A&P2 Final Flashcards


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1. Autonomic Nervous System, 2. Blood and Blood Vessels , 3. Heart and Cardiovascular Systems, 4. Digestive system
updated 3 years ago by Stephanie_Ingber
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anatomy and physiology
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1

A visceral motor neuron whose cell body is within the CNS is called a(n) ________neuron. Hint : Upper or lower

Preganglionic

2

Preganglionic fibers leave the CNS and then synapse on ……………

ganglionic neurons

3

Autonomic motor neurons conduct impulses to smooth and cardiac muscles and glands.

True /false

True

4

The sympathetic division of the ANS is also known as ………………………

thoracolumbar division

5

craniosacral division is also called as ……………….?

Parasympathetic division

6

Cell bodies of preganglionic neurons of the autonomic nervous system are located……….

in the CNS

7

The ________ division of the autonomic nervous system is known as the "rest and digest" division.

Parasympathetic

8

The celiac ganglia innervates …………………..(organs)

abdominopelvic viscera (liver, spleen, stomach, pancreas)

9

The statement "It initiates contraction of urinary bladder smooth muscle" is true only for the parasympathetic nervous system. True or false

True

10

What do you mean by Splanchnic nerves?

These are relating to the viscera or internal organs, especially those of the abdomen

11

Preganglionic fibers of parasympathetic neurons are present in few cranial nerves, name them.

CN III (Oculomotor), CN VII (Facial), CN IX (Glossopharyngeal), CN X (Vagus)

12

Almost 75 percent of all parasympathetic outflow travels along the ________ nerve(s).

CN X- Vagus nerve

13

Intramural ganglia in the large intestine, urinary bladder, and reproductive organs are innervated by the ________ nerves.

Pelvic

14

Which structure carries postganglionic fibers for distribution in the body wall and limbs?

gray ramus communicants

15

Which nerve provides preganglionic parasympathetic innervation to structures in the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities?

CN X- Vagus Nerve

16

Preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system are located in the………….

lateral gray horns of segments T1-L2 of the spinal cord

17

The adrenal medullae secrete both …………………………….(Catecholamine)

Epinepherine and Norepinephrine

18

In general, parasympathetic preganglionic fibers are ________ and postganglionic fibers are ________. Length ?

longer, shorter

19

Neurons that use norepinephrine as a transmitter are called

adrenergic receptors

20

Stimulation of α1 adrenergic receptors by norepinephrine results in

  1. A) an increase in the amount of intracellular cAMP.
  2. B) a decrease in the amount of intracellular cAMP.
  3. C) decreased membrane permeability to sodium ion.
  4. D) release of calcium ions from intracellular stores.
  5. E) increased membrane permeability to potassium ions.

D) release of calcium ions from intracellular stores.

21

Nicotinic receptors open chemically gated sodium ion channels. True. False

True

22

Muscarinic receptors are normally activated by acetylcholine. True/ false

True

23

Drugs known as beta-blockers may be useful for treating ……………..

high blood pressure or excessive heart rate

24

Mary accidentally ate poisonous mushrooms that contain muscarine. What would occur?

Diarrhea, salivation, very low heart rate, sweating

25

An inhaler used to treat airway constriction in asthma or allergy might contain a drug that……..

activates beta-2 adrenergic receptors

26

A certain drug decreases heart rate by blocking a receptor on cardiac pacemaker cells.

This drug probably binds to ________ receptors.

Beta-1 adrenergic

27

Sweat glands contain ________ receptors.

Muscarinic cholinergic

28

Stimulation of the neurons in the celiac ganglion would lead to

  1. A) relaxation of the urinary sphincter
  2. B) increased heart rate.
  3. C) hydrolysis of liver glycogen reserves.
  4. D) activation of ventral sweat glands.
  5. E) increased gastric motility.

C) hydrolysis of liver glycogen reserves.

29

A person is confronted by a dangerous dog. His heart begins to race and beat strongly, his pupils dilate, and his hairs stand up. These signs are not the result of.....

parasympathetic nervous system, “rest and digest” response

30

Most vital organs receive ________ innervation. That is, they receive input from both sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions.

Dual

31

Visceral reflex arcs can bypass CNS neurons in ________ reflexes.

Short

32

Baroreceptors are not found in the…………………..(Organs)

Mouth, Oral cavity

33

Name the organs which are associated with both chemoreceptors and baroreceptors respiratory autonomic reflexes?

