Anatomy & Physiology: Anatomy and Physiology 7-9 Flashcards


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Anatomy & Physiology
Chapters 7-9
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1

Which of the following is part of the axial skeleton?

a. shoulder bones

b. thigh bone

c. foot bones

d. vertebral column

vertebral column

2

Which of the following is a function of the axial skeleton?

a. allows for movement of the wrist and hand

b. protects nerves and blood vessels at the elbow

c. supports trunk of body

d. allows for movements of the ankle and foot

supports trunk of body

3

the axial skeleton__________________

a. consists of 126 bones

b. forms the vertical axis of the body

c. includes all bones of the body trunk and limbs

d. includes only the bones of the lower limbs

forms the vertical axis of the body

4

Which of the following is a bone of the brain case?

a. parietal bone

b. zygomatic bone

c. maxillary bone

d. lacrimal bone

a parietal bone

5

The lambdoid suture joins the parietal bone to the _________

a. frontal bone

b. occipital bone

c. other parietal bone

d. temporal bone

occipital bone

6

The middle cranial fossa _________

a. is bounded anteriorly by the petrous ridge

b. is bounded posteriorly by the lesser wing of the sphenoid bone

c. is divided at the midline by a small area of the ethmoid bone

d. has the foramen rotundum, foramen ovale, and foramen spinosum

has the foramen rotundum, foramen ovale, and foramen spinosum

7

The paranasal sinuses are ______

a. air-filled spaces found within the frontal, maxilla, sphenoid, and ethmoid bones only

b. air-filled spaces found within all bones of the skull

c. not connected to the nasal cavity

d. divided at the midline by the nasal septum

air-filled spaces found within the frontal, maxilla, sphenoid, and ethmoid bones only

8

Parts if the sphenoid bone include _______

a. sella turcica

b. squamous portion

c. glabella

d. zygomatic process

sella turcica

9

The bony openings of the skull include the__________

a. carotid canal, which is located in the anterior cranial fossa

b. superior orbital fissure, which is located at the superior margin of the anterior orbit

c. mental foramen, which is located just below the orbit

d. hypoglossal canal, which is located in the posterior cranial fossa

hypoglossal canal, which is located in the posterior cranial fossa

10

The cervical region of the vertebral column consists of ____________

a. seven vertebrae

b. 12 vertebrae

c. five vertebrae

d. a single bone derived from the fusion of five vertebrae

seven vertebrae

11

The primary curvatures of the vertebral column_______________

a. include the lumbar curve

b. are remnants of the original fetal curvature

c. include the cervical curve

d. develop after the time of birth

are remnants of the original fetal curvature

12

A typical vertebra has ______________

a. a vertebral foramen that passes through the body

b. a superior articular process that projects downward to articulate with the superior portion of the next lower vertebra

c. lamina that spans between the transverse process and spinous process

d. a pair of laterally projecting spinous processess

lamina that spans between the transverse process and spinous process

13

A typical lumbar vertebra has__________

a. a short, rounded spinous process

b. a bifid spinous process

c. articulation sites for ribs

d. a transverse foramen

a short, rounded spinous process

14

Which is found only in the cervical region of the vertebral column?

a. nuchal ligament

b. ligamentum flavum

c. supraspinous ligament

d. anterior longitudinal ligament

nuchal ligaments

15

The sternum____________-

a. consists of only two parts, the manubrium and xiphoid process

b. has the sternal angle located between the manubrium and body

c. receives direct attachments from the costal cartilages of all 12 pairs of ribs

d. articulates directly with the thoracic vertebrae

has the sternal angle located between the manubrium and body

16

the sternal angle is the ___________

a. junction between the body and xiphoid process

b. site for attachment of the clavicle

c. site for attachment of the floating ribs

d. junction between the manubrium and body

junction between the manubrium and body

17

The tubercle of a rib___________

a. is for articulation with the transverse process of a thoracic vertebra

b. is for articulation with the body of a thoracic vertebra

c. provides for passage of blood vessels and a nerve

d. is the area of greatest rib curvature

is for articulation with the transverse process of a thoracic vertebra

18

True ribs are ____________

a. ribs 8-12

b. attached via their costal cartilage to the next higher rib

c. made entirely of bone, and thus do not have a costal cartilage

d. attached via their costal cartilage directly to the sternum

attached via their costal cartilage directly to the sternum

19

Embryonic development of the axial skeleton involves __________

a. intramembraneous ossification, which forms the facial bones

b. endochondral ossification, which forms the ribs and sternum

c. the notochord, which produces the cartilage models for the vertebrae

d. the formation of hyaline cartilage models, which give rise to the flat bones of the skull

endochondral ossification, which forms the ribs and sternum

20

A fontanelle_________

a. is the cartilage model for a vertebra that later is converted into bone

b. gives rise to the facial bones and vertebrae

c. is the rod-like structure that runs the length of the early embryo

d. is the area of fibrous connective tissue found at birth between the brain case bones

is the area of fibrous connective tissue found at birth between the brain case bones

