Microbiology - NEED TO STUDY THESE! Flashcards


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1

Which of these is considered to be the smallest unit of life? a) the nucleus b) the mitochondrion c) a plasmid d) the cell e) a prion

d) The smallest unit of life is *the cell*.

2

The study of microbiology includes all of the following EXCEPT _____ . a) plants b) viruses c) bacteria d) fungi e) algae

a) The study of microbiology includes all of the following EXCEPT *plants*.

3

What percent of the dry weight of the cell is composed of DNA? a) 2 - 5 b) 12 -15 c) 25 - 30 d) 35 -40 e) 50 - 55

a) *2-5* % of the dry weight of the cell is composed of DNA

4

What are the three Domains of life? a) Monera, Animals, and Plants b) Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya c) Prokaryote, Eukaryote, and Fungi d) Animals, Plants, and Bacteria e) Prokaryote, Eukaryote, Archaea

b) *Bacteria, Achaea, and Eukarya* are the three Domains of life.

5

Which of the characteristics of life is not displayed by any individual organism? a) metabolism b) growth c) reproduction d) evolution e) response f) homeostasis

d) *Evolution* is NOT a characteristic of life displayed by any individual organism.

6

Viruses are considered "nonliving" for all of the following reasons EXCEPT that they: a) need a host cell for replication. b) are metabolically inert. c) possess DNA that can evolve. d) do not maintain internal homeostasis. e) are not responsive to environmental changes.

c) Viruses are considered "nonliving" for all of the following reasons EXCEPT that they *possess DNA that can evolve*.

7

Which is a macromolecular difference between the Domains Bacteria and Archaea? a) Archaea contain a nucleus and Bacteria do not. b) Bacteria contain DNA and Archaea do not. c) Bacteria contain a plasma membrane and Archaea do not. d) Bacteria cell wall contains peptidoglycan and the Archaea cell wall does not. e) Archaea contain multiple types of RNA polymerase and Bacteria has only one type.

d) A macrobolecular difference between the Domains Bacteria and Archaea is that *Bacteria cell wall contains peptidoglycan and the Archaea cell wall does not*.

8

The size and shapes of Archaean cells suggest relatedness to: a) Bacteria b) Prokaryotes c) Eukaryotes d) All other life forms e) No other life forms; their sizes and shapes are unique

a) the size and shapes of Archaean cells suggest relatedness to *Bacteria*

9

Phosholipid structure in Archaean cells suggests relatedness to: a) Bacteria b) Prokaryotes c) Eukaryotes d) All other life forms e) No other life forms; their structure is unique

e) Phospholipid structure in Archaean cells suggests relatedness to *no other life forms; their structure is unique*

10

Which molecular tool most assisted in providing a more reliable way to verify the assertions made by Woese et al in their 1990 paper on phylogeny? a) Polymerase chain reaction b) RNA to DNA conversion using reverse transcriptase c) RNA sequencing d) DNA sequencing e) Protein sequencing

a) *Polymerase chain reaction* was the molecular tool used to provide a more reliable way to verify the assertions made by Woese et al in their 1990 paper on phylogeny

11

If E. coli DNA polymerase, not Taq polymerase were used in polymerase chain reaction assays to amplify SSUrRNA gene sequences, we would expect to see: a) increased short fragment DNA sequences b) decreased short fragment DNA sequences c) the same number of short fragment DNA sequences d) increasd long fragment DNA sequences e) decreased long fragment DNA sequences

b) if E. coli DNA polymerase were used in polymerase chain traction assays to amplify SSUrRNA gene sequences, we would expect to see *decreased short fragment DNA sequences*.