Aortic and carotid arteries

34

Which brain area is considered to be the headquarters of the ANS?

hypothalamus

35

Which of the following would be an example of higher-level control of autonomic

function?

  1. A) gagging on food that does not appeal to you
  2. B) a violent coughing attack in response to an irritant
  3. C) increased heart rate when you see a person you fear
  4. D) dilation of the pupils when you enter a dark room
  5. E) increased salivation when you smell food that appeals to you

C) increased heart rate when you see a person you fear

36

Compare the SNS with the ANS.

Somatic nervous system (SNS)-conscious and subconscious control of skeletal muscles

Autonomic nervous system (ANS)- controls visceral function

37

Identify two major divisions of the ANS.

Sympathetic (“fight or flight”) and parasympathetic (“rest and digest”) nervous systems

38

Describe the ENS.

Enteric Nervous System (ENS)- extensive network of neurons and nerve networks in walls of the digestive tract- initiates many complex local visceral reflexes with no CNS input

39

Which division of the ANS is responsible for the physiological changes you experience when startled by a loud noise?

Sympathetic nervous system.

40

Describe an intramural ganglion.

Embedded in the tissues of target organ (“murus” - wall)

41

Define splanchnic nerves.

Special groups of nerves that relate to the viscera or internal organs, especially those of the abdomen. Contain the cardiopulmonary, abdominopelvic, and pelvic nerves.

42

Name the plexuses innervated by the vagus nerve.

Cardiac, celiac, inferior mesenteric and hypogastric plexuses.

43

Which nerve carries most of the parasympathetic outflow?

Vagus nerve

44

What neurotransmitter is released by all parasympathetic neurons?

Acetylcholine (ACh)

45

Compare nicotinic receptors and muscarinic receptors.

Nicotinic are excitatory, while muscarinic can be excitatory OR inhibitory.

Muscarinic receptors have longer lasting effects than nicotinic.

Nicotinic stimulated by nicotine, muscarinic stimulated by muscarine

Nicotinic receptors are located on all postganglionic neurons, on adrenal medullae cells, and at neuromuscular junctions of skeletal muscle fibers; while muscarinic receptors are located at cholinergic neuromuscular or neuroglandular junctions in parasympathetic division and few cholinergic junctions in sympathetic division

46

Name the two types of motor pathways.

Somatic and visceral

47

Identify somatic effectors and visceral effectors.

Somatic effectors-skeletal muscles

Visceral effectors- smooth muscles, glands, cardiac muscle, adipocytes

48

Define dual innervation

Receives instructions from both ANS divisions- sympathetic and parasympathetic

49

Define visceral reflex.

Autonomic reflexes initiated in viscera

50

Compare short reflexes with long reflexes.

Short reflexes are autonomic responses that bypass the CNS, whereas long reflexes involve interneurons in the CNS and autonomic delivery of motor commands to effectors.

51

Describe the solitary nuclei.

They are large masses of gray matter on each side of the medulla oblongata that serve as processing sorting centers for visceral sensory information.

52

Define baroreceptors. Where are baroreceptors located within the body?

Baroreceptors are stretch receptors that monitor pressure changes. Located in hollow organs, blood vessels, and tubes are respiratory, digestive, and urinary tracts

53

Which type of receptor is sensitive to changes in blood pH?

Chemoreceptors

54

What brain structure is considered to be the headquarters for the ANS?

Hypothalamus

55

What brain structure relays somatosensory information?

Thalamus

56

Formed elements make up about what percentage of blood?

45% of blood makes up the formed elements

57

The combination of plasma and formed elements is called

Whole blood

58

The percent fraction of formed elements relative to whole blood is called ..

Hematocrit- packed cell volume (PCV)

59

The total volume of blood in the body of an adult male is approximately ________ liters.

5-6 liters

60

Plasma proteins essential in body defense are the

Globulins as in immunoglobulins, or antibodies

61

A plasma protein essential for blood coagulation is

Fibrinogens

62

The most abundant component of plasma is ……..

Water

63

Plasma composes about ________ percent of whole blood, and water composes ________ percent of the plasma volume.

55%; 92%

64

Most of the protein factors that are required for clotting are synthesized by

The liver

65

The normal pH of blood is

Slightly alkaline, 7.35-7.45 (avg.: 7.4)

66

Red blood cell production is regulated by the hormone ________ which is mostly produced in the ________.

Erythropoietin (EPO); kidneys

67

When a person who lives at sea level vacations in the Rocky Mountains, what would you expect in his/ her blood?

