Exam # 3 lec Flashcards


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1

From a list of skeleton functions, identify which is or is not a function of the skeleton (RBC storage).

RBC storage is NOT a function of the skeleton; skeleton functions include structure, protection, movement, mineral storage, and hematopoiesis (RBC production).

2

The type of tissue osseous tissue belongs to.

connective tissue.​

3

The type of bone a vertebra belongs to.

irregular bones.​

4

The name of the bone cells before and after becoming enclosed in lacunae.

Osteoblasts before enclosure; osteocytes after they are enclosed in lacunae.​

5

Name the precursor connective tissue type that is replaced by bone in endochondral ossification.

Hyaline cartilage.

6

Whether all ribs articulate with the sternum.

False

7

Whether maintaining the voice resonance is a function of the paranasal sinuses.

True

8

Whether the ischium is posterior to the pubis and inferior to the ilium.

True

9

The average number of bones in the adult skeleton.

206

10

From a list of bones, identify which belongs/does not belong to the axial skeleton.

Axial skeleton includes skull, vertebral column, ribs, and sternum; limb bones do not belong.​

Bones that are not part of the axial skeleton include the limbs and girdles

11

The reason why an adult human doesn’t have the same number of bones as a child.

Some bones fuse together during growth, reducing the total number in adults.​

12

Definition of a sesamoid bone.

A bone formed within a tendon; example: patella.​

13

The anatomical term referring to a hole in a bone.

Foramen

14

From a list of bones, identify the one that belongs/does not belong to the appendicular skeleton.

The appendicular skeleton includes the bones of the arms, legs, pectoral girdle (shoulder), and pelvic girdle (hips)

15

The name of the immovable joints connecting most of the skull bones.

Sutures

16

From a list of skull bones, identify the one(s) with/without sinuses

With sinuses: frontal, maxilla, sphenoid, ethmoid.
Without sinuses: parietal, temporal, occipital.

17

17. From a list of skull bones, differentiate between facial vs cranial ones

Cranial bones protect the brain and form the braincase, while facial bones structure the face, support the upper jaw, and enclose the sensory organs

18

The name of the bony structure that houses the pituitary gland and the name of the bone comprises that structure

Sella turcica of the sphenoid bone.

19

From a list of skull bones, differentiate between single vs paired ones

Single bones are located in the midline of the skull, while paired bones exist as a left and right symmetrical counterpart.

20

The definition of a fontanelle

A soft membranous gap between cranial bones in an infant’s skull.

21

From a list of skull bones, identify the bones that do/do not contribute to the wall of the orbit

The bones that do contribute to the orbit are the frontal, sphenoid, zygomatic, ethmoid, lacrimal, maxilla, and palatine bones. Bones that do not contribute include the nasal, vomer, and temporal bones, which are located elsewhere in the skull.

22

Identifying the bone that is adjacent to both the coronal and lambdoid sutures

Parietal bone.

23

From a list of skull bones, Identify the bone that forms the bulk of the hard palate

Maxilla (palatine process).

24

From superior to inferior of a child vertebral column, identify the number of individual vertebrae of each type.

7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral, 4 coccygeal (33 total before fusion).

25

From a list of paired bones, identify the pair that belongs to both the thoracic cage and the pectoral girdle.

Clavicles

26

Identifying rib # 7 according to the classification of the rib type

True rib (vertebrosternal).

27

Identifying the type of vertebra with bifid spinous process

Cervical vertebrae (C2–C6).

28

Identifying the bones that the costal cartilages connect together

Ribs to sternum.

29

Identifying the bones of the antebrachium

Radius and ulna.

30

Identifying the bone that has the glenoid cavity and the bone with which the glenoid cavity articulates.

Scapula (has glenoid cavity); articulates with humerus.

31

A fall from a bike resulted in breaking the medial bone of antebrachium; this means that the fracture involved what bone.

Ulna

32

. The name of the bones making the palm of your hand.

Metacarpals

33

From a list of bones identify the sesamoid one

Patella

34

The definition of articulation

A joint; the point where two or more bones meet.

35

Whether fibrous joints are joints at which two bones are united by hyaline cartilage.