12

Figure B1.1 (other side of card) represents an artist's attempt to illustrate the process of PCR. What is the most significant error you notice in this figure? a) DNA strands are not fully denatured b) Primers are not annealed c) PCR products cannot separate from template DNA d) Taq polymerase is not shown in the illustration e) dNTPs are not shown in the illustration

a) *DNA strands are not fully denatured*

13

Select the answer choice with the correct order in which these structures evolved in plant cells: a) mitochondria, cell walls, chloroplasts b) mitochondria, chloroplasts, cell walls c) chloroplasts, mitochondria, cell walls d) chloroplasts, cell walls, mitochondria e) cell walls, mitochondria, chloroplasts

b) The correct order in which structures evolved in plant cells is: *mitrochondria -> chloroplats -> cell walls*

14

Approximately when did primitive cells first appear on Earth? a) 1 billion years ago b) 2 billion years ago c) 2.5 billion years ago d) 3 billion years ago e) 3.8 billion years ago

e) primitive cells first appeared on Earth *3.8 billion years ago*

15

Which of these are fossilized microbial mats containing photosynthetic bacteria? a) Stromatolites b) Biofilms c) Resin d) Cyanobacteria e) Stalagmites

a) *stromatolites* are fossilized microbial mats containing photosynthetic bacteria

16

Which statement below is FALSE concerning the atmosphere of early earth? a) The atmosphere was a reducing atmosphere. b) Oxygen was present in very minute amounts. c) Carbon dioxide was present in very minute amounts. d) Hydrogen gas was present.

c) The atmosphere of early earth contained *carbon dioxide present in high concentration, not very minute amounts*

17

The discovery of ribozymes provides evidence that life on the early Earth may have been based on: a) DNA. b) proteins. c) RNA. d) lipids. e) polysaccharides.

c) the discovery of ribozymes provides evidence that life on the early Earch may have been based on *RNA*

18

What is the Endosymbiotic Theory is used to explain? a) the rapid evolution of viruses b) antiphagocytic abilities of parasitic protozoa c) emergence of cell walls d) presence of mitochondria in eukaryotes e) development of the nucleus in eukaryotes

d) the Endosymbiotic Theory is used to explain *presence of mitochondria in eukaryotes*

19

You are a scientific illustrator working on this figure (back of card) Your primary intention when revising this figure is to emphasize the concept of semi-conservative replication. What color changes would you make to the figure to enhance comprehension? a) make all DNA strands blue in the figure b) make the dsDNA a blue-green hybrid and each newly synthesized strand of the color that makes the new dsDNA blue-green hybrid in appearance too c) change all DNA strands to be different colors d) do not make any changes, semi-conservative replication is clearly conceptualized e) all suggestions are equally informative

b) To enhance comprehension of semi-conservative replication, you would *make the double stranded DNA (dsDNA) a blue-green hybrid and each newly synthesized strand of the color that makes the new dsDNA blue-green hybrid in appearance too*

20

A restriction endonuclease cuts DNA at the sequence ACGT. If we assume that all four bases are equally represented in DNA, what are the odds of this sequence occurring on a DNA strand? a) Roughly every 100 base pairs b) Roughly every 250 base pairs c) Roughly every 1000 base pairs d) Roughly every 10,000 base pairs e) Roughly every 20,000 base pairs

b) If we assume that all four bases are equally represented in DNA, the odds of the sequence ACGT occurring is *roughly every 250 base pairs*

21

In which molecule is the occurrence of mutation most likely to be detected and repaired? a) Single stranded DNA b) Single stranded RNA c) Double stranded DNA d) Protein e) None of these is an information storage molecule

c) the occurrence of mutation is most likely to be detected and repaired in *double stranded DNA*

22

The figure shown here (other side of card) relates to the flow of information from DNA to RNA to protein. Select the correct alternative scenario(s) for insertion of leucine instead of phenylalanine during translation. a) Error prone RNA polymerase creates a mutant mRNA from a correct DNA template b) Mutated tRNA introduces leucine instead of phenylalanine against the correct mRNA sequence c) Mutated ribosome creates a environment where mRNA-tRNA mismatches occur infrequently d) Both a and b are possible correct scenarios e) All of these possibilities could explain the translational error

d) Error prone RNA polymerase creates a mutant mRNA from a correct DNA template AND mutated tRNA introduces leucine instead of phenylalanine against the correct mRNA sequence

23

Eukaryal life forms without mitochondria do exist. Which of the following do you think they are likely to be? a) animals b) terrestrial plants c) oceanic giant kelps d) single celled protists e) all are equally plausible

d) *single celled protists* are the most likely ekaryal life forms without mitochondria