Release of EPO, increase in RBC production, drop in oxygen levels, rise in hematocrit

68

Erythropoiesis is stimulated when ……………

Anemia, Reduced blood flow to kidneys, Oxygen content in lungs decreased (either from disease or high altitude), Lung damage

69

Hormones called ________ are involved in regulation of white blood cell populations.

Colony-stimulating factors

70

The ________ is a procedure that is used to determine the number of each of the various types of white blood cells.

WBC differential count

71

The ________ is a procedure that is used to determine the number of mature erythrocytes.

RBC count

72

________ transport(s) oxygen and CO2 in the RBCs.

Hemoglobin

73

The function of red blood cells is to carry……….

Carry oxygen from the lungs to the body tissues

Carry CO2 from the tissues to the lungs

74

RBCs typically live about 120 days. The main reason for this short lifespan in RBCs is due to …………

Lack of nucleus

75

In adults, erythropoiesis exclusively takes place in

Red bone marrow

76

The process of red blood cell production is called

erythropoiesis

77

The developmental stage at which erythrocytes enter the circulation is as

reticulocytes

78

A person with Type A blood has ……..type of antibody on RBCs and ……… type of antibody in plasma?

A person with Type A blood has surface antigen A on the RBCs and anti-B antibodies in the plasma

79

If the blood types of a donor and recipient are compatible, then

The donor’s blood and the recipient’s plasma will not cross-react

There is no reaction between antibodies and surface antigens

80

People with type AB blood are considered the "universal recipient" for transfusions because …

There are neither Anti-A nor Anti-B antibodies (agglutinins) in the plasma.

RBCs have both A and B surface antigens (agglutinogens)

81

Bill wants to determine his blood type, so he takes a few drops of blood from a puncture wound in his finger and mixes it with various antisera. His blood cells agglutinate when mixed with the anti-A sera but not with the anti-B or anti-D sera. What do you know about Bill’s Rh Antibody?

Rh-, blood contains anti-B antibodies, A- blood type, could donate to AB blood type

82

Hemolytic disease of the newborn may result if

Rh- mother is carrying an Rh+ baby

This occurs when the mother’s antibodies cross the placenta and destroy fetal RBCs

83

Which of the following descriptions best matches the term eosinophils?

Bilobed, 2-4% makeup of white blood cells, granular and stains, numbers increase during inflammation, allergy, and parasitic infection, destroy antibody-labeled antigens

84

The most numerous white blood cells in peripheral circulation are the

Neutrophils

85

White blood cells that release histamine at the site of an injury are………

Basophils

86

During a bacterial infection you would expect to see increased numbers of……..

neutrophils

87

________ involves a cascade of reactions leading to the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.

Coagulation phase of hemostasis

88

The conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin is catalyzed by

Thrombin

89

Which of the following vitamins is needed for the formation of clotting factors?

Vitamin K

90

________ is a condition in which the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood is reduced.

Anemia

91

Whole blood for testing in a clinical laboratory is usually collected from ……artery/vein?

A superficial vein

92

Eileen is a strict vegan and therefore eats no animal products. She develops an anemia that her doctor thinks is caused by a nutritional deficiency. Which of the following is the likeliest candidate?

Vitamin B12 deficiency (pernicious anemia)

93

A cancer involving neutrophils, eosinophils, or basophils is called a ……

Myeloid leukemia

94

Pernicious anemia caused by a lack of intrinsic factor is specifically treated by ..

Injections of Vitamin B12

95

A condition where pathogens are present and multiplying in the blood is called….

Septicemia

96

Define hematocrit

Also called the packed cell volume (PCV), is the percentage of whole blood volume contributed by formed elements.

97

Which specific plasma proteins would you expect to be elevated during an infection?

During an infection, you would expect the level of immunoglobulins (antibodies) in the blood to be elevated.

98

Define hemocytoblasts.

These form from hematopoietic stem cells. hemocytoblasts divide in the red bone marrow, producing two types of cells: lymphoid stem cells and myeloid stem cells.

99

Compare the types of cells that lymphoid stem cells and myeloid stem cells produce

-Lymphoid stem cells originate in red bone marrow and give rise to lymphocytes, these stem cells also produce lymphocytes in the thymus, spleen, and lymph nodes.

-Myeloid stem cells are ells in bone marrow that give rise to all of the formed elements except for lymphocytes.

100

What is hematology?

The medical study of blood, blood-producing organs, and blood disorders.

101

Which condition would a patient have if she had a depressed hematocrit level?

This patient would have anemia

102

Describe hemoglobin.

Hemoglobin (Hb) is a protein- composed of 4 globular subunits, each bound to a heme molecule- that gives RBCs the ability to transport oxygen in the blood.

103

What is determined by the surface antigens on RBCs?

These are glycoproteins in the plasma membrane, they determine your blood type.

104

Which blood type(s) can be safely transfused into a person with type O- blood?

Only type O- blood can be safely transfused into a person whose blood type is O-

105

Why can't a person with type A blood safely receive blood from a person with type B blood?

A person with Type A blood also has anti-B antibodies, so if the person received a transfusion of type B blood, the transfused blood cells would clump, or agglutinate, potentially blocking blood flow to various organs and tissues.

106

Define hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN).

A condition in which maternal antibodies attack and destroy fetal red blood cells, resulting in fetal anemia. It most commonly occurs in a sensitized Rh- mother who is carrying an Rh+ fetus.

107

Does an Rh+ mother carrying an Rh‒ fetus require a RhoGAM injection? Explain your answer.

No she doesn’t require RhoGAM because the fetus is not at risk of Rh incompatibility. The fetus is not at risk because its RBCs lack Rh surface antigens, and the mother’s plasma lacks anti-Rh antibodies.

108

Identify the five types of white blood cells.

Neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, basophils

109

Define hemostasis.

The stopping of bleeding and involves three phases: the vascular phase, the platelet phase, and the coagulation phase.

110

Compare pernicious anemia with iron deficiency anemia.

Pernicious anemia is insufficient red blood cell production that results from a lack of Vitamin B12. The blood cells that do develop tend to be abnormally large and abnormally shaped.

Iron deficiency anemia results when the dietary intake or absorption of iron is insufficient, impairing normal Hb synthesis. These blood cells are abnormally small.

111

Identify the two types of leukemia.

Myeloid leukemia and lymphoid leukemia

112

Name the location where metabolites exchange by diffusion with the tissues and the cells.

capillary

113

Where does blood enters while returning from the systemic circuit?

The right atrium (entry chamber) of the heart.

114

Explain the correct order of blood flow in the heart.

Right atrium --> right ventricle --> pulmonary arteries --> pulmonary capillaries --> pulmonary veins --> left atrium --> left ventricle --> into systemic circuit

115

The process of decrease in any vessel diameter that occurs due to smooth muscle contraction is called …

vasoconstriction

116

The muscular layer of a blood vessel is the

Tunica media (it causes vasoconstriction or vasodilation)

117

Which layer of a blood vessel contains concentric sheets of smooth muscle tissue?

Tunica media

118

The large vessels that return blood to the heart are called

Veins

119

Which of the following is the innermost layer of a blood vessel?

Tunica intima

120

The layer of the arteriole wall that can contains smooth muscle and can produce vasoconstriction is the ………………

Tunica media

121

Capillaries that have a complete lining are called ………………..

Continuous capillaries

122

Capillaries with a perforated lining are called……………

Fenestrated capillaries

123

After blood leaves the capillaries, it enters the …………………….

Venules

124

Sinusoids can be found in the ……………………

Liver, red bone marrow, spleen, and many endocrine organs

125

________ are multiple arteries that fuse in order to serve a single capillary network.

collaterals

126

________ refers to all the factors that resist blood flow in the entire circulatory system.

Total peripheral resistance

127

The main control of peripheral resistance by the vasomotor centers occurs in the

Arteriole

128

Where is blood pressure highest? Hint: Blood vessels

in the arteries

129

The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures is called the ________ pressure.

Pulse pressure

130

As blood travels from arteries to veins, blood pressure…………………..

decreases

131

If a person has a blood pressure of 120/90, his mean arterial pressure would be ________ mm Hg.

90+(120-90)/3= 90+(30/3)= 90+10 = 100 mm Hg

132

________ are the only blood vessels whose walls are thin enough to permit blood-tissue exchange.

capillaries

133

Materials can move across capillary walls by ………….(process)

Diffusion, filtration, and reabsorption (osmosis)

134

The blood colloid osmotic pressure mostly depends on the

The concentration of plasma proteins

135

The vascular pressure that declines from roughly 35 mm Hg to about 18 mm Hg is the ……….

Capillary hydrostatic pressure (CHP)

136

The hormone that produces cardiovascular effects similar to activation of the sympathetic nervous system is ………….

Epinephrine or norepinephrine

137

________ is the regulation of blood flow by local mechanisms within a capillary bed.

autoregulation

138

What part of brain contains sensory neurons that are part of chemoreceptor reflexes?

Ventrolateral surface of the medulla oblongata

139

What will happen to pH due to decrease in blood CO2 levels in blood?

increase in pH

140

How does body defend blood volume against dehydration?

Accelerates reabsorption of water at the kidneys

Experiences a recall of interstitial fluids

Experiences an increase in the blood colloidal osmotic pressure

Increases water intake

141

Angiogenesis refers to ……………………

The growth of new blood vessels from preexisting vessels.

142

The systemic circuit delivers oxygenated blood to ________ and returns blood to the ________.

The body tissues; the right atrium

143

The superior vena cava collect blood from the………………. (Parts of body).

Upper limbs, head, neck, and chest/thorax.

144

Describe the pulmonary circuit.

Transports blood from the right ventricle through the pulmonary arteries, capillaries in the lungs, and pulmonary veins and returns it to the left atrium.

145

Describe the systemic circuit.

Transports blood through the arteries, capillaries, and veins of the body from the left ventricle to the right atrium. Blood returning to the heart from the system circuit must complete the pulmonary circuit before it re-enters the systemic circuit.

146

Which chamber of the heart receives blood from the systemic circuit?

The right atrium receives the blood from the systemic circuit.

147

List the five general classes of blood vessels.

Arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins.

148

Describe a capillary.

A small blood vessel located between an arteriole and a venule, whose thin walls permits exchange between blood and interstitial fluid by diffusion.

149

Identify the two types of capillaries with a complete endothelium.

Continuous capillaries and fenestrated capillaries

150

Where are fenestrated capillaries located in the body?

Located where solutes as large as small peptides move freely into and out of the blood. These sites include endocrine glands, the choroid plexus of the brain, absorptive areas of the intestine, and filtration areas of the kidneys.

151

Why are valves located in veins but not in arteries?

In the arterial system, pressures are high enough to keep the blood moving away from the heart and through arteries and capillaries. In the venous system, blood pressure is too low to keep the blood moving back toward the heart. Valves in veins prevent blood from flowing backward whenever the venous pressure drops.

152

Describe the distribution of total blood volume in the body. Percentage

systemic venous system 64%

systemic arterial system 13%

heart 7%

pulmonary circulation 9%

systemic capillaries 7%

153

What factors are involved in the formation of varicose veins?

Varicose veins are sagging, swollen superficial veins in the thighs and leges. They result from the pool of blood due to gravity and failure of venous valves.

154

Which is greater: arterial pressure or venous pressure?

Arterial pressure is higher because it must push blood a greater distance and through progressively smaller and thinner vessels.

155

Why is it beneficial for capillary pressure to be very low?

This allows time for diffusion between the blood and the surround interstitial fluid

156

List the factors that contribute to total peripheral resistance.

Total peripheral resistance reflects a combination of vascular resistance, vessel length, vessel luminal diameter, blood viscosity, and turbulence.

157

Explain the equation R α 1/r4.

This states that Resistance (R) is inversely proportional to the fourth power of the vessel radius (r). this means that a small change in vessel diameter results in a large change in resistance

158

Which would reduce peripheral resistance: an increase in vessel length or an increase in vessel diameter?

An increase in vessel diameter

159

Calculate the mean arterial pressure for a person whose blood pressure is 125/70.

70+(125-70)/3 = 70+(55/3) = 70 + 18.3 = 88.3 mm Hg

160

Under what general conditions would fluid move into a capillary?

Fluid moves into a capillary (reabsorption) whenever blood colloid osmotic pressure (BCOP) is greater than capillary hydrostatic pressure (CHP)

161

Define edema.

An abnormal accumulation of interstitial fluid in peripheral tissues

162

Define tissue perfusion.

Blood flow to tissues that is sufficient to deliver adequate oxygen and nutrients

163

Describe autoregulation as it relates to cardiovascular function

Cardiovascular autoregulation involves local factors changing the pattern of blood flow within capillary beds in response to chemical change in interstitial fluids

164

Identify the hormones responsible for short-term regulation of decreasing blood pressure and blood volume.

E and NE from the adrenal medullae provide short-term regulation of decreasing blood pressure and blood volume.

165

How does the kidney respond to vasoconstriction of the renal artery?

