Anatomy Exam 2 Flashcards


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1

What are the characteristics of skeletal muscle tissue

striated, voluntary, parallel fibers, multinucleated, attached to skeleton

2

what are the characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue (heart muscle)

branched fibers, intercalated discs, involuntary

3

what are the characteristics of smooth muscle tissue (visceral)

spindle shaped, involuntary, found around hollow organs such as arteries, esophagus, stomach, no striations

4

what are the characteristics of muscles

contractility, excitability, extensibility, elasticity

5

why do muscles need a rich blood supply

to bring in oxygen and remove waste

6

what is compartment syndrome

more muscle breaks then grows due to exercise

7

what is the epimysium

tough outer coat of connective tissue surrounding the entire muscle

8

what is the perimysium

several sheathed muscle fibers wrapped in a coarse membrane surrounding the endomysium

9

what is the endomysium

a delicate connective sheath around a single muscle fiber

10

what are the differences between tendons and ligaments

tendons connect two different things (bone to muscle) and ligaments connect two like things (bone to bone / muscle to muscle)

11

what is the sarcolemma

plasma membrane of a muscle cell

12

what is the sacroplasm

the cytoplasm membrane of a muscle cell

13

what is the sarcoplasmic reticulum

for calcium storage

14

what are myofibrils

made of thick and thin filaments that interact for muscle contracts

15

what are the thick filaments made of

the protein myosin

16

what are the thin filaments made of

the protein actin

17

what are tropomyosin and troponin

regulatory proteins that block the contraction the muscle during rest

18

what starts the process of muscle contraction

calcium

19

what are the sarcomeres

the basic unit of striated muscle tissue that extends from one Z line to the next

20

what happens to the z-lines when the muscle contracts

it brings the z-lines closer together

21

what are the I bands

(light bands) made up of actin filaments are anchored to Z lines

22

what are the A bands

(dark bands) are made up of overlapping thick and thin filaments

23

what are the H zones

in the center of A bands consisting of myosin filaments only

24

what do the transverse (T) tubules do

disperse calcium throughout the muscle that is previously stored in the sarcoplasmic reticulum

25

what is duchenne muscular dystrophy

the affected structure of dystrophin, if dystrophin is not built properly, then the ladder shape of the muscle will break down

26

a patient has large calves, walk on tiptoes, positive Gowers' sign. what does this patient have and what causes this disease

Duchenne muscular dystrophy due to deformed dystrophin

27

what is the order of how a muscle contracts

1. action potential arrives at axon terminal of motor neuron

2. voltage-gated calcium channels open, calcium enters the axon terminal moving down its electrochemical gradient

3. calcium entry causes ACh (a neurotransmitter) to be released by exocytosis

4. ACh diffuses across the synaptic cleft and binds to its receptors on the sarcolemma

28

what does acetylcholinesterase do

it breaks down ACh and allows muscle to relax, blocking this can help with dementia

29

what is myasthenia gravis

an autoimmune condition where the immune system is attacking ACh receptors, so she is unable to contract her muscles, unable to breathe, unable to swallow

30

what is rigor mortis

calcium pumps runout of ATP --> calcium can't be removed --> continuous contraction

31

what are the products of aerobic respiration

36 ATP and glucose

32

what stores excess energy when the ATP supply is sufficient

creatine phosphate

33

what forms when oxygen deficiency develops during strenuous exercise

pyruvic acid then reacts to form lactic acid

34

what is the origin of muscle attachment

attachment site of a muscle or tendon to a bone that doesn't move during contraction

35

what is the insertion of muscle attachment

attachment site of a muscle or tendon to a moving bone that moves during contraction

36

what is the agonist muscle group

prime move, muscle that causes a movement

37

what is the antagonist muscle group

opposes the muscle that stretches; regulates the muscle contraction

38

what is the synergist muscle group

assists the prime mover

39

what is the fixator muscle group

auxiliary muscles that steady a movement (immobilizes a bone or muscle's origin)

