Final check your understanding Flashcards


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1

TRUE/FALSE
When the cause is unknown, a condition is said to be idiopathic

TRUE

2

The initial treatment of an individual experiencing a seizure is concentrated on

maintaining an airway.

3

Manifestations of acute brain ischemia (Cushing reflex) are due primarily to

sympathetic nervous system activation.

4

A ureterocele is

a cystic dilation of a ureter.

5

Which is not a manifestation of acute arterial obstruction?

Pain

Purpura

Pallor

Pulselessness

Purpura

6

The physiologic change most likely to lead to an increase in intracranial pressure is

cerebral vasodilation.

7

In older women, osteoporosis is thought to be primarily because of

estrogen deficiency.

8

A patient has a positive Chvostek sign. The nurse interprets this as a sign of

increased neuromuscular excitability.

9

Cor pulmonale refers to

right ventricular hypertrophy secondary to pulmonary hypertension.

10

The ________ is the level of painful stimulation required to be perceived.

threshold

11

Pneumocystitis is a term that refers to a

fungal pneumonia secondary to HIV.

12

Tophi are

deposits of urate crystals in tissues.

13

A fracture in which bone breaks into two or more fragments is referred to as

comminuted.

14

The pathology report for a patient with penile cancer has this statement: The tumor involves the shaft of the penis. The cancer is at what stage?

Stage II

15

_________ is a form of spina bifida in which a saclike cyst filled with CSF protrudes through the spinal defect but does not involve the spinal cord.

Meningocele

16

The expected treatment of a pregnant woman with hyperemesis gravidarum is

intravenous therapy.

17

Which blood pressure reading is considered to be indicative of prehypertension according to the JNC-7 criteria?

118/78

128/82

140/88

138/94

128/82

18

A patient presenting with fever, hypotension, and lactic acidosis is most likely to be experiencing what type of shock?

Septic

19

The final step in clot formation is

clot retraction.

20

A silent abdomen 3 hours after bowel surgery most likely indicates

functional bowel obstruction.

21

Malignant neoplasms of epithelial origin are known as

carcinomas.

22

What effect do demyelinating disorders such as multiple sclerosis have on neurotransmission?

Slower rate of action potential conduction

23

The most common cause of intrinsic kidney injury is _____ injury.

tubular

24

Leakage of CSF from the nose or ears is commonly associated with

basilar skull fracture.

25

Ulcerative colitis is commonly associated with

bloody diarrhea.

26

The final stage of gout, characterized by crystalline deposits in cartilage, synovial membranes, and soft tissue, is called

tophaceous gout.

27

Elevated serum lipase and amylase levels are indicative of

pancreatitis.

28

The dementia of Alzheimer disease is associated with structural changes in the brain, including

deposition of amyloid plaques in the brain.

29

Extreme cold injures cells by all the following except

decreased blood viscosity.

30

The strength of the bond between oxygen and hemoglobin is known as the

oxygen-hemoglobin affinity.

31

It is true that scleroderma involves

inflammation and fibrosis of connective tissue.

32

A patient with pure left-sided heart failure is likely to exhibit

pulmonary congestion with dyspnea.

33

Treatment of a uterine prolapse may involve the insertion of a(n) ________ to hold the uterus in place.

pessary.

34

In which stage of shock is a patient who has lost 1200 mL of blood, who has normal blood pressure when supine, but who experiences orthostatic hypotension upon standing?

Class II, Compensated Stage

35

The patient is a 12-year-old boy diagnosed with acute lymphoid leukemia (ALL). As part of treatment, the patient must undergo several weeks of chemotherapy. The most serious complication of chemotherapy is

infection.

36

Velocity of blood flow is measured in

centimeters per second.

37

The most common source of osteomyelitis is

an infection that migrates via the bloodstream.

38

TRUE/FALSE

Seasonal allergic rhinitis is most involved in type II hypersensitivity reactions.

False

39

A potential risk factor for breast cancer includes

early menarche and late first pregnancy

40

A patient diagnosed with a micropenis must be evaluated for

endocrine disorders.

41

The effects of histamine release include

increased vascular permeability.

42

An abnormally wide (more than 0.10 second) QRS complex is characteristic of

premature ventricular complexes

43

Two primary acid-base disorders that are present independently are referred to as

mixed acid-base imbalance.

44

A cause of thrombocytopenia includes

chemotherapy.

45

Jaundice is a common manifestation of

liver disease.

46

It is true that fibrocystic breast disease

may be exacerbated by methylxanthines.

47

After being diagnosed with hypertension, a patient returns to the clinic 6 weeks later. The patient reports “moderate” adherence to the recommended lifestyle changes and has experienced a decreased from 165/96 to 148/90 mm Hg in blood pressure. What is the most appropriate intervention for this patient at this time?