24

When would you speculate that the extinction of most eukaryal life forms without mitochondria would have begun? a) 3.5 billion ybp b) 3 billion ybp c) 2 billion ybp d) 1 billion ybp e) 500 million ybp

c) The extinction of most eukaryal life forms without mitochondria would have begun *2 billion ybp (years before present)*

25

Which of these best describes horizontal gene transfer? a) mitosis followed by cytokinesis b) meiosis and subsequent formation of a zygote c) transfer of genes from mother cell to daughter cell d) DNA replication followed by crossing over e) acquisition of genes from another organism in the same generation

e) Gene transfer involves the *aquisition of genes from another organism in the same generation*

26

Which of these gene expression errors will result in heritable genetic change? a) DNA polymerase error introducing an incorrect base b) RNA polymerase error creating a mutated mRNA c) RNA polymerase error creating a mutated tRNA d) RNA polymerase error creating a mutated rRNA e) All will lead to heritable changes

a) *DNA polymerase error introducing an incorrect base* will result in a heritable genetic change

27

Which is the correct distinction between a heterotroph and an autotroph? a) An autotroph utilizes organic compounds as a carbon source and a heterotroph uses carbon dioxide as a carbon source. b) An autotroph utilizes carbon dioxide as a carbon source and a heterotroph utilizes organic compounds as a carbon source. c) An autotroph utilizes complex organic compounds as a carbon source and a heterotroph utilizes simple organic compounds as a carbon source. d) An autotroph utilizes carbon dioxide as an energy source and a heterotroph utilizes organic compounds as an energy source. e) an autotroph utilizes organic compounds as an energy source and a heterotroph utilizes carbon dioxide as an energy source .

b) The correct distinction between a heterotroph and an autotroph is that *an autotroph utilizes carbon dioxide as a carbon source and a heterotroph utilizes organic compounds as a carbon source*.

28

Which best describes a photoautotroph? a) Utilizes sunlight for energy and organic molecules as a carbon source. b) Utilizes sunlight as an energy source to fix carbon dioxide. c) Emits light from the breakdown of organic carbon. d) Emits light from the fixation of carbon dioxide. e) Uses organic compounds as a source of carbon and energy.

b) a photoautotroph *utilizes sunlight as an energy source to fix carbon dioxide*

29

Which best describes the Cyanobacteria? a) First prokaryote to contain mitochondria. b) First appeared on earth about 3.5 billion years ago. c) Carry out oxygenic photosynthesis. d) Members of the Archaea domain. e) A type of eukaryotic algae.

c) Cyanobacteria *carry out oxygenic photosynthesis*

30

A chemoautotroph: a) obtains carbon and energy from organic molecules. b) obtains energy from the sun and carbon from organic molecules. c) obtains energy from the sun and carbon from inorganic molecules. d) obtains carbon and energy from inorganic molecules. e) obtains energy from the sun and carbon from carbon dioxide only.

d) A chemoautotroph *obtains carbon and energy from inorganic molecules*

31

What term applies to the oxidation of glucose to pyruvate for the generation of energy? a) gluconeogenesis b) Krebs cycle c) lactate fermentation d) pentose phosphate pathway e) glycolysis

e) *glycolysis* is the oxidation of glucose to pyruvate for the generation of energy

32

Which of these is required during aerobic respiration? a) oxygen b) glucose c) nitrate d) pyruvate e) water

a) *oxygen* is required during aerobic respiration

33

During nitrogen fixation, microorganisms convert: a) nitrate to dinitrogen gas. b) dinitrogen gas to ammonia. c) ammonia to dinitrogen gas. d) dinitrogen gas to nitrate. e) ammonia to nitrate.