40

supra (muscle naming)

above

41

infra (muscle naming)

below

42

sub (muscle naming)

underneath

43

maximus (muscle naming)

largest

44

minimis (muscle naming)

smallest

45

vastus (muscle naming)

huge

46

longus (muscle naming)

long

47

brevis (muscle naming)

short

48

major (muscle naming)

large

49

minor (muscle naming)

small

50

oblique (muscle naming)

slant muscle fibers

51

rectus (muscle naming)

straight muscle fibers

52

what is flexion

movement that decreases the angle between 2 bones

53

what is extension

movement that increases the angle between 2 bones

54

what is abduction

movement away from the midline of the body

55

what is adduction

movement toward the midline of the body

56

what is dorsiflexion

upward movement of the foot (take your foot off the gas)

57

what is plantarflexion

downward movement of the food (mash on the gas)

58

what is inversion

movement of the foot/ankle causing the sole of the foot to turn inward

59

what is eversion

movement of the foot/ankle causing the sole of the foot to turn outward

60

what is pronation

movement causing the palm of the hand to turn down

61

what is supination

movement causing the palm of the hand to turn upward

62

what is the muscle function of the orbicularis oculi

closes the eyelids; causes squinting, winking, and blinking

63

what is the muscle function of the buccinator

compresses the cheeks to hold food during chewing, sucking in cheeks and allows to blow a horn

64

what is the muscle function of the masseter

raises mandible and brings it forward. chewing muscle

65

what is the muscle function of the sternocleidomastoid

flexes head and bends it laterally

66

what is the muscle function of the external intercostals

elevate ribs and enlarge thorax for breathing

67

what is the muscle function of the diaphragm

expands thorax, compresses contents of abdominal cavity (primary quiet breathing muscle)

68

what is the function of trapezius

allow you to shrug your shoulders, keeps scapula pinned down to the back

69

what are the rotator cuff muscles

supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis (SItS muscles)

70

what is the muscle function of the biceps brachii

flexion of the elbow and shoulder and supinates the forearm

71

what is the muscle function of the triceps brachii

extends the elbow; adducts and extends the shoulder

72

what is the muscle function of the sartorius

flexion, external rotation and abduction of the hip; flexion and internal rotation of the knee

73

what is the largest muscle

gluteus maximus

74

what is the longest muscle

sartorius

75

what is the strongest muscle

masseter

76

what is the central nervous system

brain and spinal cord of dorsal body cavity, integration and control center, interprets sensory input and dictates motor output

77

what is the peripheral nervous system (PNS)

the portion of the nervous system outside CNS, consists mainly of nerves that extend from brain and spinal cord, spinal nerves to and from spinal cord, cranial nerves to and from brain

78

what is the sensory (afferent) division

impulses coming into the nervous system (arrive)

79

what is the motor (efferent) division

impulse exiting the nervous system

80

what is the autonomic nervous system

involuntary nervous system made of sympathetic and parasympathetic

81

what are neuroglia

small cells that surround and wrap delicate neurons, hold the nervous system together

82

what are neurons

excitable cells that transmit electrical signs, send and receive signals

83

what are the neuroglia

astrocytes (CNS), microglial cells (CNS), ependymal cells (CNS), oligodendrocytes(CNS), satellite cells (PNS), schwann cells (PNS)

84

what are the most abundant neuroglia

astrocytes

85

what are microglial cells

migrate toward injured neurons, can transform to phagocytize microorganisms and neuronal debris

86

what is catiousnecrosis

find the neurons that are dead or dying and turn them into a cottage cheese like material that protects the brain by being bacteriostatic (prevents the growth of bacteria)

87

what are ependymal cells

may be ciliated, line the central cavities of the brain and spinal column, form permeable barrier between cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in cavities and tissue fluid bathing CNS cells, hold together the corriol plexus

88

what are oligodendrocytes

make the myelin sheath for the CNS only

89

what are the schwann cells (neurolemmocytes)

surround all peripheral nerve fibers and form myelin sheath in thicker nerve fibers only

