PETH Flashcards


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1

Additional factors that play a role in increasing ventilation during exercise include all of the following except __________.

Decreasing concentration of H+ in the venous blood

2

Decreasing concentration of H+ in the venous blood

aveoli

3

Cardiac output (Q) equals the volume of blood that ejected from the heart each second.

False

4

The dorsal respiratory group (DRG) is primarily responsible for inspiratory activity.

True

5

At rest, diaphragmatic action accounts for ~ _____% of the total muscular activity required for ventilation.

70

6

As the volume of the thoracic cavity increases during inspiration, alveolar pressure __________.

Falls below atmospheric pressure

7

Oxygen levels play a major role in the regulation of respiration.

False

8

Normal quiet breathing is accomplished primarily by the __________

diaphragm

9

Each liter of oxygen consumed is equal to approximately _____ kcal.

5

10

Which area is responsible for inhibiting inspiratory impulses to prevent over-distention of the lungs?

idk

11

The relationship between venous return, the filling of the ventricles during diastole, and stroke volume is known as the Frank-Starling law of the heart.

true

12

Epinephrine increases heart rate, while norepinephrine decreases it.

False

13

Blood leaves the aorta by way of the __

Aorta

14

Which gland is responsible for releasing the hormone epinephrine?

Adrenals

15

Type I muscle fibers receive a larger percentage of blood flow during submaximal exercise than Type II fibers.

true

16

At rest the metarterioles and precapillary sphincters are dilated to increase blood flow to muscles.

False

17

A metarteriole is a very small artery.

true

18

A well-trained resistance athlete will likely have a higher cardiac output than a well-trained endurance athlete.

false

19

Veins transport freshly oxygenated blood, while arteries transport de-oxygenated blood.

false

20

Another term for ventricular contraction is depolarization.

true

21

The left coronary artery is responsible for transporting a greater percentage of coronary blood flow.

true

22

Which factor does not influence cardiac output?

Myocardial oxygen consumption

23

When transitioning from rest to exercise, there is an increase in the release of _______ by the sympathetic postganglionic fibers, which increases heart rate and ventricular contractility.

Noradrenaline

24

The volume of blood ejected from the right and left ventricles each minute is the same.

true

25

During ventricular diastole the myocardium contracts, while during ventricular systole the myocardium relaxes.

FALSE

26

During ventricular diastole the myocardium contracts, while during ventricular systole the myocardium relaxes.

true

27

The _____ is the pressure in the systemic system against which the heart must eject blood.

Afterload

28

The right ventricle is significantly larger than the left ventricle.

false

29

Maximal oxygen consumption (V ̇O2max) is an excellent predictor of athletic success.

false

30

Which of the following would be a normal ejection fraction at rest?

50-70%

31

At rest what % of cardiac output goes to muscles?

25

32

The volume of blood that remains in each ventricle at the end of systole (contraction) is called end-diastolic volume.

false

33

Parasympathetic nervous system stimulation of the SA Node decreases heart rate.

true

34

An average stroke volume (SV) is __________.

70 mL ∙ bt–1

35

At rest the venous system contains approximately _____ of the total blood volume.

70%

36

The primary limitation of V ̇O2max, according to the peripheral model, is __________.

a-vo2diff

37

Sympathetic nervous system innervation during exercise causes coronary artery constriction.

false

38

The _____ is known as the pacemaker of the heart.

SA node

39

The fibrous sac that encloses the myocardium is known as the pericardium

true

40

Which chamber of the heart is typically the largest?

Left ventricle

41

Gas exchange takes place __________.

Capillaries

42

The volume of blood pumped by each ventricle in one minute is known as the __________.

Cardiac output

43

What percentage of all deaths in the Western world is attributable to coronary artery disease?

33

44

Endurance-trained athletes use carbohydrate stores more slowly than athletes with non-endurance training.

true

45

An average cardiac output at rest would be __________.

5 L ∙ min-1

46

A change in body fat level will have no impact on V ̇O2max

False

47

V ̇O2max is also known as maximal oxygen consumption and aerobic power

True

48

Which of the following adaptations to endurance training is the most responsible for the increase in cardiovascular efficiency at rest and during exercise?

