pathophysiology final Flashcards


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1

Your patient’s red blood cell count is slightly elevated today. This might be explained by WHAT?

  • gender difference
  • situational factors
  • normal variation
  • illness

2

All of data that you need to gather before making a diagnosis, what factors need to be considered?

etiological, and symptoms or defining characteristics

3

Aldosterone may increase during stress, leading to Select all that apply….NICE

  • reabsorption Na
  • H20
  • BP
  • blood vol
  • low urinary output

4

Chronic activation of stress hormones can lead Select all that apply.,,,,NICE

  • cardiovascular disease
  • depression
  • impaired cognitive function
  • autoimmune disease

5

Bacteria cause injury to cells by which mechanisms? (Select all that apply.)

  • Producing (exotoxins, endotoxins, destructive enzymes)
  • Evoking immune reaction

6

Breast cancer in women who have the breast cancer gene

Genetic Breast cancer

7

Side effects of chemotherapy include all that apply.)

  • anemia
  • nausea
  • bleeding
  • infections

8

Viruses are associated with human cancers? all that apply.)

  • Epstein-Barr
  • Human Papilloma 16/18
  • Hepatitis B
  • Human Herpesvirus-8

9

RhoGAM is given to an Rh-negative mother in order to prevent….WHAT

mother in order to prevent Therapeutic or spontaneous abortion

10

The principal Ig mediator of type I hypersensitivity reactions is

type I hypersensitivity reactions is IgE

11

Secondary immune deficiency problems may be caused by which of the following? ( All that apply.)

  • surgery
  • high blood sugar
  • corticosteroids
  • low protein level

12

Diseases are due to type IV hypersensitivity? All that apply.)

  • contact dermatitis
  • drug hypersensitivity
  • leprosy
  • coeliac disease

13

Which form of leukemia demonstrates the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome?

Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia

14

Burkitt lymphoma is most closely associated with…WHAT?

Epstein-Barr Virus

15

CML (chronic myeloid leukemia ALL THE symptoms? All that apply.)

  • Fatigue
  • Weight loss
  • Sweat
  • Bleeding
  • ABD discomfort (SPLEEN)

16

Which clinical findings describe the typical presentation of ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)? Act all that apply.)

  • Pain in long bones
  • infection
  • fever
  • bruising

17

A low mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) and mean corpuscular volume (MCV) are characteristic of which type of anemia?

IRON DEFICENCY ANEMIA

18

The cause of the most common form of anemia is..WHAT?

IRON DEFICENCY

19

Anemia related to vitamin B12 or folate deficiency is characterized by what laboratory features? All that apply….DELICIOUS!!!!

  • RBC 500,000 TO 750,000
  • WBC 5000 TO 7000

20

Regarding iron-deficiency anemia, what laboratory features are typically decreased? All that apply.)

  • MCV
  • MCH
  • MCHC

21

The final step in clot formation is…WHAT

clot retraction

22

Activation of the extrinsic pathway of coagulation is initiated by…WHAT

Tissue thromboplastin

23

The megakaryocyte is a precursor to……OF WHAT

platelets

24

Disseminated intravascular coagulation may be treated with heparin therapy to..DO WHAT?

heparin to Prevent further clotting

25

A deficiency of von Willebrand factor impairs…..WHAT?

platelet adhesion to injured tissue

26

What is involved in the release of plasminogen activators? All that apply.)

  • Factor XII
  • HMWK
  • kallikrein
  • thrombin

27

Diseases may be associated with a bleeding problem? All that apply.)

  • Renal failure
  • Cirrhosis
  • Systemic lupus erythematosus
  • Ovarian cancer

28

Which is not considered to be a risk factor for thrombus formation?

Thrombocytopenia

29

Which clinical finding is indicative of compartment syndrome?

  • Absent peripheral pulses
  • Swelling
  • pallor extremity
  • Acute arterial occlusion is an emergency

30

The pain characteristics of chronic venous insufficiency (all that apply.)

  • Aching
  • cramping relief with elevation
  • ambulation pain legs.

31

High blood pressure increases the workload of the left ventricle because it increases..WHAT?