90

a patient uses chainsaw to cut limb from tree, ladder moves and tries to grab the chainsaw, cuts his arm through the radius but not the ulna, touching his middle finger he thinks its his thumb, why is this happening

his schwann cells helped to regenerate his sensation but not always correctly

91

what are neurons

structural units of nervous system, extreme longevity, amitotic (do not go through mitosis), high metabolic rate - requires continuous supply of oxygen and glucose

92

where do neurons receive signals from

dendrites

93

what do axons do

send signals out

94

where do axons arise from

axon hillock

95

what is anterograde

transport along the axon away from cell body

96

what is retrograde

transport along the axon toward cell body

97

what is rabies

bullet shaped virus and and an example of retrograde

98

what is the function of myelin

protects and electrically insulates axon, increases speed of nerve impulse transmission, make sure the transition speed moves faster

99

what are multipolar neurons

3 or more processes, most common type; major neuron in CNS

100

what are bipolar neurons

2 processes, rare, only found in eyes and nose

101

what are the three types of functional classifications of neurons

sensory (afferent), motor (efferent), and interneurons

102

what are sensory (afferent) neurons

transmit impulses from sensory receptors toward CNS, cell bodies in ganglia in PNS

103

what are motor (efferent) neurons

carry impulses from CNS to effectors

104

what are interneurons (association neurons)

lie between motor and sensory neurons, shuttle signals through CNS pathways, 99% of body's neurons, cause the reflex to pull away from danger (child touching a hot plate)

105

what are leakage (nongated) ion channels

always open

106

what are gated ion channels

part of protein changes shape to open/close channel

107

what is the potential energy difference across the membrane of a resting cell

-70 mV in neurons, membrane termed polarized

108

does ECF or ICF have a higher concentration of Na+

ECF

109

does ECF or ICF have a higher concentration of K+

ICF

110

what plays the most important role in membrane potential

K+ (potassium)

111

what diffuses faster in the sodium-potassium pump

more potassium diffuses out than sodium diffuses in, establishes resting membrane potential; 3 Na+ pumped out of cell; two K+ pumped in

112

what is graded potentials

incoming signals operating over short distances

113

what are action potentials

long-distance signals of axons

114

what is depolarization

decrease in membrane potential (toward zero and above), inside of membrane becomes less negative than resting membrane potential, increases probability of producing a nerve impulse

115

what is hyperpolarization

an increase in membrane potential (away from zero, more negative than -70), inside of cell more negative than resting membrane potential, this makes it more difficult to fire down the axon

116

what is degree of myelination

continuous conduction in unmyelinated axons is slower than saltatory (bouncing from nod to nod) conduction in myelinated axons

117

what is the associated sensory receptors of type Ia

responsible for proprioception

118

what is the associated sensory receptors of type Ib

golgi tendon organ

119

what is multiple sclerosis (MS)

autoimmune disease affecting primarily young adults, myelin sheaths in CNS destroyed, starts out with blurred vision or loss of bladder control

120

what are synapses

where the message is delivered

121

what event is transmission across synaptic cleft

chemical event

122

what starts the information transfer across chemical synapses

calcium

123

what are the effects of termination of neurotransmitters

reuptake by astrocytes or axon terminal, degradation by enzymes (primarily by acetylcholine), diffusion away from synaptic cleft

124

what is acetylcholine (ACh)

synthesized from acetic and choline by enzyme choline acetyltransferase, degraded by enzyme acetylcholinesterase (AChE)

125

what are catecholamines

dopamine, norepinephrine (NE), and epinephrine, synthesized from amino acid tyrosine

126

what does the GABA amino acid neurotransmitter do

it is an inhibitor that is normally used when we need to inhibit the brain

127

what are substance P neurotransmitters

pain signals

128

what are endorphin neurotransmitters

act as natural opiates; reduce pain perception

129

what are the purine neurotransmitters

ATP, Adenosine and they are potent inhibitors in the brain

130

what is a main gasotranmitter

nitric oxide (NO)

131

what are endocannabinoid neurotransmitters

act as same receptors as THC, mostly used to control appetite and suppresses nausea