21

Define the two divisions of the skeleton

The axial skeleton- forms the vertebral axis of the body and includes the bones of the head, neck, back, and chest of the body. it consists of 80 bones that include the skull, vertebral column, and thoracic cage.

the appendicular skeleton- consists of 126 bones and includes all bones of the upper and lower limbs.

22

Identify the major structures of the skull, their locations, and the bones united by each

The coronal suture passes across the top of the anterior skull. It unites the frontal bone anteriorly with the right and left parietal bones. The sagittal suture runs at the midline on the top of the skull. It unites the right and left parietal bones with each other. The squamous suture is a curved suture located on the lateral side of the skull. It unites the squamous portion of the temporal bone to the parietal bone. The lambdoid suture is located on the posterior skull and has an inverted V-shape. It unites the occipital bone with the right and left parietal bones.

23

Describe the parts of the nasal septum in both the dry and living skull.

There are two bony parts of the nasal septum in the dry skull.

The perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone- forms the superior part of the septum.

The vomer bone- forms the inferior and posterior parts of the septum. In the living skull, the septal cartilage completes the septum by filling in the anterior area between the bony components and extending outward into the nose.

24

Describe the vertebral column and define each region.

the adult vertebral column consists of 24 vertebrae, plus the sacrum and coccyx. the vertebrae are subdivided into 7 cervical (C1-C7) , 12 thoracic (T1-T12), and 5 lumbar vertebrae (L1-L5).

25

Describe a typical vertebra.

A typical vertebra consists of a body and a vertebral arch. The arch is formed by the paired pedicles and paired laminae. Arising from the vertebral arch are the transverse, spinous, superior articular, and inferior articular processes. The vertebral foramen provides for passage of the spinal cord.

26

Describe the sacrum.

a single, triangular shapes bone formed by the fusion of five sacral vertebrae. on the posterior sac

27

Describe the structure and function of an intervertebral disc.

An intervertebral disk acts as shock absorber between each of the vertebrae in the spinal column by keeping the vertebrae separated when there is impact from activity. They also serve to protect the nerves that run down the middle of the spine and intervertebral disks.

28

Define the ligaments of the vertebral column.

the anterior longitudinal is attached to the vertebral bodies on the anterior side of the vertebral column. the supraspinous ligament is located on the posterior side, where is interconnects the thoracic and lumbar spinous process. in the posterior neck, this ligament expands to become a nuchal ligament which attaches to the cervical spinous processes and the base of the skull. the posterior longitudinal ligament and ligementum flavum are located inside the vertebral canal.

29

Define the parts and functions of the thoracic cage.

The thoracic cage is formed by the 12 pairs of ribs with their costal cartilages and the sternum. The ribs are attached posteriorly to the 12 thoracic vertebrae and most are anchored anteriorly either directly or indirectly to the sternum. The thoracic cage functions to protect the heart and lungs.

30

Describe the parts of the sternum.

The sternum is a partially T-shaped vertical bone that forms the anterior portion of the chest wall centrally. The sternum is divided anatomically into three segments: manubrium, body, and xiphoid process. The sternum connects the ribs via the costal cartilages forming the anterior rib cage.

31

Discuss the parts of a typical rib.

The typical rib consists of a head, neck and body: The head is wedge shaped, and has two articular facets separated by a wedge of bone. One facet articulates with the numerically corresponding vertebrae, and the other articulates with the vertebrae above. The body, or shaft of the rib is flat and curved.

32

Define the classes of ribs.

The ribs are classified as true ribs (1–7) and false ribs (8–12). The last two pairs of false ribs are also known as floating ribs (11–12).

33

Discuss the process by which the brain-case bones of the skull are formed and grow during skull enlargement.

The brain-case bones that form the top and sides of the skull are produced by intramembranous ossification. the mesenchyme differentiates into bone-producing cells. These generate areas of bone that are initially separated by wide regions of fibrous connective tissue called fontanelles. After birth, as the bones enlarge, the fontanelles disappear. However, the bones remain separated by the sutures, where bone and skull growth can continue until the adult size is obtained.