Afterload

32

High blood pressure increases the risk of which conditions? All that apply.)

  • kidney disease
  • heart disease
  • stroke

33

Atherosclerosis puts a patient at risk for which of the following problems? All that apply.)

  • Hyperlipidemia
  • ischemic stroke
  • retinal injury
  • renal impairment

34

Orthostatic hypotension is a risk factor for which conditions? All that apply.)

  • stroke
  • cognitive impairment
  • death

35

Primary treatment for myocardial infarction (MI) is directed at

Restoring blood flow to the affected area of the heart

36

Patients presenting with symptoms of unstable angina and no ST segment elevation are treated with

Antiplatelet and anticoagulant med

37

Aortic regurgitation is associated with

Heart valve disease

38

Angina caused by coronary artery spasm is called _____ angina.

Prinzmetal's angina

39

Atherosclerotic plaques with large lipid cores are prone to

ruptures

40

Acute coronary syndrome in the presence of thrombosis may present with which manifestations? (Select all that apply.)

  • Unstable angina
  • MI
  • sudden cardiac arrest

41

Diagnostic tests used to diagnose or confirm MI include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

  • electrocardiogram
  • cardiac catheterization
  • echocardiography
  • radionuclide scintigraphy

42

First-degree heart block is characterized by …WHAT?

Prolonged PR interval

43

A patient is diagnosed with heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF). This patient is most likely described as a(n)……WHAT?

elderly woman

44

The most common causes of heart failure include which of the following? All that apply.)

  • coronary artery disease
  • heart attack
  • myocarditis
  • high blood pressure
  • heart valve disease

45

A patient experiencing shock may exhibit which signs and symptoms? All that apply.)

  • Pulse > 100 beats/min,
  • Fast and deep respirations

46

Anaphylactic shock. signs and symptoms in the patient? All that apply.)

  • Hypotension
  • Urticaria
  • Angioedema
  • Wheezing

47

Septic shock is commonly associated with Gram-negative infections and Gram-positive organisms that enter the body through which body systems? All that apply.)

  • genitourinary
  • GI
  • Resp tract
  • skin

48

Emphysema results from destruction of alveolar walls and capillaries, which is because of WHAT?

  • Chronic exposure to irritants, especially tobacco smoke.

49

Chronic bronchitis often leads to cor pulmonale because of?????

Increased resistance pulmonary circulation

50

Cystic fibrosis is associated with…WHAT???

A defect in chloride ion transport

51

Croup is characterized by…..WHAT????

  • A barking cough
  • hoarseness
  • difficulty breathing

52

COPD leads to a barrel chest, because it causes…..??????

Air to be trapped in the lungs

53

Characteristics of asthma? All that apply.)

  • Edema
  • Airway inflammation
  • Collagen deposits

54

Viruses differ from most bacteria in that they act in which of the following ways? (Select all that apply.)

  • survive and replicate, not produce toxin

55

The hallmark manifestation of acute respiratory distress syndrome is…WHAT

hypoxemia

56

Empyema is defined as an…..WHAT?

a collection of pus in the space between the lung and the inner surface of the chest wall (pleural space)

57

A major cause of treatment failure in tuberculosis is…WHAT?

noncompliance

58

Bacterial pneumonia leads to hypoxemia caused by…WHAT?

accumulation of alveolar exudates

59

A common characteristic of viral pneumonia is……WHAT?

dry cough

60

Which alteration can lead to edema?

Decreased lymphatic flow

61

Hypernatremia may be caused by WHAT

decreased antidiuretic hormone secretion

62

Clinical manifestations of hyponatremia include…WHAT

  • confusion
  • lethargy
  • coma
  • perhaps seizures

63

Clinical manifestations of moderate to severe hypokalemia include….WHAT

muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias

64

A patient has a positive Chvostek sign. The nurse interprets this as a sign of…WHAT?

increased neuromuscular excitability

65

Acid that kidneys are unable to excrete?

carbonic

66

Vomiting of stomach contents or continuous nasogastric suctioning may predispose to development of…WHAT

metabolic acid deficit

67

Respiratory acidosis may be caused by…..WHAT

hypoventilation

68

Diarrhea causes……WHAT?

dehydration

69

Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis would result in…..WHAT

  • Increased pH
  • increased HCO3-

70

A patient is diagnosed with starvation ketoacidosis. What signs and symptoms should you anticipate in your assessment?...NICE!!.....LET’S SEE CAPOTE!