Continue lifestyle modifications only.

48

Pain with passive stretching of a muscle is indicative of

noncontractile tissue injury.

49

In individuals who have asthma, exposure to an allergen to which they are sensitized leads to which pathophysiologic event?

Inflammation, mucosal edema, and bronchoconstriction

50

A patient is exhibiting severe dyspnea and anxiety. The patient also has bubbly crackles in all lung fields with pink, frothy sputum. This patient is most likely experiencing

acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema.

51

The most common presenting sign/symptom with rheumatic fever is

polyarthritis.

52

Red blood cells differ from other cell types in the body, because they

have no cytoplasmic organelles

53

Liver transaminase elevations in which aspartate aminotransferase (AST) is markedly greater than alanine aminotransferase (ALT) is characteristic of

alcohol-induced injury.

54

Osmoreceptors located in the hypothalamus control the release of

vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone, ADH).

55

In type I diabetes, respiratory compensation may occur through a process of

respiratory alkalosis.

56

A patient with significant aortic stenosis is likely to experience

syncope.

57

Which causes vasoconstriction?

Norepinephrine

58

Patients presenting with symptoms of unstable angina and no ST segment elevation are treated with

antiplatelet drugs.

59

What effect would adrenocortical insufficiency have on an individual’s response to surgical stress?

More prone to hypotension

60

The ________ system compensates for metabolic acidosis and alkalosis.

respiratory

61

A diagnostic laboratory finding in myeloma is

Bence Jones proteins in the urine.

62

Activation of parasympathetic nerves to the bladder will cause

bladder contraction.

63

The physiologic mechanisms involved in the pain phenomenon are termed

nociception.

64

The disorders characterized by softening and then enlargement of bones is referred to as

Paget disease.

65

It is useful to conceptualize pain physiology according to the four stages because each stage provides an opportunity for

intervention.

66

More than half of the initial cases of pancreatitis are associated with

alcoholism.

67

Which neurologic disorder is commonly referred to as Lou Gehrig disease?

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

68

A patient injured severely in a motor vehicle accident is hospitalized with acute kidney injury as well as multiple broken bones and lacerations. When family members ask what is meant by the term ‘prerenal,’ the nurse responds

“Your husband’s kidney injury did not start in the kidney itself, but rather in the blood flow to the kidney.”

69

The complication which is not likely to result from a compound, transverse fracture of the tibia and fibula is

air embolus.

70

Your patient is scheduled for a staging procedure. She wants to know what that means. The correct response is which of the following?

It is a procedure for determining the extent of tumor spread.

71

Viral pneumonia is characterized by

a dry cough.

72

Abnormalities in intracellular regulation of enzyme activity and cellular production of ATP are associated with

hypophosphatemia

73

The classic manifestations of Parkinson disease include

rest tremor and skeletal muscle rigidity.

74

It is true that biliary cancer

tend to be asymptomatic and progress insidiously.

75

The condition characterized by oliguria and hematuria is

acute glomerulonephritis.

76

Which statement is true about the incidence of multiple sclerosis?

The age of onset ranges from 20 to 50 years.

77

The arterial blood gas pH = 7.52, PaCO2 = 30 mm Hg, HCO3 = 24 mEq/L demonstrates

respiratory alkalosis.

78

A primary effector cell of the type I hypersensitivity response is

mast cells.

79

A patient with renal disease is at risk for developing uremia as the nephrons progressively deteriorate, because

GFR declines.

80

Dysfunction of which organ would lead to clotting factor deficiency?

Liver

81

Hyperlipidemia occurs in nephrotic syndrome because

hepatocytes synthesize excessive lipids.

82

Clinical manifestations of severe symptomatic hypophosphatemia are caused by

deficiency of ATP.

83

What age group has a larger volume of extracellular fluid than intracellular fluid?

Infants

84

An example of inappropriate treatment for head trauma would be

hypoventilation. 

85

Risk factors for hemorrhagic stroke include

acute hypertension.

86

Excessive vomiting in pregnant women is known as

hyperemesis gravidarum.

87

The principle Ig mediator of type I hypersensitivity reactions is

IgE.

88

Decreased neuromuscular excitability is often the result of

hypercalcemia and hypermagnesemia.

89

Bone healing may be impaired by

nicotine use.

90

A patient with a productive cough and parenchymal infiltrates on x-ray is demonstrating symptomology of

bacterial pneumonia.

91

Dopamine precursors and anticholinergics are all used in the management of Parkinson disease, because they

increase dopamine activity in the basal ganglia.