34

Discuss the process the gives rise to the base and facial bones of the skull.

arise via the process of endochondral ossification. this process begins with the localized accumulation of mesenchyme tissue at the sites of the future bones. the mesenchyme differentiates into hyaline cartilage, which forms a cartilage mold of the future bone. the cartilage allows for growth and enlargement of the model. it is gradually converted into bone over time.

35

Discuss the development of the vertebrae, ribs, and sternum.

The vertebrae, ribs, and sternum all develop via the process of endochondral ossification. Mesenchyme tissue accumulates on either side of the notochord and produces hyaline cartilage models for each vertebra. In the thorax region, a portion of this cartilage model splits off to form the ribs. Similarly, mesenchyme forms cartilage models for the right and left halves of the sternum. The ribs then become attached anteriorly to the developing sternum, and the two halves of sternum fuse together. Ossification of the cartilage model into bone occurs within these structures over time. This process continues until each is converted into bone, except for the sternal ends of the ribs, which remain as the costal cartilages.

36

Explain the problems that may occur if a fracture of the distal radius involves the joint surface of the radoiocarpal joint of the wrist.

may make the articulating surface of the radius rough or jagged. which can then cause painful movements involving this joint and the early development of arthiritis.

37

What are the three arches of the hand, and what is the importance of these during the gripping of an object?

proximal transverse arch, distal transverse arch, and longitudinal arch

they allow the hand to conform to objects being held
they maximize the amount of surface contact between the hand and object, which enhances stability and increases sensory input

38

A Colles fracture- a break of the distal radius, usually caused by falling onto an outstretched hand.

When would surgery be required and how would the fracture be repaired in this case?

surgery may be required if the fracture is unstable, meaning that the broken ends of the radius won't stay in place to allow for proper healing.

39

What is the large opening in the bony pelvis, located between the ischium and pubic regions, and what two parts of the pubis contribute to the formation of this opening?

the obturator foramen is the large opening

the superior and inferior pubic rami contribute to the formation

40

How are the two portions of the broken femur stabilized during surgical repair of a fractured femur?

a hole is drilled into the greater trochanter, the bone marrow (medullary) space inside the femur is enlarged, and finally an intramedullary rod is inserted into the femur. this rod is then anchored to the bone with screws

41

Which tarsal bones are in the proximal, intermediate, and distal groups?

proximal-calcareous and talus bones

intermediate- navicular bone

distal group- cuboid bone plus the medial, intermediate, and lateral cuneiform bones.

42

What is a bunion?

deviation of the big toe toward the second toe, which causes the distal end of the first metatarsal bone to stick out

43

Which parts of the clavicle articulates with the manubrium?

a. shaft

b. sternal end

c. acromial end

d. coracoid process

sternal end

44

A shoulder separation results from an injury to the _________

a. glenohumeral joint

b. costoclavicular joint

c. acromialclavicular joint

d. sternoclavicular joint

acromioclavicular joint

45

Which feature lies between the spine and superior border of the scapula?

a. suprascapular notch

b. glenoid cavity

c. superoir angle

d. supraspinous fossa

suprasinpous fossa

46

What structure is an extension of the spine of the scapula ?

a. acromion

b. coracoid process

c. clavicle

d. glenoid cavity

acromion

47

Name the short, hook-like bony process of the scapula that projects anteriorly.

a. acromial process

b. clavicle

c. coracoid process

d. glenoid fossa

coracoid process

48

How many bones are there in the upper limbs combined?

a. 20

b. 30

c. 40

d. 60

60

49

Which bony landmark is located on the lateral side of the proximal humerus?

a. greater tubercle

b. trochlea

c. lateral epicondyle

d. lesser tubercle

greater tubercle

50

Which region of the humerus articulates with the radius as part of the elbow joint?

a. trochlea

b. styloid process

c. capitulum

d. olecranon process

capitulum

51

Which is the lateral-most carpal bone of the proximal row?

a. trapezium

b. hamate

c. pisiform

d. scaphoid

scaphoid

52

The radius bone________

a. is found on the medial side of the forearm

b. has a head that articulates with the radical notch of the unla

c. does not articulate with any of the carpal bones

d. has the radial tuberosity located near its distal end

has a head that articulates with the radial notch of the ulna

53

How many bones fuse in adulthood to form the hip bone?