Increased SV

49

Interval training is one of the most commonly used exercise techniques to improve V ̇O2max.

true

50

Women have a lower hemoglobin (Hb) content than men.

true

51

Which muscle fiber has an enhanced mitochondrial respiration capacity and is associated with endurance exercise performance?

type 1 fibers

52

V ̇O2max values decrease with age regardless of physical activity levels.

false

53

Which of the following is the most important factor determining increases in V ̇O2max?

intensity of exercise

54

One of the central adaptations that occurs as a result of endurance training is an enhanced ability to transport blood throughout the body.

true

55

On average, V ̇O2max values decrease about ____ per year for men after the age of 25.

1%

56

Which theory suggests that V ̇O2max is limited primarily by the body’s ability to transport oxygen-rich blood to working tissues?

presentation theory

57

The Ebbeling walk test is a submaximal test of V ̇O2max.

true

58

As long as exercise training continues to progress, V ̇O2max has the capacity to increase continually.

false

59

Which of the following tests of aerobic power does not rely upon heart rate to calculate V ̇O2max?

Cooper 12-minute run

60

Endurance athletes have an increased filling of the left ventricle.

true

61

Genetics (heredity) plays only a minor role in determining an individual’s V ̇O2max.

false

62

Which of the following tests of aerobic power is considered to be a “maximal” test?

Bruce treadmill test

63

One metabolic equivalent (MET) is equal to _____ ml ∙ kg–1 ∙ min–1.

3.5

64

Exercising at a heart rate of 65–85% of maximum for 20–30 minutes, 3–5 times per week, will increase V ̇O2max.

true

65

One of the central adaptations that occurs as a result of endurance training is an enhanced ability to transport blood throughout the body.

true

66

World-class endurance athletes who are male will have V ̇O2max values in the range of __________.

75–85 ml ∙ kg–1 ∙ min–1

67

On average, males have a V ̇O2max that is ____ higher than women.

10–20%

68

The ability of the left ventricle to fill with blood during diastole (ventricular relaxation) is similar between endurance-trained athletes and non-athletes.

false

69

Females tend to have V ̇O2max values that are approximately 20% below male values. The primary reason for this disparity is differences in __________.

Cardiac output

70

Well-trained athletes show a ____ decrease in V ̇O2max during the first three weeks of inactivity.

5

71

Resistance training has a negligible impact on maximal aerobic capacity.

t?

72

V ̇O2max decreases ____ per decade after the age of 25–30 years.

8-10%

73

The Bruce treadmill test is acknowledged to be a better measurement of aerobic power in individuals with low functional capacities and/or chronic cardiac disease.

false

74

Which of the following tests of aerobic power is considered to be a “maximal” test?

Bruce treadmill test

75

A reverse wrist curl would target which muscle?

Extensor carpi radialis longus

76

When performing a squat, the descent phase of the exercise is controlled by eccentric muscular contractions, while the ascent phase is controlled by concentric contractions of the target muscles.

T?

77

In the starting position of the lat pull-down, the shoulders are in __________ and the elbows are in __________.

Flexion/extension?

78

Which exercise would specifically target the brachioradialis muscle?

Hammer curl

79

Which exercise would be most appropriate for developing the anterior deltoid muscle?

Standing military press

80

Which of the following flexibility exercises should be recommended for developing optimal flexibility?

Sit-straddle-reach stretch

81

The definition of flexibility is the ability to move actively through a desired range of motion about a joint.

FALSE

82

A reverse wrist curl targets the musculature on the dorsal surface of the forearm.

true

83

Which of the following stretches is contraindicated and should be avoided?

Hurdler’s stretch?

84

While performing a standing dumbbell curl, supination is carried out by the biceps brachii and the brachioradialis muscles.

T?

85

When performing a standard lat pull-down, the hands are in a supinated position.

F?

86

When performing a standing barbell curl, the hands would be in which position?

Supinated

87

When performing a standing calf raise, the plantar flexor muscles of the lower leg are targeted.

T?

88

What type of stretching uses the body’s momentum to stretch the muscles?

Ballistic stretching

89

A standing military press utilizes the anterior deltoid for shoulder flexion.

true

90

Match the appropriate exercise with the primary body part (listed below) being trained.

standing military press- shoulders

Barbell curl- Anterior arm

Wrist curl- ventral forearm

Upright row-shoulders

Lat pull-down- upper back

Lying triceps extension-posterior arm

Lateral dumbbell raise- shoulders

Reverse wrist curl- dorsal forearm

Decline bench press-chest

Bench press- chest

91

The triceps brachii plays a significant role during the bench press exercise.

t?