b) During nitrogen fixation, microorganisms convert *dinitrogen gas to ammonia*

34

During ammonification, microorganisms convert: a) Ammonia to mitrates b) Amino acids to ammonia c) Ammonia to dinitrogen gas d) Dinitrogen gas to ammonia e) None is a correct choice

b) during ammonification, microorganisms convert *amino acids to ammonia*

35

This early microbiology pioneer developed a set of criteria for linking a specific microorganism to a specific disease. a) Louis Pasteur b) Edward Jenner c) Robert Koch d) John Tyndall e) Anton van Leeuwenhoek

c) *Robert Kock* was an early microbiology pioneer who developed a set of criteria for linking a specific microorganism to a specific disease

36

This early microbiologist used a swan-necked flask to help disprove the Theory of Spontaneous Generation. a) Louis Pasteur b) Edward Jenner c) Robert Koch d) John Tyndall e) Anton van Leeuwenhoek

a) *Louis Pasteur* was an early microbiologist who used a swan-necked flask to help disprove the Theory of Spontaneous Generation

37

Who was the first person to provide a written description of bacteria? a) Louis Pasteur b) Edward Jenner c) Robert Koch d) John Tyndall e) Anton van Leeuwenhoek

e) *Anton van Leeuwenhoek* was the first person to provide a written description of bacteria

38

Louis Pasteur's classic swan-necked flask experiment might not have disproved spontaneous generation if this microbial type was present: a) aerobic microbes b) anaerobic microbes c) endospore forming microbes d) viruses e) none of these would have impated the results

c) If *endospore forming microbes* were present, Louis Pasteur's classic swan-necked flask experiement might not have disproved spontaneous generation

39

Prior to World War II, the greatest cause of death during wartime had been: a) trauma on the battlefield b) starvation c) dysentery d) wound infection e) microbial disease

e) Prior to WWII, the greatest cause of death during wartime had been *microbial disease*

40

The development of which vaccine would most dramatically reduce death rates in sub-Saharan Africa? a) Tuberculosis b) HIV c) Malaria d) Cholera e) Smallpox

c) the development of *malaria* vaccine would most dramatically reduce death rates in sub-Saharan Africa

41

One limitation to the knowledge gained through "non-cultivation-based" genomic research is: a) Phylogenetic comparisons cannot be made b) Culture conditions for microbes can never be established c) Information is insufficient to establish microbial identity d) Genome size cannot be determined e) None are valid limitations

d) *Genome size cannot be determined* through "non-cultivation-based" genomic research

42

Which of the characteristics of life are not displayed by individual single-celled organisms? Select all that apply) a) metabolism b) growth c) reproduction d) evolution e) response f) homeostasis

d, f) characteristics of life that are NOT displayed by individual single-celled organisms are *evolution* and *homeostasis*

43

Endospores are structures possessing which of the characteristics of life? (Select all that apply) a) metabolism b) growth c) reproduction d) evolution e) response f) homeostasis

e) endospores are structures possessing *response*

44

When Dictyostelium discoideum transitions from single cells to a multicellular form, which life characteristics are evident in the multicellular form? (Select all that apply) a) metabolism b) growth c) reproduction d) evolution e) response f) homeostasis

a, b, c, e, f) When Dictyostelium discoideum transitions from single cells to a multicellular form, the life characteristics evident in the multicellular form are: *metabolism, growth, reproduction, response, and homeostasis*

45

When Dictyostelium discoideum transitions from single cells to a multicellular form, which life characteristics are being recruited for the process to occur? (Select all that apply) a) metabolism b) growth c) reproduction d) evolution e) response f) homeostasis

a, b, c, e) When Dictyostelium discoideum transitions from single cells to a multicellular form, the life characteristics being recruited for the process to occur are: *metabolism, growth, reproduction, and response*

46

Viruses may be considered non-living for all of the following reasons EXCEPT that they: (Select all that apply) a) need a host cell for replication. b) are metabolically inert. c) possess DNA that can evolve. d) do not maintain internal homeostasis. e) possess receptors which facilitate entry into cells

a, c, d) viruses are considered non-living EXCEPT that they: *need a host cell for replication, possess DNA that can evolve, and do not maintain internal homeostsis* Reasons why are ARE considered non-living include: they are metabolically inert, and they possess receptors which facilitate entry into cells