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 5

3

54

Which component forms the superior part of the hip bone?

a. ilium

b. pubis

c. ischium

d. sacrum

ilium

55

Which of the following supports body weight when sitting?

a. iliac crest

b. ischial tuberosity

c. ischiopubic ramus

d. pubic body

ischial tuberosity

56

The ischial spine is found between which of the following structures?

a. inferior pubic ramus and ischial ramus

b. pectineal line and arcuate line

c. lesser sciatic nerve and greater sciatic notch

d. anterior superior iliac spine and posterior superior iliac spine

the lesser sciatic notch and the greater sciatic notch

57

The pelvis ___________

a. has a subpubic angle that is larger in females

b. consists of the two hip bones, but does not include the sacrum or coccyx

c. has an obturator foramen, an opening that is defined in part by the sacrospinous and sacrotuberous ligaments

d. has a space located inferior to the pelvic brim called the greater pelvis

has a subpubic angle that is larger in females

58

Which bony landmark of the femur serves as a site for muscle attachments?

a. fovea capitis

b. lesser trochanter

c. head

d. medial condyle

lesser trochanter

59

what structure contributes to the knee joint?

a. lateral malleus of the fibula

b. tibial tuberosity

c. medial condyle of the tibia

d. lateral epicondyle of the femur

medial condyle of the tibia

60

Which tarsal bone articulates with the tibia and fibula?

a. calcaneus

b. cuboid

c. navicular

d. talus

talus

61

What is the total number of bones found in the foot and toes?

a. 7

b. 14

c. 26

d. 30

26

62

The tibia __________

a. has an expanded distal end called the lateral malleolus

b. is not weight-bearing bone

c. is firmly anchored to the fibula by an interosseous membrane

d. can be palpated (felt) under the skin only at its proximal and distal ends

is firmly anchored to the fibula by an interosseous membrane

63

Which event takes place during the seventh week of development?

a. appearance of the upper and lower limb buds

b. flattening of the distal limb into a paddle shape

c. the first appearance of hyaline cartilage models of future bones

d. the rotation of the limbs

the rotation of the limbs

64

During endochondral ossification of a long bone, _________

a. a primary ossification center will develop within the epiphysis

b. mesenchyme will differentiate directly into bone tissue

c. growth of the epiphyseal plate will produce bone lengthening

d. all epiphyseal plates will disappear before birth

growth of the epiphyseal plate will produce bone lengthening

65

The clavicle ___________

a. develops via intramembraneous ossification

b. develops via endochondral ossification

c. is the last bone of the body to begin ossification

d. is fully ossified at the time of birth

develops via intramembraneous ossification

66

Describe the shape and palpable line formed by the clavicle and scapula

the clavicle intends laterally across the anterior shoulder and can be palpated alone its entire length. at its lateral end, the clavicle articulates with the acromion of the scapula, which forms the bony tip of the shoulder. the acromion is continuous with the spine of the scapula, which can be palpated medially and posteriorly along its length. together, the clavicle, acromion, and spine of the scapula form a V-shape line that serves as an important area for muscle attachment.

67

Discuss two possible injuries of the pectoral girdle that may occur following a strong blow to the shoulder or a hard fall onto an outstretched hand

blow to the shoulder or falling onto an outstretched hand passes strong forces through the scapula to the clavicle and sternum. A hard fall may thus cause a fracture of the clavicle (broken collarbone) or may injure the ligaments of the acromioclavicular joint. In a severe case, the coracoclavicular ligament may also rupture, resulting in complete dislocation of the acromioclavicular joint (a "shoulder separation").

68

Your friend runs out of gas and you have to help push his car. Discuss the sequence of bones and joints that convey the forces passing from your hand, through your upper limb and your pectoral girdle, and to your axial skeleton

as you push against the car, forces will pass from the metacarpal bones of your hand into the carpal bones at the base of your hand. forces will then pass through the midcarpal and radiocarpal joints into the radius and ulna bones of the forearm. these will pass the force through the elbow joint into the humerus of the arm, and then through the glenohumeral joint into the scapula. then through the acromioclavicular joint into the clavicle, and then through the sternoclvicular joint into the sternum

69

Name the bones in the wrist and hand, and describe or sketch out their locations and articulations

The base of the hand is formed by the eight carpal bones arranged in two rows (distal and proximal) of four bones each. The proximal row contains (from lateral to medial) the scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, and pisiform bones. The distal row contains (from medial to lateral) the hamate, capitate, trapezoid, and trapezium bones. (Use the mnemonic "So Long To Pinky, Here Comes The Thumb" to remember this sequence). The rows of the proximal and distal carpal bones articulate with each other at the midcarpal joint. The palm of the hand contains the five metacarpal bones, which are numbered 1-5 starting on the thumb side. The proximal ends of the metacarpal bones articulate with the distal row of the carpal bones. The distal ends of the metacarpal bones articulate with the proximal phalanx bones of the thumb and fingers. The thumb (digit 1) has both a proximal and distal phalanx bone. The fingers (digits 2-5) all contain proximal, middle, and distal phalanges.