92

Flexibility training is best done immediately prior to performing a warm-up.

f?

93

Which of the following stretches may place excessive pressure on the cervical spine?

Plough stretch?

94

Complete the following statement: Exercise is __________.

Medicine

95

The American Society of Exercise Physiologists emphasizes exercise physiology as a research discipline.

false

96

Which of the following is NOT true for board certified exercise physiologists?

all of the above

They avoid conflicts of interest that are counter to the profession of exercise physiology

They remain mindful that exercise physiology is a profession

They follow civilities that encourage diligence and trust

97

The American Society of Exercise Physiologists provides licensure for exercise physiologists.

false

98

There is currently a well-defined career path for certified exercise physiologists.

f?

99

The older population (> 65 years) in the United States is expected to __________

Increase in number by the year 2020

100

The most important change in exercise physiology over the last 50 years has been __________.

The founding of the American Society of Exercise Physiologists

101

It is becoming clear that exercise physiology must be recognized as a __________ profession and not a(n) __________ discipline.

Health care/research

102

The American Society of Exercise Physiologists was founded in _____

1997

103

The emphasis of the certified exercise physiologist is to conduct research into the physiological mechanisms that contribute to health and athletic performance.

false

104

All individuals with degrees in Exercise Science are exercise physiologists.

false

105

Research suggests that for every 1 MET that a patient attains, there is a corresponding reduction in annual mortality of _____.

11%

106

There is a dose–response relationship between exercise and health-related benefits.

true

107

Exercise physiology is a healthcare profession.

t?

108

Members of the American Society of Exercise Physiologists are committed to __________.

Promote the integrity, dignity, and independent judgment of the application of exercise physiology

Protect the privacy and confidentiality of all clients

Remain mindful that the practice of exercise physiology is a profession?

109

An academic major that prepares students for a career as an exercise instructor, personal trainer, or strength and conditioning specialist is ___________.

Exercise science

110

Exercise physiologists are qualified to determine the appropriate exercise intervention and intensity based on changes in functional and physiologic capacity, concomitant illness, and chronic or debilitating disease.

true

111

Which of the following is NOT a health benefit of regular exercise?

It decreases risk for cancer and early death

It decreases risk for depression

It decreases risk for type 2 diabetes

112

It is important for the future of the profession of exercise physiologists that individuals adopt an entrepreneurial attitude toward their profession.

t?

113

Business skills are an important factor for the profession of exercise physiology.

true

114

An individual who organizes, operates, and creates a business is known as __________.

Entrepreneur

115

Many people are drawn to a degree in exercise physiology due to the high salaries.

false

116

The first professional organization of exercise physiologists in the United States is __________.

ASEP

117

Which of the following would result in the revocation of certification?

all

118

Which of the following is NOT required to be eligible to sit for the ASEP certification exam?

Documentation of a minimum of 600 hours of hands-on laboratory experiences in exercise physiology (or closely related) laboratories

119

Which of the following venues would be outside of the scope of practice for a board-certified exercise physiologist?

all

120

Autonomy refers to specific government oversight of the profession of exercise physiology.

f?

121

In the event that a board-certified exercise physiologist has been alleged to have committed misconduct, the ASEP Professional Practice and Discipline Committee will contact the exercise physiologist with the allegations. The exercise physiologist will have _____ days in which to respond.

30

122

On-going research in the exercise sciences is an important aspect of the profession of exercise physiology because it is an evidence-based practice.

t?

123

The profession of exercise physiology has a long history in the United States.

false

124

The professionalization of exercise physiology requires __________.

all

125

Which of the following is NOT a key component of the ASEP Code of Ethics?

Exercise physiologists are expected to continue their academic education and attain a minimum of a master’s degree in a health-related discipline

126

All exercise physiology programs at colleges and universities must attain accreditation in order to offer a major in exercise physiology.

false

127

The American Society of Exercise Physiologists provides __________ for exercise physiologists.

Board-certification

128

Exercise physiology is a healthcare profession.

True

129

When an academic program becomes accredited, it means that all graduates of that program are automatically board-certified as exercise physiologists.

false

130

To become certified as an exercise physiologist, one must demonstrate academic knowledge as well as practical abilities.

t?

