1. Which type of graft involves tissue transplanted between
genetically different individuals of the same species?
A. Autograft
B. Allograft
C. Xenograft
D. Isograft
B. Allograft
2. A heart transplant from a pig to a human is an example
of:
A. Isograft
B. Autograft
C.
Xenograft
D. Allograft
C. Xenograft
3. Alloantigens are best defined as:
A.
Self-antigens recognized during autoimmune disease
B. Antigens
that differ between individuals of the same species
C. Foreign
molecules from pathogens
D. Carbohydrates on RBCs
B. Antigens that differ between individuals of the same species
4. Alloantibodies are antibodies produced against:
A. One’s own MHC
B. Antigens from a different
species
C. A donor’s alloantigens
D. Bacterial carbohydrates
C. A donor’s alloantigens
5. Histocompatibility refers to:
A. Matching
of ABO antigens only
B. Degree of immunological compatibility
between donor & recipient
C. Ability of RBCs to bind
antibodies
D. Survival of the graft without immunosuppression only
B. Degree of immunological compatibility between donor & recipient
6. MHC haplotypes are inherited:
A. From the
father only
B. From the mother only
C. As one haplotype
from each parent
D. Randomly from both parents without linkage
C. As one haplotype from each parent
7. MHC matching is important because:
A. MHC
is never recognized by T cells
B. MHC mismatch causes strong
T-cell activation
C. MHC does not influence graft
rejection
D. MHC is expressed only in RBCs
B. MHC mismatch causes strong T-cell activation
8. Blood transplantation is simpler than organ transplantation
because:
A. RBCs lack MHC molecules
B. RBCs
cannot activate complement
C. Cross-match testing is
unnecessary
D. Antibodies do not bind RBCs
A. RBCs lack MHC molecules
9. Anti-A and anti-B antibodies arise because:
A. The mother passes them to the baby
B. Exposure to
commensal bacterial carbohydrates that mimic A/B antigens
C.
MHC-II presentation of food antigens
D. Autoimmune response
B. Exposure to commensal bacterial carbohydrates that mimic A/B antigens
10. The Rh factor refers to the presence of:
A. A/B antigens
B. MHC-I
C. The RhD antigen on RBCs
D. Complement receptors
C. The RhD antigen on RBCs
11. A cross-match test detects:
A. Donor T
cells
B. Recipient complement levels
C. Pre-formed
antibodies in the recipient against donor RBCs
D. MHC compatibility
C. Pre-formed antibodies in the recipient against donor RBCs
12. Hyperacute rejection is caused by:
A.
T-cell activation against minor antigens
B. Pre-existing
antibodies against donor ABO or MHC
C. Autoimmune
antibodies
D. Slow chronic vascular changes
B. Pre-existing antibodies against donor ABO or MHC
13. Hyperacute rejection occurs within:
A.
Minutes to hours
B. Days to weeks
C. Months to
years
D. Only after immunosuppression
A. Minutes to hours
14. Acute rejection is primarily mediated by:
A. Autoantibodies
B. Complement alone
C. Recipient T
cells recognizing donor MHC
D. Innate macrophage activation only
C. Recipient T cells recognizing donor MHC
15. Minor histocompatibility antigen mismatch leads
to:
A. Rapid hyperacute rejection
B. No
rejection
C. Slower, weaker T-cell responses
D.
Antibody-mediated complement lysis only
C. Slower, weaker T-cell responses
16. Chronic rejection is characterized by:
A.
Immediate thrombosis
B. Fibrosis and vessel narrowing over
years
C. Massive cytokine storm within hours
D. Absence
of immune activation
B. Fibrosis and vessel narrowing over years
17. BMT is different from solid organ transplant because the
graft:
A. Contains no immune cells
B. Is
immunologically inactive
C. Contains active donor immune cells
that can attack the host
D. Cannot cause rejection
C. Contains active donor immune cells that can attack the host
18. Allogeneic transplantation involves:
A.
Using the patient’s own stem cells
B. Using a genetically
identical twin
C. Donor and recipient from the same species but
genetically different
D. Donor cells from a different species
C. Donor and recipient from the same species but genetically different
19. Myeloablative therapy is used to:
A.