92

The prothrombin time (PT) and INR (international normalized ratio) measure the integrity of

extrinsic pathway.

93

Most gallstones are composed of

cholesterol.

94

TRUE/FALSE
The nurse is swabbing a patient’s throat to test for streptococcal pharyngitis. The nurse must understand that tests such as this differ in the probability that they will be positive for a condition when applied to a person with the condition; this probability is termed sensitivity.

TRUE

95

What is the correct definition of complete remission (CR) of leukemia?

CR is less than 5% blasts in marrow and normal CBC values.

96

In which dysrhythmias should treatment be instituted immediately?

Asymptomatic sinus bradycardia at a heart rate of 50 beats/minute

Fever-induced tachycardia at 122 beats/minute

Premature atrial complexes occurring every 20 seconds

Atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate of 220 beats/minute

Atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate of 220 beats/minute

97

The hypersensitivity reaction that does not involve antibody production is type

IV.

98

Which acid are the kidneys unable to excrete?

Carbonic

99

What clinical finding would suggest an esophageal cause of a client’s report of dysphagia?

Chest pain during meals

100

The displacement of two bones in which the articular surfaces partially lose contact with each other is called

Subluxation

101

The greatest risk factor for bladder cancer is

Smoking

102

A malignant bone-forming tumor is referred to as a(n)

Osteoscarmoa

103

The pathophysiology of osteomalacia involves

Inadequate mineralization in the osteoid

104

What is the effect on resistance if the radius of a vessel is halved?

Resistance increases by a factor of 16

105

Cervical cancer can be detected in the early, curable stage by the ________ test.

Papanicolaou

106

While in the hospital for management of acute lymphoid leukemia (ALL), a patient develops severe thrombocytopenia. The most appropriate action for this condition is

Activity restriction

107

Healing of a fractured bone with a poor alignment is called

malunion

108

The normal post-void residual urine in the bladder is

Less than 100 mL

109

Empyema is defined as an

Infection in the pleural space

110

Respiratory alkalosis is caused by

Hyperventilation

111

Compartment syndrome occurs secondary to

soft-tissue damage

112

The most common sign/symptom of renal calculi is

pain

113

Anticholinesterase inhibitors may be used to manage

Myasthenia gravis

114

A 5-year-old patient’s parents report loss of appetite and fatigue in their child. The parents also state that the child refuses to walk as a result of pain. The child’s most likely diagnosis is

ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)

115

A patient is diagnosed with heart failure with normal ejection fraction. This patient is most likely characterized by a(n)

elderly woman without a previous history of MI

116

The earliest manifestation of scleroderma is

Raynaud Phenonmenon

117

Findings that should prompt an evaluation for renal cancer include

Hematuria

118

Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) syndrome is an example of a(n)

deficient immune response

119

Pain is thought of as

a subjective experience that is difficult to measure objectively

120

Allostasis is best defined as

the overall process of adaptive change necessary to maintaing survival and well-being

121

The person at highest risk of a greenstick fracture from falling off a tall ladder is age

8

Greenstick fractures occur primarily in children.

122

The most important determinant for prescribing therapy for acute stroke is

Ischemic vs. hemorrhagic cause

123

Clinical manifestations of hypoparathyroidism

Result from decreased serum ionized calcium

124

Selye’s three phases of the stress response include all the following except

allostasis

125

TRUE/FALSE

Erection requires the release of nitrous oxide into the corpus cavernosum during sexual stimulation

True

126

Constipation in an elderly patient can be best treated by

Increasing fiber in the diet

127

It is true that Graves disease is

associated with autoantibodies to TSH receptors

128

Blood flow throughout the periphery is regulated by

The autonomic nervous system

129

Increased preload of the cardiac chambers may lead to which patient symptom?

Edema

130

Which alterations can lead to edema?

Decreased lymphatic flow

131

In patients with polycystic kidney disease, renal failure is expected to progress over time as the cystic process destroys more nephrons. At what point will a patient reach end-stage renal disease?

Greater than 90% nephron loss

132

Diabetes mellitus is the ________ leading cause of death and a major cause of disability in the United States.

Seventh

133

A person who experiences a panic attack and develops hyperventilation symptoms may experience

numbness and tingling in the extremities

134

The definitive treatment for cholecystitis is

cholecystectomy

135

Endometriosis is a condition in which

ectopic endometrial tissue is present

136

What is the most likely explanation for a diagnosis of hypernatremia in an elderly patient receiving tube feeding

inadequate water intake

137

Paraneoplastic syndromes in cancer involve excessive production of substances by multiple means. A common substance found in excessive amounts resulting from cancer paraneoplastic syndromes is

calcium

138

Rupture of esophageal varices is a complication of cirrhosis with portal hypertension and carries a high ________ rate.

mortality

139

What finding should prompt further diagnostic testing in a child presenting with diarrhea

blood and mucus in the stools

140

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a rheumatic disease attributed to

autoimmune mechanisms

141

The conversion of plasminogen to plasmin results in

fibrinolysis

142

Overproduction of nitric oxide is an important aspect of the pathophysiologic process of what type of shock?