131

Which of the following is NOT consistent with the mission statement of the American Society of Exercise Physiologists?

Provide instructional and research advances in professional sports.

132

According to the ASEP Standards of Professional Practice, certified exercise physiologists are only qualified to work with “apparently healthy” individuals.

false

133

A certified exercise physiologist (ECP) is performing an initial physical screening on a new client and notices that the client’s blood pressure is 155/95. Is it within the scope of practice of the EPC to diagnose hypertension in this client?

false

134

According to the ASEP Code of Ethics, certified exercise physiologists must use scientifically valid training methods.

false

135

According to the ASEP Code of Ethics, it would be unacceptable for a certified exercise physiologist to endorse a nutritional supplement.

t?

136

Which of the following would be outside of the scope of professional practice for a certified exercise physiologist?

Diagnosing type 2 diabetes from a fasting blood sugar test?

137

The net energy yield of anaerobic glycolysis is __________.

2?

138

Pyruvate is six-carbon molecule.

false

139

The Krebs cycle takes place in the mitochondrion.

true

140

Which enzyme is responsible for breaking the bonds between phosphates in ATP, thus releasing energy?

ATPase

141

No oxygen is necessary during the Krebs cycle.

true

142

What is the net energy production of one molecule of pyruvate in the Krebs cycle?

1 ATP

143

In the second step of glycolysis, glucose-6-phosphate is transformed into __________.

Fructose-1,6-diphosphate

144

Phosphocreatine hydrolysis regenerates ATP by giving its phosphate to ADP to form ATP.

true

145

The end product of glycolysis is __________.

Pyruvate

146

The mitochondrion is impermeable to NAD.

t?

147

The process of forming glycogen from glucose molecules is known as _____.

Glycogenesis

148

In the first stop of glycolysis, glucose is phosphorylated by ATP, which converts the glucose to __________.

Glucose-6-phosphate

149

Substrate phosphorylation does not require oxygen.

true

150

Fructose-1,6-diphosphate is cleaved into how many three-carbon compounds during glycolysis?

2?

151

The electron transporter that is used during glycolysis is __________

NAD+

152

The rate at which glucose can be metabolized is controlled by the rate at which pyruvate can be converted into lactate.

false

153

What is the final electron acceptor at the conclusion of the electron transport chain?

Oxygen

154

CO2 is release during __________.

The Krebs cycle

155

When glucose molecules are combined together they form ________

Glycogen

156

Glycolysis takes place in the mitochondria of a cell.

false

157

Glycolysis is an oxygen-dependent process.

false

158

As glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate is converted into 1,3 diphosphoglycerate, _____ hydrogen atoms are released from each molecule of G-3-P.

2

159

Oxidative phosphorylation is an ATP-generating process that takes place in the __________.

Mitochondria

160

The catabolic process of breaking down glycogen into glucose molecules is called __________.

Glycogenolysis

161

The primary function of the Krebs cycle is to supply electrons to the electron transport chain and pyruvate molecules for the citric acid cycle.

false

162

ATP is generated within the electron transport system via oxidative phosphorylation.

t?

163

The smallest contractile unit within a muscle is called the ____

Sarcomere

164

Which muscle fiber type is characterized by a high activity of oxidative phosphorylation?

Type I fibers

165

The primary filaments in a muscle fiber are known as actin and myosin.

true

166

Skeletal muscle accounts for approximately ____ of total body weight.

40%

167

The muscular hypertrophy that occurs during puberty is a result of a significant increase in the number of muscle fibers per muscle.

false

168

The medulla oblongata is the region of the brain that is largely responsible for motor control.

false

169

The splitting of ATP releases stored energy that produces movement of the myosin cross-bridges, which results in the sliding of the thick and thin filaments past each other. This is known as the sliding filament theory.

true

170

Type I muscle fibers have a higher concentrati

false

171

Which muscle fiber type has the highest concentration of myoglobin?

Type I fibers

172

The muscles store enough ATP and creatine phosphate (CP) to power muscular contractions for several seconds.

true

173

The primary contribution of creatine phosphate (CP) to energy metabolism is the donation of a phosphate group to ADP, which subsequently forms ATP.

true

174

The term isotonic refers to a constant force or resistance.

true

175

Myosin is known as a thin filament, while actin is known as a thick filament.

false

176

________ work occurs when the movement of a joint is kept at a constant velocity.

Isokinetic

177

The central nervous system consists of __________.

