For a person planning to hold a party outside, an example of the
predictable-world bias would be
A. hoping the weather will be nice this year
B. believing that nice weather is due this year because it rained a lot the last three years
C. believing the party will be fun outside regardless of the weather
D. remembering only past parties with good weather, not those with bad weather
E. believing the weather can be controlled if one wishes hard enough
Patrick believes his basketball coach doesn't like him and
subsequently focuses on all the times the coach criticizes his playing
and ignores all the times the coach praises his performance. Patrick's
behavior is best explained by the concept of
A. the Flynn effect
B. confirmation bias
C. retroactive interference
Keisha performs well in her geometry course in school, and her
classmates often ask her for help with understanding word problems and
writing formal proofs. Her friends describe her as very rational and
analytical. According to Howard Gardner, which type of intelligence is
Keisha most likely to possess?
Which of the following examples is most consistent with the theory
that executive functioning provides the basis for general
A. Geoff is able to easily remember a long list of instructions after hearing them only once and also scores higher than average on intelligence tests.
B. Reilly began walking earlier than most children and also scores higher than average on intelligence tests.
C. Amir is good at understanding other peoples' emotions and also scores higher than average on intelligence tests.
D. Jake can read very quickly and also scores higher than average on intelligence tests.
E. Rose has perfect pitch and also scores higher than average on intelligence tests.
Arthur is helping his friend set up her new phone. Arthur has never
used this type of phone, but he uses his knowledge of setting up his
own phone to help figure out how to use the new phone. According to
Robert Sternberg's triarchic theory of intelligence, Arthur is using
which type of intelligence?
A. Bodily-kinesthetic intelligence
B. Practical intelligence
C. Creative intelligence
D. General intelligence
E. Visual-spatial intelligence
Mary has an IQ score within one standard deviation above the mean
score. This indicates her score was
A. high enough for Mary to be considered a genius
B. higher than at least 75% of people who took the test
C. within the middle 68% of people who took the test
D. lower than exactly 7% of people who took the test
E. higher than exactly 93% of people who took the test
A researcher wanted to test the psychometric properties of a new
intelligence test for children. She administered the test twice, two
months apart, to children in a fourth-grade classroom. On the second
administration, she noticed that the children who performed well were
not the same children who performed well on the first administration
and that there appeared to be no relationship between student
performance on the first and second administration of the test. Based
on this scenario, the psychological construct missing from this
intelligence test is
A. test-retest reliability, because the researcher is administering the same test twice
B. test-retest reliability, because the researcher is administering equivalent forms of the test twice
C. split-half reliability, because the researcher is administering the same test twice
D. split-half reliability, because the researcher is administering equivalent forms of the same test twice
E. internal-consistency reliability, because the researcher is administering the same test twice
Professor Gustafson is developing a new intelligence test and wants
to ensure the test has good inter-rater reliability. Which of the
following strategies will most directly help him achieve this
A. Allowing only a small subset of highly trained researchers to grade the test, because this ensures standardization of test conditions
B. Allowing only a small subset of highly trained researchers to grade the test, because this ensures validity, which is crucial to establish reliability
C. Allowing only trained researchers to grade the test, as they will have a good understanding of the proper way to score certain things and will be more likely to agree
D. Ensuring that a representative sample of participants take the test, as this is the best way to establish reliability
E. Comparing scores from the test to scores from a similar test designed to measure the same construct, because this will establish reliability between the tests
Vandana, a 12-month-old infant, is listening to her father talk to
her and suddenly repeats a word that he just said. Her father praises
her and gives her a cookie. After she gets the cookie, she repeats the
word again. Vandana's behavior can be best explained by using the
A. universal grammar
B. linguistic determinism
E. classical conditioning
Rodrigo's three-year-old sister says the phrase "We goed to the
store" instead of "We went to the store." According to
Noam Chomsky, what is the best explanation for her behavior?
A. Her parents have not presented her with the appropriate corrective feedback to teach her not to use the incorrect form.
B. She is overregularizing her use of the past tense.
C. She has heard other children using the incorrect form and has learned that it is correct.
D. She has not yet entered the concrete operational stage of cognition, in which she will be able to learn the correct form of the word.
E. She has a specific language impairment, which has prevented her from acquiring the correct form.
Sometimes people who speak different languages are in a community
together and must develop a way of communicating. Similarly, their
offspring must also find a way to communicate. The main difference
between the speech of the first generation and the speech of the
second generation is
A. the speech of the first generation tends to include a larger vocabulary
B. the speech of the second generation tends to include a larger vocabulary
C. the speech of the first generation tends to have more complex grammar rules
D. the speech of the second generation tends to have more complex grammar rules
E. minor because there is typically no difference between the speech of the first generation and the speech of the second generation
Which of the following is not a component of learning according to
a. relatively long-lasting
b. occurs only directly, like in a lecture
c. based on experience
e. a change in behavior
Which of the following correctly describes insight learning?
