pathophysiology mid term Flashcards


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  1. A case study!!! A patient e exposed to group A hemolytic Streptococcus developed a pharyngeal infection. Clinic examination: oral temperature of 102.3°F, skin rash, dysphagia, and reddened throat mucosa with multiple pustules. Complains of sore throat, malaise, and joint stiffness. A throat culture is positive for Streptococcus, and antibiotics have been prescribed. The etiology of disease is

streptococcal infection

2

After suffering a heart attack, a middle-aged man is counseled to take a cholesterol-lowering medication. This is an example of

tertiary prevention

3

A disease that is native to a particular region is called

endemic

4

Selye’s three phases of the stress response include all the following except

allostasis

5

The effects of excessive cortisol production include

immune suppression

6

Persistence of the alarm stage will ultimately result in

permanent damage and death

7

Apoptosis is a process that results in cellular

cell death

8

Necrotic death of brain tissue usually produces …What kind of necrosis.

liquefactive

9

Reperfusion injury to cells

involves formation of free radicals.

10

Breast cancer in women who have the breast cancer gene

occurs at an earlier age

11

Malignant neoplasms of epithelial origin are known as

carcinomas

12

What roles does inflammation play in cancer development?

Chronic inflammation increases risk for cancer. Cytokines release from inflammatory cell

13

Dramatic hypotension sometimes accompanies type I hypersensitivity reactions because

Massive histamine release from the mast cells leads to vasodilation

14

RhoGAM is given to an Rh-negative mother in order to prevent

prevention of Rh-positive antibodies

15

The principle Ig mediator of type I hypersensitivity reactions is

IgE

16

Myasthenia gravis is a type II hypersensitivity disorder that involves

impaired muscle function

17

Which form of leukemia demonstrates the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome?

CML (chronic myeloid leukemia)

18

Burkitt lymphoma is most closely associated with

Epstein-Barr virus

19

A low mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) and mean corpuscular volume (MCV) are characteristic of which type of anemia?

iron deficiency

20

The cause of the most common form of anemia is

iron deficiency

21

Dysfunction of which organ would lead to clotting factor deficiency

Liver

22

The prothrombin time (PT) and INR (international normalized ratio) measure the integrity of

extrinsic pathway

23

Disseminated intravascular coagulation may be treated with heparin therapy to

inhibit clotting factor consumption

24

A newborn has melena, bleeding from the umbilicus, and hematuria. The newborn most likely experiencing

vitamin K deficiency bleeding

25

What information about INR does the nurse understand?

It standardizes extrinsic clotting pathway analysis

26

Which is not a manifestation of acute arterial obstruction

Purpura

27

A serious complication of deep vein thrombosis is

pulmonary embolism

28

Which is not considered to be a risk factor for thrombus formation

Thrombocytopenia

29

A case study ….patient diagnosed with hypertension, returns to the clinic 6 weeks later. The reports “moderate” adherence to the recommended lifestyle changes and has experienced a decreased from 165/96 to 148/90 mm Hg in blood pressure. What is the most appropriate intervention for this patient at this time?

continue lifestyle modifications only

30

High blood pressure increases the workload of the left ventricle because it increases

afterload

31

A patient presents to the emergency department with a diastolic blood pressure of 132 mm Hg, retinopathy, and symptoms of an ischemic stroke. This symptomology is likely the result of

hypertensive crisis

32

the nurse understands that which is the correct description of a Korotkoff sound

Phase 2: Murmuring or swishing sounds

33

The primary treatment for myocardial infarction (MI) is directed at

decreasing myocardial oxygen demands

34

Patients presenting with symptoms of unstable angina and no ST-segment elevation are treated with…

antiplatelet drugs

35

Aortic regurgitation is associated with

diastolic murmur

36

Angina caused by coronary artery spasm is called what kind of angina

Prinzmetal

37

Atherosclerotic plaques with large lipid cores are prone to

rupture

38

Hypertrophy of the right ventricle is a compensatory response to

pulmonary stenosis

39

First-degree heart block is characterized by

prolonged PR interval

40

A patient with pure left-sided heart failure is likely to exhibit

pulmonary congestion with dyspnea

41

A patient is diagnosed with heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF). This patient is most likely described as a(n)

elderly woman without a previous history of MI

42

Massive release of histamine with consequent vasodilation and hypotension occurs with what type of shock

Anaphylactic

43

Allergic (extrinsic) asthma is associated with

IgE-mediated airway inflammation

44

Emphysema results from the destruction of alveolar walls and capillaries, which is because of

release of proteolytic enzymes from im-mune cells

45

Chronic bronchitis often leads to cor pulmonale because of

increased pulmonary vascular resistance

46

Cystic fibrosis is associated with

bronchiectasis

47

Croup is characterized by

a barking cough

48

COPD leads to a barrel chest, because it causes

air trapping

49

The hallmark manifestation of acute respiratory distress syndrome is

hypoxemia

50

Empyema is defined as an

infection in the pleural space

51

Pneumocystis is a term that refers to a

fungal pneumonia secondary to HIV

52

major cause of treatment failure in tuberculosis is

noncompliance

53

Bacterial pneumonia leads to hypoxemia caused by

accumulation of alveolar exudates

54

A common characteristic of viral pneumonia is

Dry cough

55

Which alteration can lead to edema

Decreased lymphatic flow

56

Hypernatremia may be caused by Clinical manifestations of hyponatremia include

decreased antidiuretic hormone secretion

57

Clinical manifestations of moderate to severe hypokalemia include

deficiency of ATP

58

A patient has a positive Chvostek sign. The nurse interprets this as a sign of

increased neuromuscular excitability

59

Which acid are the kidneys unable to excrete

Carbonic

60

Vomiting of stomach contents or continuous nasogastric suctioning may predispose to development of

metabolic acid deficit

61

Respiratory acidosis may be caused by

hypoventilation

62

Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis would result in

increased pH, increased HCO3

63

A patient is diagnosed with starvation ketoacidosis. What signs and symptoms should you anticipate in your assessment

Rapid, deep breathing, lethargy, abdominal pain