The brain

The spinal cord

178

All levels of connective tissue that surround the muscle extend beyond the muscle and are continuous with the tendon.

true

179

Type I muscle fibers have a higher concentration of sarcoplasmic reticulum in comparison to type II fibers.

FALSE

180

Skeletal muscle accounts for approximately ____ of total body weight.

40%

181

__________ work occurs when the movement of a joint is kept at a constant velocity.

Isokinetic

182

The primary filaments in a muscle fiber are known as actin and myosin.

true?

183

Which muscle fiber type is characterized by a high activity of oxidative phosphorylation?

Type 1 ?

184

Myosin is known as a thin filament, while actin is known as a thick filament.

false

185

The muscular hypertrophy that occurs during puberty is a result of a significant increase in the number of muscle fibers per muscle.

false

186

The central nervous system consists of __________.

brain and spinal cord

187

The muscles store enough ATP and creatine phosphate (CP) to power muscular contractions for several seconds.

true

188

Type I muscle fibers have a higher concentration of sarcoplasmic reticulum in comparison to type II fibers.

false

189

The primary contribution of creatine phosphate (CP) to energy metabolism is the donation of a phosphate group to ADP, which subsequently forms ATP.

true

190

The splitting of ATP releases stored energy that produces movement of the myosin cross-bridges, which results in the sliding of the thick and thin filaments past each other. This is known as the sliding filament theory.

true

191

Blood doping is also known as gene doping.

false

192

An ethical action is one that provides greatest good for the largest number of people while minimizing the potential for harm.

true

193

All sports supplements are safe as long as they are used in the recommended dosages.

false

194

All supplements that are illegal would be unethical to use in sports. Therefore, all supplements that are legal are also ethical to use.

false

195

Food cannot be considered an ergogenic aid.

false

196

Only a small percentage of collegiate athletes use supplements or illegal performance-enhancing drugs.

false

197

Creatine use is banned by the NCAA for all collegiate athletes.

false

198

Winning is the most important aspect of competitive sports. Therefore, it is acceptable to have lower ethical standards in order to be more competitive.

false

199

The framework for ethical decision making includes all of the following except __________.

Determining if an action is legal

200

Creatine enhances performance by increasing muscle stores of phosphocreatine (PC).

true

201

According to the World Anti-Doping Code, if a substance meets at least two of three criteria, it may be banned for use by athletes. Which of the following is not one of those criteria?

The substance is illegal to use

202

The underlying purpose of the exercise physiologist’s code of ethics is to promote professionalism, prevent fraudulent practices, and to protect the public from unscrupulous and untrained providers.

true

203

According to the ASEP Code of Ethics, if a certified exercise physiologist had knowledge of a doctor who was illegally prescribing anabolic steroids to athletes, he/she would be required to call attention to this unethical behavior.

true

204

Human growth hormone (HGH) was banned by the International Olympic committee in _____.

1989

205

What year did the International Olympic Committee adopt a drug-testing policy and ban the use of specific drugs?

1967

206

Anabolic steroids mimic the effect of which hormone?

Testosterone

207

________ is the most widely used ergogenic aid among athletes who want to build muscle.

Creatine

208

The primary goal of the ASEP Code of Ethics is to prevent the certified exercise physiologist from being filed with a lawsuit.

false

209

How many amino acids are characterized as being “essential”?

9

210

High intensity sprint-style exercise is more dependent upon __________ stores than long endurance-style exercise.

Carbohydrate

211

Minerals that are required in amounts greater than 100 mg per day are called trace minerals.

false

212

For optimal glycogen replacement, athletes should consume a carbohydrate-rich meal immediately after exercise.

t

213

The fat soluble vitamins include all of the following except __________.

Vitamin c

214

A pre-event meal should be high in fiber and low in protein.

false

215

Elite athletes who are engaged in high-intensity training for 3–5 hours per day should consume approximately how much carbohydrate daily?

8–10 g ∙ kg body weight

216

Which of the following is not one of the eight nutrients that are central to the U.S. Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) for a balanced diet?