a. learning that happens suddenly without any input from the environment
b. learning that takes place in a formalized setting, such as school
c. a form of learning in which we associate one stimulus with another
d. learning where we watch others and then mimic what they do
e. learning where we attempt several solutions until we find one that works
Which of the following is an example of insight learning?
a. a student listens to a lecture on the psychology of learning and then responds to an assessment of the content
b. a cat tries multiple paths through a maze until it finds a way out
c. a child learns not to grab for a cookie after having his hand slapped by a parent
d. a chimpanzee trying to reach a banana suspended from the ceiling stacks boxes on top of each other until he can get the banana
e. a seal learns to balance a ball on its nose after its trainer rewards it with fish
Through direct experience with animals, we come to anticipate that
dogs will bark and that birds will chirp. This best
a. spontaneous recovery.
b. the law of effect.
c. higher-order conditioning.
d. respondent behavior.
e. associative learning.
Which of the following correctly describes classical
a. a form of learning in which we associate one stimulus with another
b. learning where we attempt several solutions until we find one that works
c. learning that happens suddenly without any input from the environment
d. learning where we watch others and then mimic what they do
e. learning that takes place in a formalized setting, such as school
Which of the following is an example of operant conditioning?
a. a dog learns to cover its head with its paws at a flash of lightning because it knows a frightening clap of thunder will soon follow
b. a chimpanzee trying to reach a banana suspended from the ceiling stacks boxes on top of each other until he can get the banana
c. a child learns not to grab for a cookie after having his hand slapped by a parent
d. a cat tries multiple paths through a maze until it finds a way out
e. a student listens to a lecture on the psychology of learning and then responds to an assessment of the content
John B. Watson believed that psychology should be the science
a. observable behavior.
b. cognitive processes.
c. genetic predispositions.
d. natural selection.
e. culturally learned preferences.
Pavlov noticed that dogs began salivating at the mere sight of the
person who regularly brought food to them. For the dogs, the sight of
this person was a(n)
a. primary reinforcer.
b. unconditional stimulus.
c. immediate reinforcer.
d. positive reinforcer.
e. conditioned stimulus.
Blinking in response to a puff of air directed to your eye is
a. unconditioned response.
b. unconditioned stimulus.
c. conditioned reinforcer.
d. conditioned stimulus.
e. conditioned response.
Long after her conditioned fear of dogs had been extinguished, Marcy
experienced an unexpected surge of nervousness when first shown her
cousin's new cocker spaniel. Her unexpected nervousness best
a. latent learning.
b. spontaneous recovery.
c. delayed reinforcement.
e. higher-order conditioning.
A year after surviving a classroom shooting incident, Angie still
responds with terror at the sight of toy guns and to the sound of
balloons popping. This reaction best illustrates
a. an unconditioned response.
b. operant conditioning.
c. latent learning.
With which statement would B.F. Skinner most likely agree?
a. Pavlov's dog learned to expect that food would follow the bell.
b. Baby Albert thought the white rat meant the loud noise would sound.
c. All learning is observable.
d. Pigeons peck disks knowing that they will receive food.
e. Cognition plays an important role in learning.
What is entailed by a fixed-ratio schedule?
a. Responses are never reinforced.
b. Responses are reinforced after a variable number of responses.
c. Responses are reinforced continuously.
d. Responses are reinforced after a specific amount of time.
e. Responses are reinforced after a particular number of responses.
Which of the following is example of a fixed-ratio reinforcement
a. Because she has oversight responsibility for the servicing and repair of her company's fleet of cars, Maia frequently calls the garage mechanic to inquire whether service on various cars has been completed. However, service completion times are unpredictable.
b. Airline frequent flyer programs that reward customers with a free flight after every 50,000 miles of travel
c. If the onset of a light reliably signals the onset of food, a rat in a Skinner box will work to turn on the light.
d. In teaching her son to play basketball, Mrs. Richards initially reinforces him with praise for simply dribbling while standing still, then only for walking while dribbling, and finally only for running while dribbling.
e. A pigeon receives food for pecking a key, but only rarely and on unpredictable occasions.
If one chimpanzee watches a second chimp solve a puzzle for a food
reward, the first chimp may thereby learn how to solve the puzzle.
This best illustrates
a. operant conditioning.
b. observational learning.
c. respondent behavior.
d. discrimination learning.
e. spontaneous recovery.
If you get violently ill a couple of hours after eating contaminated
food, you will probably develop an aversion to the taste of that food
but not to the sight of the restaurant where you ate or to the sound
of the music you heard there. This best illustrates that associative
learning is constrained by
a. negative reinforcement.
b. intrinsic motivation.
c. the law of effect.
d. conditioned reinforcers.
e. biological predispositions.
An empathetic husband who observes his wife in pain will exhibit some
of the brain activity she is showing. This best illustrates the
a. the law of effect.
b. mirror neurons.
c. cognitive maps.
d. spontaneous recovery.
e. intrinsic motivation.