70

Describe the articulations and ligaments that unite the four bones of the pelvis to each other.

formed by the combination of the right and left hip bones- sacrum and coccyx. the articular surfaces of each hip bone articulate with the auricular surface of the sacrum to form the sacroiliac joint- which is supported on either side by the strong anterior and posterior sacroiliac ligaments. the sacrum is also attached to the hip bone by the sacrospinous ligament. the coccyx is attached to the inferior end of the sacrum.

71

Discuss the ways in which the female pelvis is adapted for childbirth.

Compared to the male, the female pelvis is wider to accommodate childbirth. Thus, the female pelvis has greater distances between the anterior superior iliac spines and between the ischial tuberosities. The greater width of the female pelvis results in a larger subpubic angle. This angle, formed by the anterior convergence of the right and left ischiopubic rami, is larger in females (greater than 80 degrees) than in males (less than 70 degrees). The female sacral promontory does not project anteriorly as far as it does in males, which gives the pelvic brim (pelvic inlet) of the female a rounded or oval shape. The lesser pelvic cavity is wider and more shallow in females, and the pelvic outlet is larger than in males. Thus, the greater width of the female pelvis, with its larger pelvic inlet, lesser pelvis, and pelvic outlet, are important for childbirth because the baby must pass through the pelvis during delivery.

72

How can a radiograph of a child's femur be used to determine the approximate age of that child?

- a child's femur will show the epiphyseal plates associated with each secondary ossification center.
- these plates of hyaline cartilage will appear dark in comparison to the white imaging of the ossified bone

73

How does the development of the clavicle differ from the development of other appendicular skeleton bones?

Unlike other bones of the appendicular skeleton, the clavicle develops by the process of intramembranous ossification. In this process, embryonic mesenchyme accumulates at the site of the future bone and then differentiates directly into bone-producing tissue. Because of this direct and early production of bone, the clavicle is the first bone of the skeleton to begin to ossify. However, the growth and enlargement of the clavicle continues throughout childhood and adolescence, and thus, it is not fully ossified until 25 years of age.

74

Which type of synovial joint allows for the widest range of motion?

ball and socket joint

75

What is the most common cause of hip disability?

arthritis

76

Which system of the body malfunctions in rheumatoid arthritis and what does this cause?

the immune system malfunctions and attacks healthy cells in the lining of your joints. this causes inflammation and pain in the joints and surrounding tissues.

77

What motions involve increasing or decreasing the angle of the foot at the ankle?

dorsiflexion of the foot at the ankle

78

What is the initial movement of the mandible during opening and how much mouth opening does this produce?

the first motion is rotation (hinging) of the mandible, producing about 20 mm of mouth opening.

79

What movements are available at the shoulder joint?

adduction, abduction, flexion, extension, internal rotation, external rotation, and 360 circumduction

80

What is the shape of the glenoid labrum in cross-section, and what is the importance of this shape?

wedge-shaped in cross-section. it creates an elevated rim around the glenoid cavity, which creates a deeper socket for the head of the humerus to fit into

81

What structures provide the main stability for the elbow?

The important ligaments of the elbow are the medial collateral ligament (on the inside of the elbow) and the lateral collateral ligament (on the outside of the elbow.) Together these ligaments provide the main source of stability for the elbow, holding the humerus and the ulna tightly together.

82

What are the functions of the articular cartilage?

functions to absorb shock and to provide an extremely smooth surface that makes movement between bones easy, without damaging

83

What is a possible consequence following a fracture of the femoral neck within the capsule of the hip joint?

An intracapsular fracture of the neck of the femur can result in disruption of the arterial blood supply to the head of the femur, which may lead to avascular necrosis of the femoral head.

84

Where is the articular cartilage thickest within the hip joint?

in the upper and back part of the acetabulum, the socket portion of the hip joint. these regions receive most of the force from the head of the femur during walking and running

85

What are the ligaments that support the knee joint?

  • Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL). ...
  • Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL). ...
  • Medial collateral ligament (MCL). ...
  • Lateral collateral ligament (LCL).

86

Which ligaments of the knee keeps the tibia from sliding too far forward in relation to the femur and which ligament keeps the tibia from sliding too far backward?

the anterior cruciate ligament prevents the tibia from sliding too far forward in relation to the femur and the posterior cruciate ligament keeps the tibia from sliding too far backward

87

What are the most causes of anterior cruciate ligament injury?

  • Suddenly slowing down and changing direction (cutting)
  • Pivoting with your foot firmly planted.
  • Landing awkwardly from a jump.
  • Stopping suddenly.
  • Receiving a direct blow to the knee or having a collision, such as a football tackle

88

What are the three ligaments found on the lateral side of the ankle joint?

anterior and posterior talofibular ligaments and the calcaneofibular ligament. these ligaments support the ankle joint and resist excess inversion of the foot.

89

The ankle joint resembles what type of joint used in woodworking?

uniaxial hinge joint

90

During an inversion ankle sprain injury, all three ligaments that resist excessive inversion of the foot may be injured.

What is the sequence in which these three ligaments are injured?

may injure all three ligaments located on the lateral side of the ankle. the sequence of injury would be the anterior talofibular ligament first, then calcaneofibular ligament, then finally the posterior talofibular ligament.

91

The joint between adjacent vertebrae that includes an invertebral disc is classified as which type of joint?

a. diarthrosis

b. multiaxial

c. amphiarthrosis

d. synarthrosis

amphiarthrosis

92

Which of these joints is classified as a biaxial diarthrosis?

a. the metacarpophalangeal joint

b. the hip joint

c. the elbow joint

d. the pubic symphysis

the metacarpophalangeal joint

93

Synovial joints ______

a. may be functionally classified as a synarthrosis

b. are joints where the bones are connected to each other by hyaline cartilage

c. may be functionally classified as a amphiarthrosis

d. are joints where the bones articulate with each other within a fluid-filled joint cavity

are joints where the bones articulate with each other within a fluid-filled joint cavity

94

Which type of fibrous joint connects the tibia and fibula?

a. syndesmosis

b. symphysis

c. suture

d. gomphosis

syndesmosis

95

An example of a wide fibrous joint is___________

a. the interosseous membrane of the forearm

b. a gomphosis

c. a suture joint

d. a synostosis

the interosseous membrane of the forearm

96

A gomphosis _________

a. is formed by an interosseous membrane

b. connects the tibia and fibula bones of the leg

c. a fibrous joint that unites parallel bones

d. anchors a toot to the jaw

anchors a tooth to the jaw

97

a syndesmosis is ______

a. a narrow fibrous joint

b. the type of joint that unites bones of the skull

c. a fibrous joint that unites parallel bones

d. the type of joint that anchors the teeth in the jaws.

a fibrous joint that unites parallel bones

98

A cartilaginous joint ________

a. has a joint cavity

b. is called a symphysis when the bones are united by fibrocartilage

c. anchors the teeth to the jaws

d. is formed by a wide sheet of fibrous connective tissue

is called a symphysis when the bones are united by fibrocartilage

99

A synchondrosis ________

a. found at the pubic symphysis

b. where bones are connected together with fibrocartilage

c. a type of fibrous joint

d. found at the first sternocostal joint of the thoracic cage

found at the sternocostal joint of the thoracic cage

100

Which of the following are joined by a symphysis?

a. adjacent vertebrae

b. the first rib and sternum

c. the end and shaft of a long bone

d. the radius and ulna bones

adjacent vertebrae

101

The epiphyseal plate of a growing long bone in a child is classified as a ________

a. synchondrosis

b. synostosis

c. symphysis

d. syndesmosis

synchondrosis

102

Which type of joint provides the greatest range of motion?

a. ball and socket

b. hinge

c. condyloid

d. plane

ball and socket

103

Which type of joint allows for only uniaxial movement?

a. saddle joint

b. hinge joint

c. condyloid joint

d. ball and socket joint

hinge joint

104

Which of the following is a type of synovial joint?

a. synostosis

b. a suture

c. a plane joint

d. a synchondrosis

a plane joint

105

a bursa _________

a. surrounds a tendon at a point where the tendon crosses a joint

b. secretes the lubricating fluid for a synovial joint

c. prevents friction between skin and bone, or a muscle tendon and bone

d. is the strong band of connective tissue that hold bones together at a synovial joint

prevents friction between skin and bone, or a muscle tendon and bone

106

At synovial joints ___________

a. the articulating ends of bone are directly connected by fibrous connective tissue

b. the ends of bones are enclosed within a space called a subcutaneous bursa

c. intrinsic ligaments are located entirely inside of the articular capsule

d. the joint cavity is filled with thick, lubricating fluid

the joint cavity is filled with thick, lubricating fluid

107

At a synovial joints _______

a. the articulating ends of the bones are directly connected by fibrous connective tissue

b. the joint cavity is filled with thick, lubricating liquid

c. forms the intracapsular ligaments

d. secretes the lubricating synovial fluid

the joint cavity is filled with thick, lubricating liquid

108

Condyloid joints ________

a.are a type of ball and socket joint

b. include the radoiocarpal joint

c. are a uniaxial diarthrosis joint

d. are found at the proximal radioulnar joint

include the radoiocarpal joint

109

A meniscus is __________

a. a fibrocartilage pad that provides padding between bones

b. fluid-filled space that prevents friction between a muscle tendon and underlying bone

c. the articular cartilage that covers the ends of a bone at a synovial joint

d. the lubricating fluid within a synovial joint

a fibrocartilage pad that provides padding between bones

110

The joints between the articular processes of adjacent vertebrae can contribute to which movement?

a. lateral flexion

b. circumduction

c. dorsiflexion

d. abduction

lateral flexion

111

Which motion moves the bottom of the foot away from the midline of the body?

a. elevation

b. dorsiflexion

c. eversion

d. plantar flexion

eversion

112

Movement of a body region in a circular movement at a condyloid joint is what type of motion?

a. rotation

b. elevation

c. abduction

d. circumduction

circumduction

113

Supination is the motion that moves the _________

a. hand from the palm backward position to the palm forward position

b. foot so that the bottom of the foot faces the midline of the body

c. hand from the palm forward position to the palm backward position

d. scapula in an upward direction

hand from the palm backward position to the palm forward position

114

Movement at the shoulder joint that moves the upper limb laterally away from the body is called ___________

a. elevation

b. eversion

c. abduction

d. lateral rotation

abduction

115

The primary support for the glenohumeral joint is provided by the _____

a. caracohumeral ligament

b. glenoid labrum

c. rotator cuff muscles

d. subacromial bursa

rotator cuff muscles

116

The proximal radioulnar joint ________

a. is supported by the annular ligament

b. contains and articular disc that strongly unites the bones

c. is supported by the ulnar collateral ligament

d. is a hinge joint that allows for flexion/extension of the forearm

is supported by the annular ligament

117

Which statement is true concerning the knee joint?

a. the lateral meniscus is an intrinsic ligament located on the lateral side of the knee joint

b. hyperextension is resisted by the posterior cruciate ligament

c. the anterior cruciate ligament supports the knee when it is flexed and weight bearing

d. the medial meniscus is attached to the tibial collateral ligament

The medial meniscus is attached to the tibial collateral ligament.

118

The ankle joint ________

a. is also called the subtler joint

b. allows for gliding movements that produce inversion/eversion of the foot

c. is a uniaxial hinge joint

d. is supported by the tibial collateral ligament on the lateral side

is a uniaxial hinge joint

119

Which region of the vertebral column has the greatest rang of motion for rotation?

a. cervical

b. thoracic

c. lumbar

d. sacral

thoracic

120

Intramembraneous ossification _______

a. gives rise to the bones of the limbs

b. produces the bones of the top and sides of the skull

c. produces the bones of the face and base of the skull

d. involves the conversion of a hyaline cartilage model into bone

produces the bones of the top and sides of the skull

121

Synovial joints _________

a. are derived from fontanelles

b. are produced by intramembraneous ossification

c. develop at an interzone site

d. are produced by endochondral ossification

develop at an interzone site

122

Endochondral ossification is _______

a. the process that replaces hyaline cartilage with bone tissue

b. the process by which mesenchyme differentiates directly into bone tissue

c. completed before birth

d. the process that gives rise to the joint interzone and future joint cavity

the process that replaces hyaline cartilage with bone tissue

123

Define how joints are classified based on function. Describe and give an example for each functional type of joint.

Functional classification of joints is based on the degree of mobility exhibited by the joint. A synarthrosis is an immobile or nearly immobile joint. An example is the manubriosternal joint or the joints between the skull bones surrounding the brain.