Vasoconstriction of the renal artery would decrease both blood flow and blood pressure at the kidney. In response, the kidney would release EPO and renin. EPO increases the rate of red blood cell formation, which leads to an increase in blood volume. The release of renin would lead to an increase in the level of angiotensin II. The angiotensin II would bring about increased blood pressure and blood volume.

166

Describe the roles of the natriuretic peptides.

Excessive stretching of the right atrium during diastole causes the release of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP). Excessive stretching of the ventricles during diastoles causes the release of brain natriuretic peptide (BNP). The roles of these peptides are to trigger responses whose combined effects acts to decrease blood volume and blood pressure. As blood volume and blood pressure decrease, natriuretic peptide production ceases.

167

Where are chemoreceptors located?

The carotid bodies, the aortic bodies, and on the ventrolateral surfaces of the medulla oblongata

168

What effect does an increase in the respiratory rate have on CO2 levels?

An increase in the respiratory rate reduces CO2 levels

169

Describe the respiratory pump.

A mechanism by which a reduction of pressure in the thoracis cavity during inhalation assists venous return to the heart.

170

Name the immediate and long-term problems related to hemorrhage.

The immediate problem during hemorrhage is to maintain adequate blood flow; the long-term problem is to restore normal blood volume

171

Review fetal circulation

Umbilical veins carry OXYGENATED blood from placenta to the fetus, while the umbilical arteries carry deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta. This blood bypasses the pulmonary circuit through the foramen ovale.

172

Review all the fetal arteries and vein and their function.

-Umbilical arteries carry deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta. Runs from the internal iliac arteries into the umbilical cord.

-Umbilical veins carries oxygenated and nutritious blood from the placenta to the fetus. Drains into the ductus venosus

-Ductus venosus- vascular connection the veins within the liver that collects blood from liver and umbilical vein, and empties into the inferior cava

-Foramen ovale, or interatrial opening, allows blood to pass from right atrium to left, and bypasses the pulmonary circuit(because oxygenated blood comes from the placenta)

-Ductus arteriosus is the bypass between pulmonary trunk and aorta that sends blood from right ventricle to systemic circuit.

173

Names of fetal blood vessels post childbirth.

-Fossa ovalis- remnant of the foramen ovale

-Ligamentum arteriosum- remnant of the ductus arteriosus

174

The superior portion of the heart where major blood vessels enter and exit is the…….

The base

175

The inferior point of the heart is called ……………..

The apex

176

The left border of the heart is formed by the

Left ventricle and a small portion of the left atrium

177

The muscle layer of the heart is called …

myocardium

178

The earlike extension of the atrium is called …….

The auricle

179

Where is bicuspid, or mitral, valve is located?

Between the left atrium and left ventricle

180

The ________ valve prevents backward flow into the left atrium.

Mitral, or bicuspid, valve

181

In cardiac muscle, the fast depolarization phase of the action potential is the result of ________ membrane permeability to ________ ions.

Increased; sodium

182

What is the sequence of conducting system of the heart? Hint SA node to ………

Sinoatrial (SA) node --> atrioventricular (AV) node --> AV bundle--> Bundle branches --> Purkinje fibers

183

Pacemaker cells isolated from the SA node generate action potentials at ________ beats per minute.

80-100

184

The T wave on an ECG tracing represents

Ventricular repolarization

185

During the T wave of the electrocardiogram, the ventricles are electrically ________ and functionally ________.

Repolarizing ; relaxing

186

Depolarization of the atria corresponds to the ECG's ( Hint P-QRS-T)

P wave

187

Abnormally slow depolarization of the ventricles would most change the shape of the ________ in an ECG tracing.

QRS complex

188

A faster-than-normal heart rate is called

Tachycardia

189

A slower-than-normal heart rate is called

Bradycardia

190

The heart is innervated by ________ nerves.

Both sympathetic and parasympathetic

191

________ is to slow heart rate as ________ is to fast heart rate.

Bradycardia; tachycardia

192

Acetylcholine slows the heart because it

It is released by parasympathetic neurons, opens chemically gated K+ channels in plasma membrane, thereby slowing the rate of spontaneous depolarization, and slightly extending the duration of repolarization

Opens potassium ion channels in SA node cells and causes the pacemaker potential to depolarize more slowly.

193

The volume of blood ejected from each ventricle during a contraction is called the

Stroke volume

194

Describe the heart's location in the body.

-The heart is surrounded by the pericardium in the anterior mediastinum, deep to the sternum and superior to the diaphragm.