Which pioneering learning researcher highlighted the antisocial
effects of aggressive models on children's behavior?
a. John Watson
b. Albert Bandura
c. John Garcia
d. B.F. Skinner
e. Ivan Pavlov
Latent learning demonstrates that
a. negative reinforcement should be avoided when possible.
b. cognition plays an important role in operant conditioning.
c. conditioned reinforcers are more effective than primary reinforcers.
d. shaping is usually not necessary for operant conditioning.
e. punishment is an ineffective means of controlling behavior.
Which of the following correctly explains the evidence (as well as
the person responsible for the discovery) that stress leads to three
distinct stages of physiological change: alarm reaction, resistance,
A. hans seyle conducted interviews with human participants identifying their emotional state during different lengths of time living under stressful conditions
B. hans seyle conducted a study comparing the cortisol blood sugar levels in rats before and during a stressful situation
C. hans seyle conducted a study measuring cortisol and blood sugar levels in rats during different amounts of time living under stressful conditions
D. richard lazarus conducted a study measuring cortisol and blood sugar levels in rats during different amounts of time living under stressful conditions
E. richard lazarus conducted interviews with human participants identifying their emotional state during different lengths of time living under stressful conditions
The best ethos to understand the causal effect of a reward on an
intrinsically motivated behavior is to
A. conduct an experiment in which intrinsic motivation for a behavior is tested prior to administering a reward for that same behavior in a random sample of the participants and then measure the motivation after the reward is taken away
B. conduct a case study in which one individual is interviewed extensively about his or her intrinsic motivation for a behavior and the effect of rewards
C. conduct a cross-sectional study in which a large sample of individuals are interviewed extensively about their intrinsic motivation for a behavior and the effect of rewards
D. conduct an experiment where a random sample of the participants are given a reward for a given behavior and measure whether the behavior increases
E. conduct a correlational study where the relationship between participants' self-reported intrinsic motivation for a behavior is correlated with the rewards they receive for that behavior
Dr. Dameron wants to test whether the Yerkes-Dodson law holds true
for the players on a college basketball team. Dr. Dameron will
manipulate arousal in the players by giving them different doses of
caffeine. Which method would best allow Dr. Dameron to test the causal
effects of arousal on performance in the players, and what results
should he expect to find?
A. Give three different groups of players low, medium, and high doses of caffeine during a practice game. The performance of the high-dose group is predicted to be best.
B. Give each player a low dose, then a medium dose, then a high dose of caffeine during three consecutive practice games. Their performance while on the low dose is predicted to be best.
C. Give each player a low dose, then a medium dose, then a high dose of caffeine during three consecutive practice games. Their performance while on the high dose is predicted to be best.
D. Give three different groups of players low, medium, and high doses of caffeine during a practice game. The performance of the medium-dose group is predicted to be best.
E. Give each player a low dose, then a medium dose, then a high dose of caffeine during three consecutive practice games. Their performance while on the medium dose is predicted to be best.
Emotions are controlled primarily by the
A. limbic system
B. endocrine system
C. occipital lobe
E. corpus callosum
According to the drive reduction theory of motivation, drives arise
because of physiological imbalances in
A. the gonads
B. the chochleae
C. the parathyroid glands
E. the synapses
The neurotransmitter dopamin is most closely associated with
B. obsession and compulsion
D. reward seeking behavior
Before starting her day working at a day care center, Merideth takes
a few moments to smile at herself in the mirror. No matter how she is
feeling before she comes in, she finds that smiling helps her feel
happier before beginning her day. Merideth's experience is evidence
A. general adaptation theory
B. cognitive dissonance theory
C. unconditional positive regard
D. the facial feedback hypothesis
E. desirability bias
Monica is kicking a soccer ball with her brother in her front yard.
When the ball rolls into the street, Monica runs into the street to
retrieve it, and her father yells at her from the window. Monica
becomes upset when her father raises his voice. How do the Cannon-Bard
theory of emotion and the James-Lange theory of emotion differ in
explaining Monica's response to her father's raised voice?
A. The Cannon-Bard theory proposes that Monica's emotional state and physiological arousal occur simultaneously, whereas the James-Lange theory proposes that Monica's physiological arousal precedes her emotional state.
B. The James-Lange theory proposes that Monica's emotional state and physiological arousal occur simultaneously, whereas the Cannon-Bard theory proposes that Monica's physiological arousal precedes her emotional state.
C. The James-Lange theory proposes that Monica's emotional state and arousal occur simultaneously, whereas the Cannon-Bard theory proposes that Monica's emotional state stems from her cognitive appraisal of her father's disapproval combined with physiological arousal.
D. The Cannon-Bard theory proposes that Monica's emotional state stems primarily from physiological factors, whereas the James-Lange theory proposes that Monica's emotional state stems from her cognitive appraisal of her father's disapproval combined with physiological arousal.
E. The James-Lange theory proposes that Monica's emotional state stems primarily from physiological factors, whereas the Cannon-Bard theory proposes that Monica's emotional state stems primarily from cognitive appraisal factors.