False

36

The name of the joint between the left and right parietal bones

Sagittal suture.

37

From a list of tissues, identify which is/is not an anatomical component of a synovial joint

Components: articular cartilage, synovial membrane, joint capsule, synovial fluid, ligaments.
Not components: epiphyseal plate, periosteum.

38

Whether hinge joints, such as the tibiofemoral joint, are monoaxial.

True

39

From a list of joints, identify which is/is not a type of the six synovial joints

Six types: plane, hinge, pivot, condylar, saddle, ball-and-socket.

40

The type of finger movement required when cupping your hands to hold some water and limit its leaking through your fingers

Adduction of fingers.

41

The type of movement required while standing looking up at the stars

Hyperextension of the neck.

42

The type of movement you are performing If you stand on tiptoes to reach something high

Plantar flexion.

43

The type of wrist movement required, when you show your palm to someone who is in front of you, as if to tell him "Stop”

Supination (of the forearm/wrist).

44

The type of movements performed, respectively, when tipping the soles of the feet medially, so they face each other, and tipping them out laterally so they face away from each other.

Inversion (medial) and eversion (lateral).

45

The two articulating bones that make the jaw joint

Mandible and temporal bone (temporomandibular joint).

46

The name of the fibrocartilage pad between the medial condyle of the femur and the medial condyle of the tibia

Medial meniscus.

47

The cruciate ligament that prevents hyperextension of the knee

Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL).

48

The suture that separates the temporal bones from the parietal bones.

Squamous (squamosal) suture.

49

The term best describes muscle fibers arranged in bundles

Fascicle

50

The name of the tissue sheet that separates individual muscle fibers from each other

Endomysium

51

The name of myofilament that runs through the core of a thick filament anchoring it to a Z disc

Titin

52

The cellular organelle of a muscle fiber that represents the sarcoplasmic reticulum

Terminal cisternae

53

The names of the components of the triad of a muscle fiber

One T-tubule + two terminal cisternae

54

The structure that marks the boundaries of a sarcomere

Z discs

55

The term that describes the alternating pattern of light and dark bands in a skeletal muscle

Striations

56

The regulatory protein that acts as a calcium receptor in a skeletal muscle cell

Troponin

57

The number of somatic motor neurons stimulating one muscle fiber

One

58

The effect of acetylcholine-receptor binding on the permeability of sarcolemma to Na+

Increases Na⁺ permeability (opens ligand-gated Na⁺ channels)

59

Cross bridges form between what structures & their binding sites on actin myofilaments

Myosin heads and actin active sites

60

The part of the muscle cell along which the action potential is propagated

Sarcolemma

61

The structure along which action potential enters the depth of the muscle fiber

T-tubules

62

The single most important ion in the human body

Calcium (Ca²⁺)

63

The major ion contributing to the membrane resting potential (MRP)

Potassium (K⁺)

64

Whether the resting membrane potential (RMP) value is -70 volts

False

65

Whether the generation of the resting membrane potential is due to the difference in ionic concentrations across the cell membrane

True

66

The threshold value for the initiation of action potential

A: –55 mV

67

The extent/range of depolarization of the resting membrane to trigger action potential

A: From –70 mV to –55 mV (≈ 15 mV change)

68

Whether the depolarization of the membrane (sarcolemma) continues beyond the initiation of action potential

True

69

The membrane potential value when Na+ gates close during muscle contraction

About +30 mV

70

The effects of acetylcholine binding on its sarcolemma receptors on: the direction of sodium movement

Sodium moves into the cell

71

The effects of acetylcholine binding on its sarcolemma receptors on: the membrane status

Membrane depolarizes

72

The name of the contraction unit of a skeletal muscle cell

Sarcomere

73

The type of Na channels/gates that respond to acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction

Ligand-gated Na⁺ channels

74

The extent/range of depolarization of the resting membrane when Na gates are closed

From –70 mV to about +30 mV

75

The event/process that restores the resting membrane potential back to its normal value following muscle contraction

Repolarization (K⁺ efflux)

76

The process/mechanism that restores the ionic concentration of Na & K back to their normal values following muscle contraction

Na⁺/K⁺ ATPase pump