Vasculitis in Type III hypersensitivity results from:

Chronic autoimmune diseases often involve:

Autoimmune diseases commonly involve:

X-linked agammaglobulinemia involves failure of:

ADA (Adenosine Deaminase) deficiency leads to:

DiGeorge syndrome results from failure of:

Chronic granulomatous disease is caused by defective:

Complement C5-C9 deficiency leads to infections with:

Selective IgA deficiency cause:

Hyper-IgM syndrome results from failure of:

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome includes:

SCID patients lack:

Splenectomy increases risk of infection by:

HIV infects:

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency affects:

C3 deficiency increases susceptibility to:

X-linked agammaglobulinemia (XLA) presents with:

HIV reduces immunity by:

Ataxia-telangiectasia involves:

Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis results from defective:

Job syndrome (Hyper-IgE) causes:

Complement C1 inhibitor deficiency causes:

Neutropenia increases susceptibility to:

NK cell deficiency leads to:

Hyper-IgM syndrome is due to:

SCID patients require:

People without a spleen lack:

HIV binds to:

Hyper-IgE syndrome results in impaired:

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria results from:

Patients with MCH II deficiency lack:

Chronic granulomatous disease leads to susceptibility to:

Complement deficiencies typically cause:

Live attenuated vaccines provide:

Inactivated vaccines induce mainly:

Toxoid vaccines protect against:

Conjugate vaccines link polysaccharides to :

Which vaccine is live?

Hyperacute transplant rejection is mediated by:

Acute graft rejection involves:

Graft-versus-host disease occurs when:

Autografts come from:

Calcineurin inhibitors block:

Checkpoint inhibitors block:

CAR-T therapy involves engineering:

Tumor antigens are presented on:

NK cells kill tumor cells by recognizing:

Dendritic cell vaccines work by:

Chronic transplant rejection is mediated by:

What cytokine stimulates NK cells?

Monoclonal antibodies treat cancer by:

PD-1 helps cancer cells by:

What molecule is commonly targeted in immunotherapy?

Tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes are:

Cytokine-release syndrome in CAR-T therapy is due to:

CTLA-4 (cytotoxic T-Lymphocyte Antigen 4) inhibits:

Hyperacute rejection occurs:

Cancer immune editing refers to:

what cells mediate ADCC (antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity)?

Allografts come from:

Tumors escape immunity by:

Which vaccine requires booster shots?

Bispecific antibodies can:

Which cytokine causes fever?

The membrane attack complex is formed by which complement component?

Which cell type releases histamine during allergic reactions?

Which cells kill tumor cells without prior sensitization?

Tumor-specfic antigens are:

Tumors evade immune detection by:

CD8 T cells recognized tumor cells through:

Which is a checkpoint inhibitor?

Tumor-associated antigens are:

Which cells contribute to tumor immune suppression?

CAR-T therapy involves engineering

Tumors evade surveillance by downregulating:

Which cytokine enhances anti-tumor immunity?

CTLA-4 functions to:

Tumor immunoediting phases include elimination, equilibrium, and:

ADCC occurs when:

Tumor cells secreting VEGF cause:

Oncolytic viruses:

Cold tumors are:

Tumor infiltrating lymphocytes are:

Tumors induce tolerance by:

Checkpoint blockade enhances:

Acute phase proteins are produced by the: