MCB Flashcards


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created 3 years ago by sajones5199
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Test 3
updated 3 years ago by sajones5199
Subjects:
microbiology
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1
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1.

Condenser

2
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2.

Substage Light

3
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3.

Ocular Lens

4
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4.

Rotating Nosepiece

5
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5.

Objective Lens

6
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6.

Mechanical Stage

7
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7.

Coarse Adjustment Knob

8
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8.

Fine Adjustment Knob

9

Focuses the light to the slide

Condenser

10

It always has a 10x magnification

Ocular Lens

11

It has the slide holder on it

Mechanical Stage

12

Helps find the slide through the ocular lens

Coarse Adjustment Knob

13

Parfocal microscope

Stays in focus

14

Magnification of the lens

Enlargement

15

Resolution power of the lens

Clarity

16

Field of view

What you can see through the ocular lens

17

What is the total magnification if your objective lens has 40x maginifcation?

4

40

400

4000

400

18

What is the total magnification if your objective lens has 100x maginifcation?

1000

100

10

1

1000

19
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Name the bacteria based on the shape you can see on the picture.

Coccus

Bacillus

Spirillum

Streptococcus

Staphylococcus

Coccobacillus

Staphylococcus

20
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Name the bacteria based on the shape you can see on the picture.

Coccus

Bacillus

Spirillum

Streptococcus

Staphylococcus

Coccobacillus

Streptobacillus

Bacillus

21

When I see only 1 color on the slide (methylene blue or crystal violet), it is a differential staining.

True/False

False

22
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The color is purple, this is a Gram + staining.

True/False

True

23
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The color is pink, this is a Gram + staining.

True/False

False

24

What is the basis of Gram staining?

Capsule

Cell membrane

Outer membrane

Cell wall

Cell Wall

25
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This is an electron microscopic picture. What kind of structure this bacteria have?

Pili

Flagella

Cilia

Pseudopod

Flagella

26
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What is the function of this structure?

feeding

catching prey

attaching to surfaces

movement

movement

27
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Which media would you use to grow G- fecal microbes?

Mannitol salt

Phenyl ethyl alcohol

EMB

Blood agar

EMB

28

Which bacteria did grow on this media if you see metallic shine green, blue or black color?

E. coli

Enterobacter

Non fermenter enteric

Staphylococcus aureus

E. coli

29

Approximately what percentage of DNA codes for genes?

1-2%

30

Which enzyme fills in the spaces between the Okazaki fragments with the correct nucleotides?

DNA ligases

31

Where do you find the OKAZAKI segment?

On the lagging strand

32

How do prokaryotic cell differs from eukaryotic cells with regard to transcription and translation?

They happen in the cytoplasm one after another

33

Which organ is responsible for metabolizing and detoxifying foreign chemicals in the blood, including drugs?

Liver

34

Physical agents for controlling microbial growth include all of the following, except:

hydrogen peroxide

35

Which of the following microbial forms have the highest resistance to physical and chemical controls?

bacterial endospores

36

The process that destroys or removes all microorganisms and microbial forms including bacterial endospores is:

sterilization

37

The use of a physical or chemical process to destroy vegetative pathogens is:

disinfection

38

Which is correct regarding the rate of microbial death?

A. cells die at increasingly greater rates

B. only older cells die in a culture

C. cells in a culture die at a constant rate

D. upon contact with the control agent, all cells die at one time

E. cells become metabolically inactive but are never killed

C. cells in a culture die at a constant rate

39

Sterilization is achieved by:

A. flash pasteurization.

B. hot water.

C. boiling water.

D. steam autoclave.

E. All of the choices are correct.

D. steam autoclave.

40

Dry heat:

A. is less efficient than moist heat.

B. cannot sterilize.

C. includes tyndallization.

D. is used in devices called autoclaves.

E. will sterilize at 121° C for 15 minutes.

A. is less efficient than moist heat.

41

The shortest time required to kill all the microbes in a sample at a specified temperature is called the:

A. thermal death point (TDP).

B. thermal death time (TDT).

C. sporicidal time.

D. death phase point.

E. None of the choices are correct.

B. thermal death time (TDT).

42

Which of the following chemicals is a disinfectant for soft contact lenses?

A. hydrogen peroxide

B. alcohol

C. hexachlorophene

D. glutaraldehyde

E. hypochorites

A. hydrogen peroxide

43

Substances that are naturally produced by certain microorganisms that can inhibit or destroy other microorganisms are called

A. antibiotics.

B. narrow-spectrum drugs.

C. semisynthetic drugs.

D. synthetic drugs.

E. broad-spectrum drugs

A. antibiotics.

44

Antimicrobics effective against a wide variety of microbial types are termed

A. antibiotics.

B. narrow-spectrum drugs.

C. semisynthetic drugs.

D. synthetic drugs.

E. broad-spectrum drugs.

E. broad-spectrum drugs.

45

Antibiotics are derived from all the following except

A. Penicillium.

B. Bacillus.

C. Staphylococcus.

D. Streptomyces.

E. Cephalosporium.

C. Staphylococcus.

46

Penicillins and cephalosporins

A. interfere with DNA synthesis.

B. are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis.

C. attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis.

D. damage cell membranes.

E. block the peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules.

E. block the peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules.

47

Sulfonamides

A. interfere with elongation of peptidoglycan.

B. are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis.

C. attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis.

D. damage cell membranes.

E. block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules.

B. are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis.

48

Aminoglycosides

A. interfere with elongation of peptidoglycan.

B. are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis.

C. attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis.

D. damage cell membranes.

E. block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules.

C. attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis.

49

Ampicillin, amoxicillin, mezlocillin, and penicillin G all have

A. a beta-lactam ring.

B. resistance to the action of penicillinase.

C. a semisynthetic nature. D. an expanded spectrum of activity.

E. All of the choices are correct.

A. a beta-lactam ring.

50

Which of the following is being used to replace hypochlorites in treating water because of the possibility of cancer-causing substances being produced?

A. hydrogen peroxide

B. chloramines

C. fluorine

D. quaternary ammonium compounds

E. sodium iodide

B. chloramines

51

An antiviral that is a guanine analog would have an antiviral mode of action that

A. blocks penetration.

B. blocks DNA replication.

C. inhibits peptidoglycan cross linking.

D. blocks maturation.

E. bonds to ergosterol in the cell membrane.

B. blocks DNA replication.

52

Acyclovir is used to treat

A. influenza A virus.

B. HIV.

C. shingles, chickenpox, and genital herpes.

D. respiratory syncytial virus.

E. hepatitis C virus.

C. shingles, chickenpox, and genital herpes.

53

The most versatile and useful antifungal drug that is used to treat serious systemic fungal infections is

A. nystatin.

B. griseofulvin.

C. amphotericin B.

D. sulfa drugs.

E. metronidazole.

C. amphotericin B.

54

The duplication of a cell's DNA is called

Replication

55

Which enzyme fills in the spaces between the Okazaki fragments with the correct nucleotides?

DNA ligases

56

The site where the old DNA strands separate and new DNA strands will be synthesized is called the

replication fork

57

Eukaryotic chromosomes differ from prokaryotic chromosomes because only eukaryotes have

histone proteins.

chromosomes in a nucleus.

several to many chromosomes.

elongated, not circular, chromosomes.

All of the choices are correct.

58

Semiconservative replication refers to

an original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule.

59

A sequence of bases on a gene that does not code for protein is called a/an

intron

60

The nontranscribed region of DNA to which RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription is called the

promoter

61

The RNA molecules that carry amino acids to the ribosomes during protein synthesis are called

transfer RNA

62

All of the following pertain to transcription except it

occurs on a ribosome in the cytoplasm

63

This molecule is transcribed from the DNA template strand and later translated

messengerRNA

64

The use of a physical or chemical process to destroy vegetative pathogens is

disinfection.

sterilization.

antisepsis.

sanitization.

degermation.

disinfection.

65

Sterilization is achieved by

flash pasteurization.

hot water.

boiling water.

steam autoclave.

All of the choices are correct.

steam autoclave.

66

Which is correct regarding the rate of microbial death?

cells die at increasingly greater rates

only older cells die in a culture

cells in a culture die at a constant rate

upon contact with the control agent, all cells die at one time

cells become metabolically inactive but are never killed

cells in a culture die at a constant rate

67

Which of the following types of control agents would be used to achieve sterility?

virucide

bactericide

germicide

sporicide

fungicide

sporicide

68

The process of using a cleansing technique to mechanically remove and reduce microorganisms and debris to safe levels is

disinfection.

sterilization.

antisepsis.

sanitization.

degermation.

sanitization.

69

Alcohols denature proteins when

in a 50 - 95% alcohol-water solution.

disinfect items soaked in alcohol.

are skin degerming agents.

at 50% or higher concentrations dissolve cell membrane lipids.

All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

70

Which of the following is not used as an antiseptic?

iodophor

chlorhexidine

3% hydrogen peroxide

Merthiolate

aqueous glutaraldehyde

aqueous glutaraldehyde

71

All of the following are benefits of food irradiation except

it can kill bacterial pathogens on the food.

it can kill insects on the food.

it can inhibit the sprouting of white potatoes.

it can reduce the number of food-borne deaths each year.

it makes the food less nutritious.

it makes the food less nutritious.

72

Which of the following is being used to replace hypochlorites in treating water because of the possibility of cancer-causing substances being produced?

hydrogen peroxide

chloramines

fluorine

quaternary

ammonium compounds

sodium iodide

chloramines

73

All of the following are correct about food irradiation except

food is not made radioactive by the process.

the World Health Organization does not endorse this process.

it is approved in the U.S. for beef, chicken and pork.

it can lead to a longer shelf life for the irradiated food.

no irradiated food can be sold without clear labeling.

the World Health Organization does not endorse this process.

74

Ampicillin, amoxicillin, mezlocillin, and penicillin G all have

a beta-lactam ring.

resistance to the action of penicillinase.

a semisynthetic nature.

an expanded spectrum of activity.

All of the choices are correct.

a beta-lactam ring.

75

Antibiotics are derived from all the following except

Penicillium.

Bacillus.

Staphylococcus.

Streptomyces.

Cephalosporium.

Staphylococcus.

76

Sulfonamides interfere with

elongation of peptidoglycan.

are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis.

attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis.

damage cell membranes.

block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules.

are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis.

77

Penicillins and cephalosporins

interfere with DNA synthesis.

are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis.

attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis.

damage cell membranes.

block the peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules.

block the peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules.

78

A chemical that inhibits beta-lactamase enzymes is

synercid.

penicillinase.

aztreonam.

clavulanic acid.

imipenem.

clavulanic acid.

79

Which antimicrobic does not inhibit cell wall synthesis?

gentamicin

vancomycin

cephalosporins

penicillins

clavamox

gentamicin

80

Which of these drugs is useful in treating infections by methicillin-resistant S. aureus and vancomycin-resistant

Enterococcus?

tetracycline

isoniazid

linezolid

aminoglycosides

cephalosporins

linezolid

81

The drug that can cause aplastic anemic, and is used to treat typhoid fever and brain abscesses is

chloramphenicol.

clindamycin.

ciprofloxacin.

bacitracin.

gentamicin.

chloramphenicol.

82

This drug is used to treat cases of tuberculosis

penicillin G.

vancomycin.

aminoglycosides.

synercid.

isoniazid.

isoniazid.

83

Drug susceptibility testing

determines the patient's response to various antimicrobics.

determines the pathogen's response to various antimicrobics.

determines if normal flora will be affected by antimicrobics.

determines if the drug is increasing to toxic levels in a patient.

determines the pathogen's identity.

determines the pathogen's response to various antimicrobics.

84

There are fewer antifungal, antiprotozoan, and antihelminth drugs compared to antibacterial drugs because

these organisms do not cause many human infections.

are not affected by antimicrobics.

are so similar to human cells that drug selective toxicity is difficult.

are parasites found inside human cells.

have fewer target sites compared to bacteria.

are so similar to human cells that drug selective toxicity is difficult.

85

An antiviral that is a guanine analog would have an antiviral mode of action that

blocks penetration.

blocks DNA replication.

inhibits peptidoglycan cross linking.

blocks maturation.

bonds to ergosterol in the cell membrane.

blocks DNA replication.

86

Which antimicrobic does not interfere with protein synthesis?

aminoglycosides

tetracyclines

erythromycin

trimethroprim

chloramphenicol

trimethroprim

87

The most versatile and useful antifungal drug that is used to treat serious systemic fungal infections is

nystatin.

griseofulvin.

amphotericin B.

sulfa drugs.

metronidazole.

amphotericin B.

88

Side effects that occur in patient tissues while they are on antimicrobic drugs include all the following except

development of resistance to the drug.

hepatotoxicity.

nephrotoxicity.

diarrhea.

deafness.

development of resistance to the drug.

89

The cellular basis for bacterial resistance to antimicrobics include

bacterial chromosomal mutations.

synthesis of enzymes that alter drug structure.

prevention of drug entry into the cell.

alteration of drug receptors on cell targets.

All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

90

A "shotgun" approach to antimicrobial therapy involves giving a narrow spectrum drug.

culturing the pathogen and identifying it.

performing the disk diffusion assay.

using a broad spectrum drug so that the chance of killing the pathogen is greater.

using antiviral and antibiotic drugs in combination.

using a broad spectrum drug so that the chance of killing the pathogen is greater.

91

Which of the following is not a mode of action of antivirals?

block penetration

block transcription and translation

inhibit DNA synthesis

block maturation

bond to ergosterol in the cell membrane

bond to ergosterol in the cell membrane

92

All of the following could be reasons why antimicrobic treatment fails except the inability of the drug to diffuse into the infected body compartment.

a mixed infection where some of the pathogens are drug resistant.

not completing the full course of treatment.

a disk diffusion test showing pathogen sensitivity to the antimicrobic.

diminished gastrointestinal absorption due to an underlying condition or age.

a disk diffusion test showing pathogen sensitivity to the antimicrobic.

93

Antivirals that target reverse transcriptase would be used to treat influenza A virus.

HIV.

herpes zoster virus.

respiratory syncytial virus.

hepatitis C virus.

HIV.