Sodium

217

Protein is made up of long chains of glucose molecules.

false

218

The recommended daily energy intake from protein is __________.

10-35%

219

Each gram of fat has _____ kcal of energy.

9

220

Which mineral plays an important role in enhancing the effectiveness of insulin?

chromium

221

If athletes are eating a well-balanced diet, they do not need vitamin supplements.

true

222

A normal adult is made up of 60–75% water.

true

223

Athletes should consume a diet that is high in “sports foods” such as protein powders and vitamin supplements for optimal performance.

false

224

The water-soluble vitamins include all of the following except __________

vitamin K

225

Each gram of protein provides ____ kcal of energy.

4

226

As exercise intensity increases, so does the percentage of energy derived from fat.

false

227

For individuals who exercise moderately, eating less than _____ kcal ∙ d–1 will put a serious strain on their health and nutritional needs.

1500

228

The RDA for protein for a sedentary adult is __________.

0.8 g ∙ kg body weight per day

229

The recommended energy intake from protein is 10–15%.

false

230

The best sources of calcium are _____.

dairy products

231

Insulin, a hormone released by the pancreas, is responsible for increasing blood sugar levels.

false

232

Which of the following blood sugar levels would be considered hypoglycemia?

55 mg ∙ dL–1

233

Vitamin C enhances the absorption of dietary iron.

true

234

Vitamin C supplementation has been shown to improve performance in endurance sports.

false

235

An optimal diet should have approximately __________ carbohydrates.

45-65%

236

The amino acid alanine may be converted into glucose by the liver.

true

237

Evidence indicates that exercise may be able to treat depression equally as well as prescription medications.

True

238

The basic components of exercise prescription include all of the following except __________.

All of the above

239

Which of the following is NOT an adaptation to exercise training?

Increase in sympathetic nervous system activity

240

Which of the following is not one of the basic components of an exercise prescription?

Temperature of exercise environment

241

Exercise is medicine.

True

242

A chronic inflammatory disease in which inflammatory cells and lipids accumulate within the artery wall.

Atherosclerosis

243

Speed is a significant component of muscular power.

True

244

The minimum threshold for increasing muscular strength is approximately _____% of 1RM.

60

245

Low-to-moderate intensity exercise is sufficient to produce health benefits.

True

246

To obtain the health-related benefits of physical activity, it is essential to choose the correct form of exercise.

False

247

The current physical activity recommendation for children suggests 60 minutes of moderate-to-vigorous activity on a daily basis.

True

248

Angiogenesis is a chronic inflammatory disease in which inflammatory cells and lipids accumulate within the arterial walls.

False

249

What percentage of the population is overweight/obese?

65%

250

Muscular strength is defined as the maximal force a muscle (or muscle group) can generate once.

False

251

Endurance exercise training will reduce both systolic and diastolic blood pressure readings by approximately 10 mmHg in individuals with mild hypertension.

True

252

Sarcopenia results in a greater loss of type I muscle fibers.

false

253

One metabolic equivalent (MET) is equal to ______ ml ∙ kg–1 ∙ min–1.

3.5

254

Exercise plays a small role in minimizing the risk of chronic disease.

false

255

If an individual is exercising at an intensity level of 13 METs, their oxygen consumption would be __________.

45.5 ml ∙ kg–1 ∙ min–1

256

Muscle strength declines by _____ per decade after the age of 50 years.

15%

257

Using the Karvonen formula, calculate a training heart rate of 65% HRR using the following information:

Male
Age: 55
Resting HR: 60
Max HR: 170
Blood pressure: 130/85

132 beats ∙ min–1

258

Strength training is contraindicated for individuals with osteoarthritis.

False

259

The age-related decrease in muscle mass is known as __________.

Sarcopenia

260

Regular exercise may improve quality of sleep.

True

261

Which of the following is a risk factor for heart disease?

Physical inactivity

262

According to the original RPE scale, an exercise intensity of 8 would be categorized as “very hard.”

FALSE

263

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for heart disease?

High HDL cholesterol (> 40 mg ∙ dL–1)

264

Cardiovascular disease accounts for ___% of all deaths in the U.S.

40

265

Muscle strength declines by _____ per decade after the age of 50 years.

15%

266

Which of Newton’s laws of motion would best explain why long-distance runners wear running shoes with cushion in the soles and sprinters do not.