-base starts at the 3rd costal cartilage, and base ends at 5th intercostal space

195

From superficial to deep, name the layers of the heart wall.

Pericardium --> myocardium --> endocardium

196

Why is the left ventricle more muscular than the right ventricle?

The more muscular left ventricle must generate enough force to propel blood throughout the body in the systemic circuit, whereas the right ventricle must generate only enough force to propel blood the short distance to and from the lungs in the pulmonary circuit

197

What do semilunar valves prevent?

Prevent backflow of blood into the ventricles

198

Compare arteriosclerosis with atherosclerosis.

-Arteriosclerosis is any thickening and toughening of arterial walls

-Atherosclerosis is a type of arteriosclerosis characterized by changes in the endothelial lining and the formation of fatty deposits (plaque) in the tunica media.

199

What is coronary ischemia?

A blood condition in which the blood supply to the coronary arteries is reduced.

200

Define cardiac cycle.

The period between the start of one heartbeat and the beginning of the next

201

Give the alternate terms for heart contraction and heart relaxation.

Heart contraction = systole

Heart relaxation = diastole

202

List the phases of the cardiac cycle.

Atrial systole, atrial diastole, ventricular systole, and ventricular diastole

203

Why does tetany not occur in cardiac muscle?

Cardiac muscle has a long refractory period that continues until relaxation is well under way. As a result, another action potential cannot arrive quickly and thus tetany cannot occur.

204

List the three stages of an action potential in a cardiac muscle cell.

Rapid depolarization --> plateau --> repolarization

205

Define autorhythmicity.

The ability of cardiac muscle tissue to contract without neural or hormonal stimulation.

206

If the cells of the SA node failed to function, how would the heart rate be affected?

The heart would continue to beat, but at a slower rate; the AV node would act as the pacemaker

207

Define electrocardiogram.

ECG or EKG, is a recording of electrical activities of the heart over time.

208

List the important features of the ECG, and indicate what each represents.

P wave- atrial depolarization

QRS complex- ventricular depolarization

T wave-ventricular repolarization

209

Why is ventricular fibrillation fatal?

Causes a condition known as cardiac arrest, it is fatal because the ventricles merely quiver and do not pump blood into the systemic circulation

210

Compare bradycardia with tachycardia.

-Bradycardia- heartrate below 60 bpm

-Tachycardia- heartrate above 100 bpm

211

Describe the sites and actions of the cardioinhibitory and cardioacceleratory centers.

-Cardioacceletory center in the medulla oblongata activates sympathetic neurons to increase heart rate.

-Cardioinhibitory center is also in the medulla oblongata, and controls the parasympathetic neurons that slow heart rate.

212

What effect would an increase in venous return have on the stroke volume?

An increase in venous return would stretch the heart muscle. The more heart muscle is stretched, the more forcefully it will contract (to a point). The more forceful contraction, the more blood the heart will eject with each beat (stroke volume) therefore, increased venous return would increase the stroke volume (if all other factors are constant)

213

Define heart failure. </3 :(

A condition in which the heart can no longer meet the oxygen and nutrient demand of the peripheral tissues.

214

Name the accessory organs of digestive system.

Teeth, tongue, salivary glands, liver, gallbladder, and pancreas

215

In the digestive and urinary systems, rings of smooth muscle, called ________, regulate the movement of materials along internal passageways.

sphincters

216

Waves of muscular contractions that propel the contents of the digestive tract are called

peristalsis

217

The movement of organic molecules, electrolytes, minerals, and water across the digestive epithelium into interstitial fluid is known as ……….

absorption

218

Chemical breakdown of materials by acid and enzymes takes place in the

stomach

219

Carbohydrate digestion begins in the

mouth

220

The crown of a tooth is covered by …………..

Enamel

221

________ are teeth with flattened crowns and prominent ridges that are adapted for crushing and grinding.

Premolars

222

Name the region where esophagus connects to the stomach.

cardia

223

The greater omentum is ………………

-a fatty sheet that hangs like an apron over the abdominal viscera

-attaches to the greater curvature of the stomach.

224

The region of the stomach that empties into the duodenum is the

pylorus

225

Chief cells secrete ………………….