132

where does ACh have an excitatory effect

at neuromuscular junctions in skeletal muscle

133

where does ACh have an inhibitory effect

in cardiac muscle

134

what is apoptosis

programmed cell death

135

what is necrosis

abnormal or premature cell death

136

what is parasympathetic in the ANS

rest and digest, postganglionic axons release acetylcholine (cholinergic)

137

what is sympathetic in ANS

fight or flight, increase heart rate, respiration, and vasoconstriction, postganglionic axons release norepinephrine (adrenergic)

138

what is horner's syndrome

loss of sympathetic innervation to an eye, ptosis, anhidrosis, miosis

139

a patient has drooping eye lids, drying of the eyes, and large pupils. what does this patient have

horner's syndrome

140

what are the twelve cranial nerves

olfactory nerve, optic nerve, oculomotor nerve, trochlear nerve, trigeminal nerve, abducens nerve, facial nerve, vestibulocochlear nerve, glossopharyngeal nerve, vagus nerve, accessory nerve, hypoglossal nerve

141

what are the olfactory nerves

sensory nerves of smell, purely sensory (olfactory) function

cranial nerve 1

142

a patient is rollerblading and did a trick and fell back and hit the back of his head, loss of smell, patient has anosmia and this is because of a tearing of the olfactory nerve, permanent loss of smell. what does this patient have

anosmia due to damage of the olfactory nerve

143

what are the optic nerves

purely sensory (visual) function

cranial nerve 2

144

a young girl is growing out of control and her parents are both short, she started not being able to see things out of the corner of her eyes, what does she have

she has a pituitary adenoma which is pressing on the optic chiasma and increasing the pituitary hormones

145

what are the oculomotor nerves

function in raising eyelid, directing eyeball, constricting iris (parasympathetic), and controlling lens shape, does the motor function for the muscles in the eyes

cranial nerve 3

146

what is the formula to remember the nerves for functions of eyes

LR6SO4AO3

lateral rectus controlled by cranial nerve 6, superior oblique are controlled by cranial nerve 4, all other muscles of the eye are controlled by cranial nerve 3

147

what are the trochlear nerves

control superior oblique muscle

cranial nerve 4

148

what are the trigeminal nerves

largest of the cranial nerves, ophthalmic (V1) supraorbital foramen (notch), maxillary (V2) infraorbital foramen, mandibular (V3) mental foramen

cranial nerve 5

149

what are the abducens nerves

control lateral rectus muscle

cranial nerve 6

150

what are the facial nerves

facial expression, parasympathetic impulses to lacrimal and salivary glands, sensory function (taste) from anterior two-thirds of tongue

cranial nerve 7

151

what is bell's palsy

one side of the face is dropping, no wrinkles on affected side, no smile on the affected side, this is not a stroke because it only affects the facial nerves, due to paralysis of facial nerve

152

what are the vestibulocochlear nerves

hearing receptors and equilibrium receptors

cranial nerve 8

153

what are the glossopharyngeal nerves

sensory function that deal with taste, deals with tongue and pharynx

cranial nerve 9

154

what are the vagus nerves

only cranial nerves that extend beyond head and neck region

cranial nerve 10

155

patient was feeling hoarse, everyone around her had an upper respiratory infection, hoarseness is getting worse after a month, gets an echo and finds that she had something pressing on her left recurrent nerve what does this cause

she has vagal nerve paralysis, the left recurrent nerve is part of the vagus nerve

156

what are the accessory nerves

trapezius and sternocleidomastoid, loss of function leads to inability to shrug your shoulders and not turn your head to affected side

cranial nerve 11

157

what are the hypoglossal nerves

swallowing and speech, below the tongue

cranial nerve 12

158

what cells are found in chemoreceptors

gustatory cells

159

what cranial nerves involve taste

cranial nerve 7 and 9 to medulla oblongata

160

what cranial nerve involves smell

cranial nerve 1

161

what is the mucous membrane in the eyelid (palpebrae)

conjunctiva

162

what is conjunctivitis

pink eye, inflammation that connects the eye lid to the scara

163

what are the ducts superior and lateral to the eyes and what do they do

lacrimal glands and they keep the eyes moist

164

what are the nasolacrimal ducts

empties to nasal cavity

165

what are the 3 tunics (layers) of the eyeball

sclera, choroid, and retina

166

what is the sclera

the tunic of the eyeball that is the outermost, thickest, and toughest

167

what is the choroid

the tunic of the eyeball that is very black, keeps light out of the eye except for the pupil