Law of action and reaction

267

Lengthening of the radius increases angular velocity.

FALSE

268

Quantitative biomechanical analysis does not rely upon mathematical computation or statistical analysis.

False

269

You are watching a client perform a back squat and you notice that she has an excessive forward-leaning torso. This would be an example of _____ biomechanical analysis.Qualitative

Qualitative

270

Which of the following would be the best example of a temporarily stored counterforce?

A field goal kicker’s foot making contact with the football

271

Why do figure skaters draw their arms in close to their bodies when performing a high-speed spinning movement?

Angular velocity is increased as the radius is decreased

272

Force is the product of __________.

Mass and acceleration

273

To increase the momentum of a baseball bat during a swing, the hitter should “choke up” on the bat.

False

274

If an object is dropped from a height of 5 feet, it will have reached a velocity of _____ feet per second after it has fallen 4 feet.

128

275

Translatory motion is movement in which all body parts move in the same direction at the same speed.

True

276

Velocity is a vector quantity.

True

277

Linear motion is __________.

Movement in a straight line

278

Acceleration is a change in vector.

false

279

Newton’s first law (law of inertia) states that if one body exerts a force on another body, the second body will exert an equal and opposite force on the first body.

false

280

“Shin splints” is a type tendinitis of the lower leg that is typically an overuse injury. Which of Newton’s laws would best explain the occurrence of this injury?

Law of accelereaction

281

Which would hit the ground first, a golf ball dropped from a height of two feet or a baseball dropped from the same height?

Both would hit at the same instant

282

During a normal running stride, when the foot strikes the running surface, it imparts a force against the surface. Subsequently, the running surface imparts a counter force against the foot. This is an example of __________.

Law of action and reaction

283

Force is the product of __________.

Asphalt

284

A vector has both magnitude and direction.

True

285

Steve and John are having an arm wrestling match. John produces a greater amount of _____ and, as a result, wins the match.

Torque

286

During a baseball pitch, as the forearm rotates around the elbow joint, this would be an example of angular motion.

True

287

In angular movements of body segments, the maximum effective force and velocity occurs when the limb is at right angles to the direction in which the object is moved.

True

288

Rotary motion is rotation around a(n) __________.

axis

289

Which of the following is NOT one of the components of a lever system?

Velocity

290

Most bony levers have a force arm that is shorter than the resistance arm.

True

291

The force exerted by a muscle to move an object is comprised of two components: the rotational component and the stabilizing component.

True

292

During a muscular contraction, as a joint decreases, its angle below 90° there would be a(n) ______ in the stabilizing force.

Increase

293

A third-class lever is able to overcome a large resistance with a relatively small force.

False

294

What is the most common axis or fulcrum in human movement?

Joint

295

Rotational force is greatest at _____.

90°

296

The __________ the angle (up to 90°), the greater the rotary force and the __________ the stabilizing force.

Larger/smaller

297

Performing a sit-up would be an example of which type of lever system?

Third class

298

For each of the following, state the type of lever (first, second, or third class).

Wheel barrow---- second

Seated leg extension-----first

Standing dumbbell curl-----third

Pushup-----second

Head tilting forward slightly----first

299

Third-class levers are more efficient than first-class levers.

False

300

You are performing a standing dumbbell side raise to work the deltoid muscle. This would be an example of a _____-class lever.

Third

301

When the force arm is longer than the resistance arm, this favors _____.

Increased force

302

The two primary purposes of levers are to increase force or to increase speed.

True

303

In a first-class lever, the fulcrum is located between the force and the resistance.

True

304

Most of the muscles in the human body are _____ levers.

Third-class

305

When performing a seated dumbbell curl, the biceps brachii muscle creates internal force that is transmitted via the tendon to the forearm. This force production is known as __________.

Torque

306

Which is the most efficient class of levers?

First class

307

Why is it more difficult to perform a lateral raise when the arm is fully extended than when the elbow is bent at a 45° angle?

The resistive force is farther from the fulcrum

308

The rotational component is __________ to the bone, and the stabilizing component is __________ to the bone.

Perpendicular/parallel

309

If the biceps brachii tendon insertion point were moved closer to the elbow, there would be a(n) _______ in strength development.

Decrease

310

<p>A change of body position may result in a change of lever classification.</p> %MCEPASTEBIN%

True