Pepsinogen

226

The enzyme pepsin digests………….

proteins

227

An enzyme secreted by the gastric mucosa of a newborn that assists in the digestion of milk proteins is

rennin and gastric lipase

228

Mary had most of her stomach surgically removed in an effort to overcome obesity. As a result, Mary can expect to be at risk for

vitamin b12 deficiency

229

The portion of the small intestine that attaches to the cecum is the

ileum

230

The order of the small intestine segments, from proximal to distal, is

“Don’t Jump In”

Duodenum, jejunum, ileum

231

G cells of the stomach secrete ………

gastrin

232

An intestinal hormone that stimulates contraction of the gallbladder to release bile is

Cholecystokinin (CCK)

233

The hormone that stimulates secretion and contraction by the stomach is

gastrin

234

Which organ is responsible for dehydration and compaction of indigestible materials?

Large intestine

235

Functions of the large intestine include

-storage of fecal material prior to defecation

-Absorption of vitamins

-Reabsorption of water and compaction of feces

236

________ pair(s) of salivary glands secrete into the oral cavity.

three

237

What is the salivary gland that secretes a watery mixture rich in salivary amylase and buffers?

submandibular

238

The enzyme that breaks down complex carbohydrates is

Salivary amylase

239

The human liver is composed of ________ lobe(s).

four

240

The structure that marks the division between the right and left lobes of the liver is the

Falciform ligament

241

Bile is stored in the

gallbladder

242

Bile salts break lipids apart in a process called

emulsification

243

The exocrine portion of the pancreas is composed of

Pancreatic acini

244

Tom has hepatitis, an inflammation of the liver. Which symptoms would you expect to observe in Tom?

jaundice

245

A viral infection that often involves the parotid glands, which swell noticeably, is

mumps

246

Starting at the mouth, identify the major organs of the digestive tract.

The oral cavity (mouth), pharynx (throat), esophagus, stomach, small intestine, and large intestine.

247

List the accessory organs of the digestive system.

Teeth, tongue, salivary glands, liver, gallbladder, and pancreas

248

Describe enteroendocrine cells.

Endocrine cells scattered among the epithelial cells lining the digestive tract that secrete peptide hormones important to digestion.

249

Distinguish between chemical digestion and absorption.

-Chem digestion- chemical and enzymatic breakdown of food into small molecules.

-Absorption- the movement of molecules and other substances across the digestive epithelium and into the interstitial fluid of the digestive tract.

250

Name the three main parts of a typical tooth.

Crown, a neck, and a root

251

Name the four major regions of the stomach in order from its junction with the esophagus to the small intestine.

The cardia, fundus, body, and pyloric part

252

What is the function of parietal cells?

Secrete intrinsic factor and the ions of HCl

253

Describe the alkaline tide.

A sudden influx of bicarbonate ions into the bloodstream from active parietal cells; it causes a temporary increase in blood pH

254

Name the layers of the small intestine from superficial to deep.

The mucosa, submucosa, muscular layer, and serosa.

255

What is the primary function of the duodenum?

To receive chyme from the stomach and neutralize its acids to prevent damage to the absorptive surfaces of the remaining regions of the small intestine, especially the jejunum

256

Does a high-fat meal raise or lower the level of cholecystokinin (CCK) in the blood?

Raises the CCK level in the blood

257

Name the major functions of the large intestine.

1- reabsorbing water and compacting material into feces

2- absorbing vitamins produced by bacteria

3- storing fecal material prior to defecation.

258

Distinguish between the exocrine and endocrine secretions of the pancreas.

-Exocrine secretions of the pancreas are buffers and digestive enzymes.

-Endocrine secretions are insulin, glucagon, pancreatic polypeptide (PP), and GH-IH.

259

Which pair of salivary glands contributes most to saliva production?

Submandibular glands secrete about 70% of saliva.

260

What is the function of the gallbladder?

Temporarily stores bile produced by the liver

261

Describe a portal triad.

A portal triad is located at each of the six corners of a liver lobule; each portal contains:

1-an interlobular vein (a branch of the hepatic portal vein)

2- an interlobular artery (branch of the hepatic artery proper)

3- an interlobular bile duct (a small branch of the bile duct)

262

Describe hepatitis.

Inflammation of the liver. It can be caused by alcohol abuse, drugs, or infection. Cirrohosis is a form of hepatitis that destroys liver cells and replaces them with nonfunctional fibrous connective tissue. In viral hepatitis, hepatitis viruses attack an destroy liver cells

263

Describe cholecystitis.

Inflammation of the gallbladder, usually resulting from blockage of the cystic duct or the bile duct by gallstones.

264

What bacterium is responsible for most peptic ulcers?

Helicobacter pylori.