Septic

143

The difference between stress incontinence and urge incontinence is that stress incontinence

is caused by a pelvic floor muscle problem, whereas urge incontinence is caused by a problem with the detrusor muscle.

144

Hyperaldosteronism causes

ECV excess and hypokalemia.

145

Which form of leukemia demonstrates the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome?

CML (chronic myeloid leukemia)

146

Propylthiouracil may be used to treat hyperthyroidism, because it

inhibits thyroid hormone synthesis

147

Steroids may be used in the management of acute exacerbation of symptoms in patients with multiple sclerosis, because

demyelination is mediated by immune mechanisms.

148

A common component of renal calculi is

calcium

149

The pain that accompanies kidney disorders is called

nephralgia

150

A person who is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome is also experiencing hypoalbuminemia. This happens because

albumin is excreted in the urine.

151

The most effective therapy for anemia associated with kidney failure is

erythropoietin administration

152

A patient presents to the physician’s office with pinpoint hemorrhages on the skin. The patient is most likely between the ages of _____ years

4 and 7

153

Individuals with end-stage chronic renal disease are at risk for renal osteodystrophy and spontaneous bone fractures, because

they are deficient in active vitamin D

154

It is true that growth hormone excess in adults

results in the condition of acromegaly

155

The most common type of osteomyelitis is

hematogenous

156

The cause of the most common form of anemia is

iron deficiency

157

Carbon monoxide injures cells by

reducing oxygen level on hemoglobin

158

The hypermetabolic state leading to cachexia in terminal cancer is thought to be because of

tumor necrosis factor

159

Insulin binding to its receptor on target cells results in

increased facilitated cellular diffusion of glucose

160

It is recommended that women of childbearing age take folic acid daily for prevention of

neural tube defects

161

Pathophysiologically, esophageal varices can be attributed to

portal hypertension

162

A college student living in a dormitory reports a stiff neck and headache and is found to have a fever of 102°F. This information is most consistent with

meningitis

163

Patients with acute pancreatitis are generally made NPO and may require continuous gastric suctioning in order to

remove the usual stimuli for pancreatic secretion

164

First-degree heart block is characterized by

prolonged PR interval

165

After sitting in a chair for an hour, an elderly patient develops moderate lower extremity edema. His edema is most likely a consequence of

right-sided heart failure

166

Which condition enhances lymphatic flow?

increased interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure

167

Hepatic encephalopathy is associated with

increased blood ammonia levels

168

Celiac sprue is a malabsorptive disorder associated with

inflammatory reactions to gluten-containing foods

169

A thyroid gland that grows larger than normal is known as

goiter

170

In the acute phase of stroke, treatment is focused on

stabilization of respiratory and cardiovascular function

171

TRUE/FALSE

Lactated Ringer solution and normal saline are commonly used crystalloid solutions that contain electrolytes

TRUE

172

It is true that encephalitis is usually

because of viral infection in brain cells.

173

A patient with metastatic lung cancer wants to know her chances for survival. Which response is correct?

“Lung cancer has about a 15% survival rate.”

174

Rheumatoid arthritis is commonly associated with the presence of rheumatoid factor autoantibodies in the bloodstream. This indicates that rheumatoid arthritis is likely to be

an autoimmune process

175

Autologous stem cell transplantation is a procedure in which

stem cells are harvested from the patient and then returned to the same patient.

176

Bacterial pneumonia leads to hypoxemia caused by

accumulation of alveolar exudate

177

“Please explain the pathophysiology of osteoarthritis to me,” says another nurse. “Is it just wear and tear so that the cartilage wears out?” Your best response is

“No; cells in bone, cartilage, and the synovial membrane all get activated and secrete inflammatory mediators that destroy cartilage and damage bone.”

178

A common characteristic of viral pneumonia is

dry cough

179

All these cellular responses are potentially reversible except

necrosis

180

A person who has hyperparathyroidism is likely to develop

hypercalcemia

181

A 32-year-old female complaining of severe pain with menstruation and inability to participate in her routine household activities is likely experiencing

dysmenorrhea

182

The effect on the renal tubules during the postoliguric phase of acute tubular necrosis involves

regeneration of the renal tubular epithelium