Russ went for a run, and Nelly took a nap. They then watched a horror
movie together. Usually Russ and Nelly are about equally scared when
they watch horror movies. In this situation, Schachter's two factor
theory of emotion predicts that
A. Nelly will be more scared of the movie because she is well rested from the nap
B. Nelly will find the movie funny because she is well rested from the nap
C. Russ will be more scared of the movie because he is aroused from the run
D. Russ will find the movie funny because he is aroused from the run
E. Russ and Nelly will be equally scared of the movie
Chronic stress is most likely to lead to
A. increased cognitive function
B. increased tolerance for stressful situations
C. decreased functioning of the immune system
D. decreased functioning of the immune system
E. decreased production of cortisol
According to Kurt Lewin's motivational conflict theory, approach
avoidance conflict occurs when a situation has
A. only neutral aspects
B. only a strong negative aspect
C. only a mildly negative aspect
D. only a stron positive aspect
E. both positive and negative aspects
Stress can most likely contribute to heart disease because
A. heart medication is very expensive, so having heart disease increases stress
B. stress blocks stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system, so blood pressure goas up
C. too much stress has an effect on inherited risk factors
D. the fight or flight reaction stops food digestion, so people gain weight
E. cortisol released during stress reduces the flexibility of blood vessels, so the heart has to work harder
Personality tests that use forced choice questions are beneficial in
identifying personality traits because they
A. minimize desirability bias because test takers are choosing between two unrelated statements
B. allow the psychologist to account for how the paticipant acts in a variety of different situations
C. can test more personality facets than can other personality inentories
D. allow test takers to give intermediate responses
E. are subjective in nature, which allows a psychologist to draw more accurate conclusions from the data
To develop his theory about personality, Freud interviewed his
patients during therapy sessions, typically multiple sessions per
week. The patients laid on a couch while Freud asked questions and
listened to the patients' responses. What was one of Freud's main
contributions to personality theory, and which method did he
A. The existence of archetypes and the collective unconscious; case studies
B. The existence of archetypes and the collective unconscious; personality inventories
C. Personality is related to balance among the id, the ego, and the superego; case studies
D. Personality is related to balance among the id, the ego, and the superego; personality inventories
E. Many individuals are plagued by inferiority complexes that can develop into psychological issues; case studies
If a personality survey with high internal consistency includes two
different questions related to the personality dimension of
agreeableness, then which of the following is true?
A. It is impossible to predict how people will answer the second question based on how they answered the first question.
B. If people give an extreme answer to the first question, they will tend to give the opposite extreme answer to the second question.
C. People will tend to give dissimilar answers to both questions.
D. People will tend to give similar answers to both questions.
E. If people give a moderate answer to the first question, they will tend to give an extreme answer to the second question.
Rolf is beginning to learn to ski, but he is nervous about going down
some of the steeper slopes. Which of the following potential
explanatory factors would theorist Alfred Adler be most interested in
exploring to understand Rolf's concerns?
A. Rolf's need to overcome his feelings of isolation in the world
B. Rolf's feelings about his older sister, who qualified for the Olympics in skiing
C. Rolf's need to achieve self-actualization
D. Rolf's neurotic personality
E. Rolf's desire to prove to himself that he is capable of skiing down the steeper slopes, and his certainty that he has observed sufficient skilled skiers to emulate them
When Jordan was one year old, he and his father were in a car
accident. Neither he nor anyone else in the car was seriously injured,
and as an adult he has no memory of the event, though his father
developed anxiety around cars as a result. Jordan is now 26 years old.
Despite not having been in any car accidents since he was one year
old, Jordan has recently begun experiencing anxiety every time he gets
in a car. According to psychoanalytic theories of personality, why is
Jordan experiencing anxiety?
A. His anxiety is likely genetic and not related to the accident at all.
B. Despite not having any conscious memory of the accident, he remembers it in his subconscious, and that has begun to cause his anxiety.
C. He has learned to be anxious regarding cars over time because he has witnessed his father being anxious.
D. His anxiety was extinguished over time by not being reinforced by additional car accidents, but he is now experiencing spontaneous recovery of the anxiety.
E. Anxiety most often begins to develop after the age of twenty-six.
Giraldo is unhappy at work. One explanation that is consistent with
psychoanalytic theories of personality is that
A. Giraldo feels he cannot really be himself at work, and this lack of self-actualization causes his unhappiness
B. Giraldo feels critical of his choice not to go to college, and his defense mechanism is to blame his job for his unhappiness
C. Giraldo feels he has no choice about his work duties, and this external locus of control leads to his unhappiness
D. Giraldo thinks he is terrible at his job and everyone will soon find out, and this lack of self-efficacy leads to his unhappiness
E. Giraldo is generally not a very friendly or happy person, and this trait of low agreeableness causes his unhappiness
Jenny and Anne are identical twins but were separated at birth and
adopted by different families. When they meet each other as adults,
they are interested to learn that they share some aspects of
personality but differ in other aspects. Albert Bandura, known for the
social learning theory of personality, would most likely attribute the
differences in the twins' personalities to
A. differences in the environmental stimuli they experienced and elicited from others during development
B. subconscious desires to differentiate themselves from each other
C.their substantial differences in genetic makeup
D. the fact that genetic factors influence personality only in childhood
E. the attachment style they developed during childhood
Diane is very disciplined and usually completes the goals she sets
for herself. How would a trait theory of personality and a social
cognitive theory of personality differ in their explanations of
A. A trait theory might say that Diane is highly conscientious, whereas a social cognitive theory might say that Diane has a fixed mind-set.