  • Rapid
  • deep breathing
  • lethargy
  • abdominal pain

71

The pathophysiologic basis of acute glomerulonephritis is…WHAT?

an immune complex reaction

72

Nephrotic syndrome involves loss of large amounts of ________ in the urine.

protein

73

One cause of an extrinsic renal system obstruction is…WHAT

pelvic tumor

74

Hyperlipidemia occurs in nephrotic syndrome because???????

hepatocytes synthesize excessive lipids

75

Risk factors for renal carcinoma? (All that apply.)

  • genetics
  • cigarette smoking
  • obesity
  • chemicals

76

Manifestations of acute pyelonephritis? All that apply….QUE RICO!!

  • b. can result in dehydration.
    c. often include symptoms of lower urinary tract infection.
    d. include fever, chills, and costovertebral angle tenderness.
    e. may include urosepsis

77

The oliguric phase of acute tubular necrosis is characterized by..WHAT?

fluid excess and electrolyte imbalance.

78

Osteoporosis commonly occurs in patients with end-stage renal disease because of????

hyperparathyroidism

79

A patient with renal disease is at risk for developing uremia as the nephrons progressively deteriorate, because??????

GFR declines

80

The most helpful laboratory value in monitoring the progression of declining renal function is..????

serum creatinine

81

the most common causes of acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is???

ischemic conditions

82

Postrenal acute kidney injury may be caused by…WHAT?

  • renal/ureteral calculi
  • tumors
  • blood clots
  • any urethral obstruction

83

Anemia in people who have end-stage chronic renal disease is caused by…WHAT?

decreased secretion of erythropoietin

84

signs of chronic renal failure? All that apply.)

  • nausea
  • vomiting
  • loss of apetite
  • fatigue and weakness

85

The diet for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) should include which of the following? All that apply.)

  • high carbohydrates and fats
  • low phosphorous
  • high calorie

86

A patient missed two dialysis sessions. What conditions will the patient likely demonstrate? All that apply.),,,NICE ONE!!!

  • lethargy due to metabolic acidosis and increased BUN
  • skeletal muscle weakness and possible cardiac dysrhythmias due to hyperkalemia
  • deep rapid breathing due to compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis

87

Group with highest risk for urinary tract infection?

sexually active women

88

A ureterocele is…WHAT?

a cystic dilation of a ureter

89

The greatest risk factor for bladder cancer is…WHAT

cigarette smoking

90

Vesicoureteral reflux is associated with…WHAT

recurrent cystitis

91

Which situations increase the risk of urge incontinence? All that apply.)

  • aging
  • bladder infections
  • prostate enlargement
  • diuretics

92

characteristics of cystitis? All that apply.)

  • more common in women
  • associated with catheterization of the bladder
  • fostered by stasis of urine

93

Cystitis symptoms ,,All that apply.)

  • suprapubic pain
  • dysuria
  • fever

94

Cryptorchidism is…WHAT?

A testicle that hasn't moved into the bag of skin below the penis before birth

95

A progressive decrease in the force of the urinary stream, dribbling of urine, and difficulty initiating the urinary stream are characteristics of….WHAT?

prostatic enlargement

96

Which medication classes does the nurse educate men on for the treatment of erectile dysfunction (ED)? All that apply.)

  • prostaglandin alprostadil
  • phosphodiesterase type 5 (PDE5)

97

Medications can be prescribed for the treatment of premature ejaculation? All that apply.)

  • Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)
  • antidepressants

98

Causes of male infertility? All that apply.)

  • Smoking tobacco
  • alcohol
  • illicit drugs
  • overweight
  • exposed to toxins
  • overheating the testicles

99

Uterine prolapse is caused by a relaxation of …WHAT?

cardinal ligaments

100

Endometriosis is a condition in ……WHAT?

  • ectopic endometrial tissue is present
  • Most prominent symptom of endometriosis is dysmenorrhea