168

what is the retina

made up completely of photoreceptor cells (rods and cones)

169

what is the cornea

transparent anterior part of the eyeball

170

what is the iris

the colorful part of the eye

171

what does the ciliary muscle do

moves the iris

172

what happens to the pupil when light is shined in the eye

the pupil gets smaller

173

what do rods see

black/white vision, dim light

174

what do cones see

color vision, intense light

175

what is the route in order to see color

cone --> bipolar cell--> ganglion cell--> axon of ganglion

176

why should you check the eyes of patients with diabetes

because clots can form in the eyes due to high blood sugar

177

what is glaucoma

when there is a blockage in the eye causing the aqueous humor to not be able to escape

178

what are cataracts

abnormal crystallization of the lens, common in diabetes, injury, heredity

179

a patient is a heavy smoker or has diabetes and their lens of their eyes become cloudy what do they have

cataracts

180

what are the important points of the ear

hearing, balance, cranial nerve 8 (vestibulocochlear)

181

what is cerumen

ear wax

182

what are things that arise from diencephalon

epithalamus, thalamus, hypothalamus, retina, ciliary body, iris, vitreous humor, and cranial nerve 2

183

what makes up the brain stem

midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata

184

does the brain or the spinal cord have white matter on the inside and gray on the outside

brain, spinal cord is reversed

185

what are the ventricles of the brain filled with

cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), makes the entire CNS float

186

what are the ventricles of the brain lined with

ependymal cells

187

what are the ventricles of the brain connected to

central canal of the spinal cord

188

how are lateral ventricles connected to third ventricles

interventricular foramen

189

how is the third ventricles connected to the fourth ventricle

cerebral aqueduct

190

what are the ridges of the brain called

gyri

191

what are the shallow grooves of the brain called

sulci

192

what are the deep grooves of the brain called

fissures

193

how is the brain separated by longitudinal fissure

separated into two hemispheres

194

how is the brain separated by transsverse cerebral fissure

separated into cerebrum and cerebellum

195

what are the five lobes of the cerebral hemispheres

frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, and insula

196

what is the function of the insula

makes us who we are, helps us enjoy basic emotions, may be responsible for addiction

197

what is the cerebral cortex

the outer layer of your brain's surface

198

what are the three types of functional areas of the cerebral cortex

motor areas, sensory areas, association areas

199

what does the motor areas of the cerebral cortex do

control voluntary movement

200

what does the sensory areas of the cerebral cortex do

conscious awareness of sensation

201

what does the association areas of the cerebral cortex do

integrate diverse information

202

what does it mean that the brain is contralateral

if you are right handed then the left side of your brain is more developed

203

what does the frontal lobe control

voluntary movement

204

what does the broca's area control

speech production, motor speech area

205

where is the broca's area

present in one hemisphere, usually the left

206

what is broca's aphasia

when the broca's area is damaged or broken which leads to the inability to speak

207

how does the primary auditory cortex interpret information

from inner ear as pitch, loudness, and location

208

what does the auditory association area do

stores memories of sounds

209

what is the wernicke's area

involved in understanding written and spoken language

210

what is wernicke's aphasia

when the wernicke's area is damaged leading to the inability to understand written and spoken language

211

what does the limbic association area do

provides emotional impact that makes scene important and helps establish memories

212

what makes up the basal nuclei (ganglia)

caudate nucleus, putamen, and globus pallidus

213

what are the functions of the thalamus

gateway to cerebral cortex, sorts, edits, and relays ascending input, everything comes up through the thamalmus before

214

what are the functions of the hypothalamus

controls autonomic nervous system and physical response to emotions (limbic system)