B. A trait theory might say that Diane has a fixed mind-set, whereas a social cognitive theory might say that Diane is highly open to experiences.
C. A trait theory might say that Diane is highly conscientious, whereas a social cognitive theory might say that Diane's belief about her own self-efficacy drives her behavior.
D. A trait theory might say that Diane's belief about her own self-efficacy drives her behavior, whereas a social cognitive theory might say that Diane is highly conscientious.
E. A trait theory might say that Diane is highly open to experiences, whereas a social cognitive theory might say that Diane has a fixed mind-set.
Arun's coworkers regularly describe him as being very agreeable.
According to the behavioral perspective of personality, Arun's
agreeableness most likely comes from
A. being rewarded for exhibiting agreeable behavior as a child
B. witnessing agreeable behavior and wishing to mimic that behavior
C. a character trait that he inherited from his family
D. having a secure attachment with his parents
E. the superego successfully controlling the impulses of the id
Domy was raised in a collectivistic culture, while Naureen was raised
in an individualistic culture. Based on their upbringings, it is most
safe to conclude that compared to Naureen, Domy is more likely
A. keep a journal in which she highlights the ways that she is special and unique
B. skip going to a concert so she can have dinner with her family
C. tell her boss that a coworker did not contribute to a project so that she could get full credit for the work
D. speak up at a meeting to make sure her ideas are heard
E. try to run faster on the treadmill at the gym than the person on the treadmill next to her
Dr. Anderson is a psychologist who currently has a patient who is
having difficulty forming relationships with others. To help her
patient work through his issues, Dr. Anderson focuses on developing
with him a strong relationship that is characterized by unconditional
positive regard. Dr. Anderson's approach is most consistent with which
type of theory of personality?
A therapist who is an adherent of the humanistic personality theory
would most likely focus on which of the following?
A. The underlying and consistent behavioral traits that differ across individuals
B. Differences in rewards and punishments as the source of behavioral differences
C. Unconscious motives guiding people's behavior
D. The pursuit of self-actualization
E. The influence of the beliefs about the self on behavior
Chidi is very selfless, cooperative, and trusting of other people.
According to the Big Five model of personality, these characteristics
A. low in agreeableness
B. high in extroversion
C. low in neuroticism
D. high in agreeableness
E. low in extroversion
Michael is a kindergartner who is habitually very kind to his
classmates and always wants to play with others, even if it means
sharing his toys. However, every morning when his mother leaves him at
school, he becomes very upset and cries for a half hour. How would a
trait theorist most likely characterize his relative levels of
extraversion, neuroticism, and agreeableness?
A. High on extraversion; high on neuroticism; high on agreeableness
B. Low on extraversion; low on neuroticism; low on agreeableness
C. High on extraversion; high on neuroticism; low on agreeableness
D. High on extraversion; low on neuroticism; high on agreeableness
E. Low on extraversion; high on neuroticism; low on agreeableness
Which of the following scenarios most directly refutes trait theories
A. Benjamin takes a personality inventory and feels that it describes him very well.
B. Victoria goes to the same restaurant and orders the same meal every day, but when she goes out to eat with friends, she likes to order the most interesting thing on the menu.
C. Cristobal is habitually easily frustrated when he does not get his way.
D. Assaf keeps his house very organized.
E. Franklin gets along with just about everyone he meets and makes friends wherever he goes.
Dr. Brenner works with people to help them decide what jobs would be
most suitable for them. She wants her clients to take a personality
inventory and believes that the five-factor model of personality is
the best model to use to determine job fit. The test that will give
her reliable results and best fit her view of personality is
A. Draw-A-Person test (DAP)
B. Woodworth Personal Data Sheet
C. NEO™ Personality Inventory-3 (NEO™-PI-3)
D. Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale®—Fourth Edition (WAIS®-IV)
E. Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)
Alison is completing a practicum in a psychiatric clinic, and her
supervisor has asked her to select an appropriate test for a patient
she suspects has a personality disorder but who is otherwise within
the normal range for IQ and does not appear to have other cognitive
issues. Of the following measures, which would be the most appropriate
A. The Rorschach test
B. The Stanford-Binet test
C. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory-2-Restructured Form® (MMPI-2-RF®)
D. The HEXACO Personality Inventory Revised (HEXACO PI - R)
E. The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator® (MBTI®)
Dr. Howard wants to evaluate a patient's personality with respect to
motivation. The patient does not read very well and does not have a
very long attention span. Which of the following tests will provide
reliable results in the most practical manner?