124

Explain the reason for why joints differ in their degree of mobility.

Explain the reasons for why joints differ in their degree of mobility. The functional needs of joints vary and thus joints differ in their degree of mobility. A synarthrosis, which is an immobile joint, serves to strongly connect bones thus protecting internal organs such as the heart or brain.

125

Distinguish between a narrow and wide fibrous joint and give an example of each.

narrow fibrous joints are found at a suture, gomphosis, or syndesmosis. a suture is the fibrous joint that joins the bones of the skull to each other (except the mandible). a gomphosis is the fibrous joint that anchors each tooth to its bony socket in the jaw. tooth connected to the bony jaw by periodontal ligaments. a narrow syndesmosis is found at the distal tibiofibular joint where the bones are united by fibrous connective tissue and ligaments. a syndesmosis can also form a wide fibrous joint where the shafts of 2 parallel bones are connected by a broad interosseous membrane. the radius and ulna bones of the forearm and the tibia and fibula bones of the leg are connected by interosseous membranes.

126

Describe how scurvy, a disease that inhibits collagen production, can affect the teeth.

The teeth are anchored into their sockets within the bony jaws by the periodontal ligaments. This is a gomphosis type of fibrous joint. In scurvy, collagen production is inhibited and the periodontal ligaments become weak. This will cause the teeth to become loose or even to fall out.

127

Describe two types of cartilaginous joints and give examples of each.

cartilaginous joints are where the adjacent bones are joined by cartilage. at a synchondrosis, the bones are united by hyaline cartilage. the epiphyseal plate of growing long bones and the first sternocostal joint that unites the first rib to the sternum are examples of synchondroses. at symphysis, the bones are joined by fibrocartilage, which is strong and flexible. symphysis joints include the intervertebral symphysis between adjacent vertebrae and the pubic symphysis that joins the pubic portions of the right and left hip bones.

128

Define the first sternocostal joint and the pubic symphysis using both functional and structural characteristics.

The pubic symphysis is a slightly mobile (amphiarthrosis) cartilaginous joint, where the pubic portions of the right and left hip bones are united by fibrocartilage, thus forming a symphysis.

129

Describe the characteristic structures found at all synovial joints.

all synovial joints have a joint cavity filled with synovial fluid that is the at which the bones of the joint articulate with each other. the articulating surfaces of the bones are by articular cartilage, a thin layer of hyaline cartilage. the walls of the joint cavity are formed by the connective tissue of the articular capsule. the synovial membrane lines the interior surface of the joint cavity and secretes the synovial fluid. synovial joints are directly supported by ligaments, which span between the bones of the joint.

130

Describe the structures that provide direct and indirect support for a synovial joint

Some joints, such as the sternoclavicular joint, have an articular disc that is attached to both bones, where it provides direct support by holding the bones together. Indirect joint support is provided by the muscles and their tendons that act across a joint.

131

Briefly define the types of joint movements available at a ball and socket joint.

multiaxial joints that allow for flexion and extension, abduction and adduction, circumduction, and medial and lateral rotation.

132

Discuss the joints involved and movements required for you to cross your arms together in front of your chest.

To cross your arms, you need to use both your shoulder and elbow joints. At the shoulder, the arm would need to flex and medially rotate. At the elbow, the forearm would need to be flexed.

133

Discuss the structures that contribute to support of the shoulder joint.

the primary support for the shoulder joint is provided by the four rotator cuff muscles. these muscles serve as dynamic ligaments and thus can modulate their strengths of contraction needed to hold the head fo the humerus in position I the glenoid fossa. additional but weaker support comes from the coracohumeral ligament, an intrinsic ligament that supports the superior aspect of the shoulder joint, and the glenohumeral ligament which are intrinsic ligaments that support the anterior side of the joint.

134

Describe the sequence of injuries that may occur if the extended, weight-bearing knee receives a very strong blow to the lateral side of the knee.

A strong blow to the lateral side of the extended knee will cause three injuries, in sequence: tearing of the tibial collateral ligament, damage to the medial meniscus, and rupture of the anterior cruciate ligament.

135

Differentiate between endochondral and intramembranous ossification.

In intramembranous ossification, bone develops directly from sheets of mesenchymal connective tissue. In endochondral ossification, bone develops by replacing hyaline cartilage. Activity in the epiphyseal plate enables bones to grow in length. ... Remodeling occurs as bone is resorbed and replaced by new bone.