Boost donor immunity
B. Destroy recipient bone marrow before
transplant
C. Increase MHC expression
D. Suppress RBC
production only
B. Destroy recipient bone marrow before transplant
20. Engraftment refers to:
A. Rejection of
donor cells
B. Donor stem cells establishing in the recipient’s
marrow
C. Removal of donor T cells
D. Development of
hyperacute rejection
B. Donor stem cells establishing in the recipient’s marrow
21. A chimera is a transplant recipient who:
A. Has no donor cells
B. Has mixed donor–recipient immune
systems
C. Rejects all grafts
D. Has only donor DNA
B. Has mixed donor–recipient immune systems
22. GVHD occurs because:
A. Recipient T cells
attack the donor graft
B. Donor T cells attack recipient
tissues
C. Antibodies attack donor RBCs
D. Neutrophils
destroy donor HSCs
B. Donor T cells attack recipient tissues
23. GVHD most closely resembles which hypersensitivity
type?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type
III
D. Type IV
D. Type IV
24. H-Y antigens are significant because:
A.
They prevent GVHD
B. They are MHC-II molecules
C. They
are male-specific minor antigens that female donors may react
to
D. They cause hyperacute rejection
C. They are male-specific minor antigens that female donors may react to
25. GVHD can be beneficial because:
A. It
suppresses the immune system completely
B. It provides a
graft-versus-leukemia effect
C. It prevents chronic
rejection
D. It eliminates the need for chemo
B. It provides a graft-versus-leukemia effect
26. HLA matching is more important in BMT than solid organ
transplant because:
A. BMT lacks immune cells
B. Donor T cells interact strongly with recipient tissues
C.
RBCs express HLA
D. Minor antigens do not matter in BMT
B. Donor T cells interact strongly with recipient tissues
27. General immunotherapies (e.g., steroids, calcineurin
inhibitors):
A. Target very specific cytokines
B. Broadly suppress many immune pathways
C. Only suppress
macrophages
D. Increase T-cell activation
B. Broadly suppress many immune pathways
28. Specific immunotherapies include:
A.
Anti-IL-2 or anti-CD3 antibodies
B. Broad corticosteroids
C. Radiation therapy
D. Antibiotics
A. Anti-IL-2 or anti-CD3 antibodies
29. The purpose of immunosuppressive drugs is to:
A. Destroy the graft
B. Enhance MHC expression
C.
Prevent rejection
D. Activate B cells
C. Prevent rejection
30. Immune-privileged sites include:
A.
Skin
B. Eye, brain, testis, placenta
C. Liver and
spleen
D. Lymph nodes
B. Eye, brain, testis, placenta
31. Combining HSC transplant with a solid organ transplant
can:
A. Increase hyperacute rejection
B. Reset
the immune system and promote tolerance to the organ
C. Prevent
engraftment
D. Replace all recipient tissues entirely
B. Reset the immune system and promote tolerance to the organ
A 45-year-old woman receives a kidney transplant. Within 20 minutes, the kidney becomes cyanotic and stops producing urine. Biopsy shows widespread thrombosis and complement deposition.
Question:
What caused this reaction and how
could it have been prevented?
Cause: Hyperacute rejection due to
pre-formed antibodies against donor ABO or MHC
antigens.
Prevention: Proper ABO matching and
cross-match testing to detect pre-formed anti-donor antibodies.
A 28-year-old man receives a liver transplant. Two weeks later, liver enzymes rise and biopsy reveals T-cell infiltration.
Question:
What type of rejection is
occurring, and what is the immunological basis?
Type: Acute rejection
Basis:
Recipient T cells recognize donor MHC
molecules, leading to a strong cell-mediated immune response.
A corneal transplant is performed without MHC matching or systemic immunosuppression. No rejection occurs.
Question:
Why?
The eye is an immune-privileged site, meaning immune responses are naturally limited, reducing graft rejection risk.
A 19-year-old patient undergoes allogeneic bone marrow transplantation for leukemia. Ten days later, she develops a maculopapular rash, severe diarrhea, and elevated liver enzymes.
Question:
What complication has occurred?
What is the mechanism?
Complication: Graft-versus-host disease (GVHD)
Mechanism: Donor T cells attack recipient
tissues, resembling Type IV hypersensitivity.