A. The Cattell Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire® (16PF®)
B. The NEO™ Personality Inventory-3 (NEO™-PI-3)
C. The Freudian Personality Type Test
D. The Thematic Apperception Test
E. The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory-2-Restructured Form® (MMPI-2-RF®)
Shelly fully expected to win her debate tournament, but she lost. She
then spent many hours reviewing the debate to figure out why the
outcome occurred. Shelly is engaged in
A. social identification
B. false consensus
Who is most clearly demonstrating the false-consensus effect?
A. Blanche, who is open about her political views because she assumes everyone agrees with her
B. Rex, who believes that people who are poor are poor because they have made bad decisions
C. Eileen, who believes that there is no reason to be concerned about the responsibilities of life because others will take care of her
D. Troy, who never takes credit for his successes but blames himself for his failures
E. Michelle, who treats her friends poorly when she is having a bad day
Claire is conducting research on attribution theory in the United
States, which is considered an individualistic country, and in
Indonesia, a more collectivistic country. The observation Claire will
most likely see in her research is more
A. prevalence of self-fulfilling prophecies in the United States than in Indonesia
B. evidence of the self-serving bias in Indonesia than in the United States
C. evidence of the fundamental attribution error in the United States than in Indonesia
D. immediate external attributions in the United States than in Indonesia
E. accurate attributions in the United States than in Indonesia
A researcher would test the foot-in-the-door phenomenon by randomly
A. assigning 60 people to 2 groups. The researcher would then ask one group to place a large "Drive Carefully" sign in their windows, and then later ask them to place a smaller sign in their yard. The researcher would ask the second group to place a small sign in their yards without asking them to place the large sign in their windows first.
B. selecting 60 people from a population. The researcher would then ask the participants to place a small "Drive Carefully" sign in their windows and later ask them to place a large sign in their yards.
C. assigning 60 people to 2 groups. The researcher would then ask one group to place a small "Drive Carefully" sign in their windows, and would later ask the participants to place a large sign in their yards. The researcher would ask the second group to place a large sign in their yard without asking them to place the smaller sign in their windows first.
D. selecting 60 people from a population. The researcher would then ask the participants to place a large "Drive Carefully" sign in their windows and later ask them to place a small sign in their yard.
E. selecting 100 people from a population. The researcher would then ask the 100 participants to place a large "Drive Carefully" sign in their windows and later ask them to place a small sign in their yards.
A researcher could say with certainty that someone was affected by
the peripheral route to persuasion by conducting
A. an experiment where the participants are presented with facts
B. an experiment where participants are presented with an attractive spokesmodel
C. a case study comparing the central and peripheral routes to persuasion
D. a naturalistic observation where the participants are presented with an attractive spokesmodel
E. a naturalistic observation where the participants are presented with facts
What most accurately describes Leon Festinger's results in his
classic experiment on cognitive dissonance?
A. Festinger asked participants to complete a boring task and rewarded them with either a large amount or a small amount of money for completing it. Those who received a large amount of money were more likely than those who received a small amount to rate the task as enjoyable.
B. festinger asked participants to complete a boring task and rewarded them with either a large amount or a small amount of money for completing it. Those who received a small amount of money were more likely than those who received a large amount to rate the task as enjoyable.
C. The amount of money given to participants for completing a boring task was positively correlated with the reported enjoyableness of the task.
D. Festinger was unable to draw any concrete conclusions from his study because he used only correlational data.
E. Festinger was unable draw any concrete conclusions because the amount of money given as a reward was a confounding variable in the study.
Which ethical concept is most directly relevant to Solomon Asch's
study on conformity, and why?
A. Coercion, because Asch's study was criticized since participants did not take part voluntarily.
B. Confidentiality, because Asch disseminated the results of his study after the study was completed.
C. Informed consent, because the participants did not know the true nature of the experiment, which made it unethical.
D. Deception, because Asch had to deceive his participants about the true nature of the study in order to test conformity.
E. Deception, because Asch had to deceive his participants in order to get them to play out the role of the prisoner or guard successfully.
One of the most common criticisms of Stanley Milgram's studies of
obedience is that
A. the results were generalizable to only one group of people because he used only men in his study
B. the sample sizes were too small to be able to draw accurate conclusions because he used only 40 participants
C. it was difficult to say what Milgram actually found because he did not operationally define his variables
D. they were unethical because they were extremely stressful to the participants
E. Milgram should have debriefed his participants after the study was conducted because he used deception
Philip Zimbardo designed his Stanford Prison Study in order to test
the validity of two hypotheses. The first was the dispositional
hypothesis; the second was the situational hypothesis. The
dispositional hypothesis stated that some people have certain
character traits which lead them to naturally be more aggressive and
distrustful of authority. These people can be thought of as having a
prisoner personality. Other people have character traits in which they
enjoy having control or authority over others. These people can be
thought of as having a prison guard personality. The situational
hypothesis stated that the situation the people were in determined
their behavior. Which of Zimbardo's hypotheses was supported by his
study and why?