215

what does the pineal gland secrete and what does this help regulate

melatonin and it helps regulate sleep-wake cycle (circadian rhythm)

216

what is the corpora quadrigemina

reflex center that is located in the midbrain and contains two types of colliculi

217

what is the superior colliculi

part of the corpora quadrigemina that deals with visual reflexes

218

how can you test which side a lesion may be on the corpora quadrigemina and what are the signs

if a patient is feeling dizzy and falling often you can perform a romberg test

219

what is the romberg test

when a patient stants in the middle of the room tilts their head back and closes their eyes and the way they fall is the side of the brain with the lesion

220

what do the pons do

help maintain normal rhythm of breathing

221

what is the function of the medulla oblongata

it is the cardiovascular center which adjusts force and rate of heart contraction and adjusts blood vessel diameter for blood pressure regulation. it also controls the rate and depth of breathing

222

what is the cerebellum

allows smooth, coordinated movements

223

a patient is moving and talking in a distinct order, like a robot, special ed in school, thick glasses, starts falling, alwaying falling to the right. what is wrong with this patient

there is a problem on the right side of her cerebellum, when the cerebellum is not working properly it cannot cut out extra information that is not needed

224

what is the arbor vitae

treelike pattern of cerebellar white matter

225

what are all fibers in the cerebellum and what does this mean

they are ipsilateral, and this means if there is a problem to the right side of the cerebellum, then the right side will be effects, and vice versa

226

what is the amygdala

part of the limbic system that recognizes angry or fearful facial expressions, assesses danger, and elicits fear response

227

what does the reticular activating system do

filters out repetitive, familiar, or weak stimuli, inhibited by sleep centers, alcohol, and drugs, severe injury results in permanent unconsciousness (coma)

228

what are delta waves

high-amplitude waves of deep sleep; indicate brain damage in awake adult

229

what is epilepsy

victims may lose consciousness, fall stiffly, and have uncontrollable jerking

230

what is aura

sensory hallucination that may precede seizure

231

what is syncope

brief loss of consciousness

232

what is rem sleep

reverse learning process where superfluous information purged from brain, declines steadily and may disappear after age 60

233

what is sleep apnea

temporary cessation of breathing during sleep, not breathing for a period when asleep

234

what is a key factor in memory

ACh is necessary for memory formation and retrieval

235

what are the three layers of the meninges

dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater

236

what is meningitis

inflammation of meninges

237

what is the strongest layer of the meninges

dura mater

238

what is the subarachnoid space of the arachnoid mater

contains CSF and largest blood vessels of brain

239

what is the arachnoid villi of the arachnoid mater

protrude into superior sagittal sinus and permit CSF reabsorption

240

what is cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

watery solution formed from blood plasma

241

what is hydrocephalus

obstruction blocks CSF circulation or drainage and causing swelling in the brain

242

what is the blood brain barrier

separates neurons from some bloodborne substances, helps prevent the neurons from being killed by what goes into the blood

243

what are subdural or subarachnoid hemorrhages

may force brain stem through foramen magnum, resulting in death

244

what is ischemia

not getting enough blood to the brain tissues

245

what is alzheimer's disease

plaques of beta-amyloid peptide form in brain, neurofibrillary tangles inside neurons kill them, brain shrinks

246

what is parkinson's disease and what are the signs

degeneration of dopamine-releasing neurons of substantia nigra, signs are moving in a distint way, dragging the feet, or pill rolling trimmer

247

where does the spinal cord end

L1 or L2 vertebra

248

what is the site for a lumbar puncture or tap

L3 or L4

249

what does the filum terminale do

anchors spinal cord

250

how many spinal nerves are in the cervical region

8

251

what are second-order neurons

extend/ends at the thalamus

252

what is the difference between paresthesia and paralysis

paresthesia is sensory loss, pins and needles, and paralysis is permanent loss of motor function

253

what is amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) (Lou Gehrig's Disease)

paralysis that starts with paresthesia in fingers and toes then paralysis moves inward

254

maternal exposure to what can be teratogens

radiation, drugs, alcohol, opiates, infection, and smoking