A. The situational hypothesis, because randomly selected participants took on the characteristics of prisoner or guard depending on how they were selected
B. The situational hypothesis, because because randomly assigned participants took on the characteristics of prisoner or guard depending on how they were assigned
C. The dispositional hypothesis, because because randomly selected participants took on the characteristics of prisoner or guard depending on how they were selected
D. The dispositional hypothesis, because because randomly assigned participants took on the characteristics of prisoner or guard depending on how they were assigned
E. The dispositional hypothesis, because participants were allowed to choose their role of prisoner or guard
A person experiencing deindividuation would
A. run faster with a crowd cheering her on than she does when she runs by herself
B. wear purple because all the popular girls at her school do
C. paints her face with her favorite soccer team's colors and gets into a fight with some fans of a rival team at the game, even though she is normally shy and meek
D. walk the other way when someone steals a bike when she visits a city much more populated than her hometown, even though she is normally a helpful person
E. put in less effort when she works on a group project than she does for the schoolwork she does on her own.
An accurate representation of the effect of social facilitation is when
A. Lizzie performed better than usual after she had practiced her choir performance for months.
B. Mario performed worse in alpine skiing on a new course, although he is normally a good skier.
C. Frederick enjoyed spending time bowling with his friends more than usual because so many of them were present.
D. Maddox shot even better when he was in front of his friends, even though he is usually a good free throw shooter.
E. Thaddeus enjoyed his birthday party less when all of his friends went home.
Which situation best illustrates obedience?
A. Mary slapped a coworker after Stan, a lower-ranking employee in her company, ordered her to do so.
B. After receiving an anonymous phone call commanding that she fill her bathtubs with water, Sheryl spent the next ten minutes fulfilling this command.
C. Langley attended a speech on violence prevention on campus after her professor told her she must attend the event.
D. After being assigned the task of cleaning the toilets at work, Teddy finished the job even though his teammates decided not to help.
E. Josie saw her coworkers leaving work early and decided to leave early as well.
Anna, who is an introvert and has an introverted friend with a cat,
is often unkind to cat owners. She also believes that all people who
like cats are introverts. Her belief can best be described as
A. a stereotype, because Anna is assuming all people who like cats have to be introverts
B. discrimination, because Anna is assuming all people who like cats have to be introverts
C. prejudice, because Anna's belief causes her to be mean to people who like cats
D. ethnocentrism, because Anna identifies as an introvert
E. the mere-exposure effect, because Anna knows someone who likes cats and is introverted
Cynthia has a strong dislike for everyone in a neighboring town. This
can be explained as
A. stereotype, because she has a fixed idea about the kind of people they are
B. prejudice, because she has a generalized negative feeling toward them
C. cognitive dissonance, because she has to travel through the town to get to work
D. mere-exposure effect, because she dislikes them more the longer she knows them
E. in-group bias, because everyone in her neighborhood does not like them
Which of the following examples describes discrimination?
A. Anthony thinks that all English majors love poetry.
B. Sarah dislikes all people who play sports.
C. Ms. Burrell gives boys lower grades than girls for similar work.
D. Mr. Munsen thought Tim must be a troublemaker, and Tim started acting up in class.
E. A basketball team blames one player for losing the entire game.
Which of the following scenarios best describes the bystander effect?
A. Marco volunteers once a week at a local animal shelter.
B. Thomas babysits his neighbor's child, and a month later his neighbor lets Thomas borrow her car.
C. Carrington is more likely to help a stranger on a bus when there are only a few people on the bus versus when the bus is crowded.
D. Clarence learns how to take the subway by watching the man in front of him.
E. Liam, a dedicated fitness enthusiast, starts spending time with other fitness enthusiasts and becomes almost fanatic about his fitness beliefs.
A biochemical influence on aggression is represented by
A. Elliott yelling at his dog because his endorphins are high
B. Wyndi imitating the action of her brother and pushes another child on the playground
C. Jeremy punching the steering wheel of his car because he is stuck in traffic
D. Brian becoming less aggressive as his testosterone levels decrease with age
E. Charles bullying his classmates because his epinephrine is low
Which of the following best represents the reciprocity norm?
A. Erik stops to help someone even though it puts him in danger.
B. Lisa helps her boss because she does not believe that she can turn down her boss.
C. Rhonda volunteers at a homeless shelter because all her friends volunteer there.
D. Jan does extra work in a group project because her friends ask her to.
E. Ronny helps a friend move because the friend previously helped Ronny move.
Which of the following best illustrates the research on how certain
characteristics of physical attractiveness influence interpersonal
attraction regardless of culture?
A. Tyreke is attracted to Mira because she has a dimple on one side of her face.
B. Josie is attracted to Kari because they are both 65 years old.
C. Joseph is attracted to Kent because his face possesses a high degree of symmetry.
D. Kermit is attracted to Danae because she has a high hip-to-waist ratio.
E. Zeena is attracted to Bursas because he has a large nose.
Which of the following scenarios describes attraction from the
A. Viktor is in a relationship with Naissan because she reminds him of his mother.
B. The more time Tara spends with Dana, the more she likes her.
C. Even though he is not aware of it, Benjamin is attracted to Alawa because she has signs of reproductive viability.
D. Craig wants to spend time with Duncan because every time they see each other, Duncan gives Craig a new comic book.
E. Lily enjoys seeing her therapist, Dr. Ahad, because Dr. Ahad provides Lily with unconditional positive regard.
Which scenario best describes the variable of similarity in
A. Bobby, who is of average attractiveness, prefers to date women that are stereotypically very good-looking.
B. Greg ends up dating his next-door neighbor.
C. Cindy grew to love her partner after sharing many intimate conversations with him.
D. Marcia prefers to date people that are quiet and reserved like she is.
E. Jan grew to love her fiancé even more after he proposed to her.
Which of the following is an unlearned, complex behavior exhibited by
all members of a species?
Which of the following is an aroused motivational state created by a
Which of the following is a conclusion that can be drawn from the
A. Performance on easy tasks is best when arousal is low.
B. Performance is best when arousal is extremely high.
C. Performance is best when arousal is extremely low.
D. Performance on difficult tasks is best when arousal is high.
E. Performance is best when arousal is moderate.
Which of the following is the lowest priority motive in Abraham
Maslow's hierarchy of needs?
A. Belongingness and love needs
B. Physiological needs
C. Esteem needs
D. Self-actualization needs
E. Self-transcendence needs
Which of the following is the major source of energy in your
B. Arcuate nucleus
Which of the following is the best term or phrase for the body's
resting rate of energy expenditure?
B. Set point
C. Basal metabolic rate
D. Body chemistry
E. Settling point
Which of the following statements is true?
A. We eat less dessert when there are three different desserts available.
B. Serving sizes in France are generally larger than in the United States.
C. Offered a supersized portion, most of us consume fewer calories.
D. We eat more when we're around others.
E. Food variety generally decreases appetite.
One night Samar became frightened when she was startled by a noise
while walking down the street alone. Which theory of emotion would say
that her fear resulted from the startle response alone?
The Cannon-Bard theory of emotion states that:
A. Emotional response occurs before cognition.
B. Physiological response occurs before emotional response.
C. Emotional response occurs before physiological response.
D. Cognition occurs before emotional response.
E. Physiological response and emotion occur independently and simultaneously.
Which of the following is an example of cognitive appraisal?
A. Randal is happy all day because he is savoring the wonderful events of yesterday.
B. Charles is frightened in a dark alley because he remembers stories of others being attacked in dark alleys.
C. Sherika labels the arousal she is feeling as attraction because she is in the presence of a good-looking young man.
D. Dora is angry because she cannot figure out how to convince her husband to take her to Hawaii.
E. Ann is frustrated because traffic has made her late for an important meeting.
Which of the following characterizes the "low road" neural
pathway to emotions?
A. Information travels directly from the thalamus to the amygdala.
B. The emotion results more slowly than it would via the "high road."
C. It is an example of top-down processing.
D. It is more likely to be utilized for complex feelings.
E. It passes through the brain's cortex.
The general adaptation syndrome (GAS) begins with:
Which of the following actions is a violation of Maslow's hierarchy
A. A person who moves to a new city get an apartment before beginning to make new friends.
B. A very hungry reality show contestant searches for food before trying to win a competition.
C. A professor spends time socially with her colleagues before she works on her own research.
D. An artist works to win a local award before spending time on his own personal projects.
E. An athlete follows a "no pain, no gain" motto rather than stopping for rest and nourishment.
Emotions are a mix of consciously experienced thoughts, expressive
behaviors, and physiological arousal. Which theory emphasizes the
importance of consciously experienced thoughts?
A. Facial feedback theory
B. James-Lange theory
C. Arousal and performance theory
D. Fight-or-flight theory
E. Schachter-Singer two-factory theory
The stress hormones epinephrine and norepinephrine are released from
A. Parasympathetic nervous system
C. Brain stem
D. Adrenal glands
Brain scans and EEG recordings indicate that positive emotions are
associated with high levels of activity in which brain
A. Right temporal lobe
C. Left frontal lobe
D. Left temporal lobe
E. Right parietal lobe
After an alarming event, your temperature, blood pressure, and
respiration are high, and you have an outpouring of hormones. Hans
Selye would most likely guess that you are in which general adaptation
A person who eats excessively and never seems to feel full may have
which of the following conditions?
A. Tumor in the hypothalamus
B. Too much insulin
C. Stomach ulcer
D. Stomach bypass surgery
E. Too much of the hormone PYY
When hearing emotions conveyed in another language, what emotion can
people most readily detect?