47

The SSUrRNA of an organism is a highly conserved molecule because of its: (Select all that apply) a) interaction with multiple genes b) interaction with multiple ribosomal proteins c) interaction with multiple mRNA sequences d) vital role within the organism in facilitating protein synthesis e) vital role within the organism in facilitating chromosomal replication

b, c, d) The SSUrRNA of an organism is a highly conserved molecule because of its: *interaction with multiple ribosomal proteins, interaction with multiple mRNA sequences, and vital role within the organism in facilitating protein synthesis*

48

Figure B1.1 (back of card) represents an artist's attempt to illustrate the process of PCR. How many errors/omissions do you notice in this figure? (Select all that apply) a) DNA strands are not fully denatured b)Primers are not shown in the illlustration c)PCR products are not shown in the illustration d)Taq polymerase is not shown in the illustration e)dNTPs are not shown in the illustration

a, d) Errors/omissions in the figure include: *DNA strands are not fully dentatured, and taq polymerase is not shown in the illustration*

49

You have found a novel microbe and wish to classify it at the domain level. The new microbe has histones, no membrane organelles and a proteinaceous cell wall. Which other features are likely displayed by this microbe? (Select all that apply) a) RNA pol II b) RNA pol II- like polymerase c) RNA pol III d) Single RNA polymerase e) Novel lipid linkages

b, d, e) Other features displayed by a microbe with histones, no membrane organelle and a proteinaceous cell wall include: *RNA pol II- like polymerase, single RNA polymerase, and novel lipid linkages*

50

You have found a novel microbe and wish to classify it at the domain level. The new microbe has RNA pol II-like activity, organelles and a proteinaceous cell wall. Which other features are likely displayed by this microbe? (Select all that apply) a) RNA pol III b) Histones c) Novel lipid linkages d) Single RNA polymerase e) Nuclear membrane

a, b, e) Other features displayed by a microbe with RNA pol II-like activity, organelles and a proteinaceous cell wall include: *RNA pol III, histones, and nuclear membrane*

51

You have found a novel microbe and wish to classify it at the domain level. The new microbe has a single RNA polymerase activity, no organelles and standard plasma membrane structure. Which other features are likely displayed by this microbe? (Select all that apply) a) RNA pol III-like activity b) RNA pol III-like activity c) Histones d) Nuclear membrane e) Peptidoglycan cell wall

e) Other features displayed by a microbe with RNA polymerase activity, no organelles and a standard plasma membrane structure include: *peptidoglycan cell wall*

52

Which abilities might provide plausible mechanisms to explain the endosymbiont phenomenon? (Select all that apply) a) Development of a phagocytic capability by early eukaryal cells b) Development of a phagocytic capability by primitive aerobically respiring bacteria c) Development of membrane invasion by early eukaryal cells d) Development of membrane invasion by primitive aerobically respiring bacteria e) All are plausible strategies

a, d) Plausible mechanisms explaining the endosymbiont phenomenon include: *development of a phagocytic capability by early eukaryal cells, and development of membrane invasion by primitive aerobically respiring bacteria*

53

Which of these factors has universally facilitated infectious disease spread from the plague times until the modern day? (Select all that apply) a) Visitations from God b) Unhealthful air c) Immigration d) Air travel e) Poverty and overcrowding

c, e) *Immigration and poverty & overcrowding* are factors that facilitate infectious disease spread from the plague times until the modern day

54

Despite advances in medical science, there has been a slight increase in deaths from infectious disease in the USA in recent decades. Reasons for this include: (Select all that apply) a) Bacterial resistance to antibiotics b) Emergence of new pathogens c) Decreased production of antibiotics d) Vaccine ineffectiveness e) Complacency over the use of vaccines

a, b, e) Increase in deaths from infectious disease in the USA in recent decades include: *bacterial resistance to antibiotics, emergence of new pathogens, and complacency over the use of vaccines*

55

Which of these are key factors in explaining the discrepancy between death rates in the world versus sub-Saharn Africa in the 21st century? (Select all that apply) a) Global unavailability of effective antibiotics b) Poverty of nations in sub-Saharan Africa c) Political instability d) Lack of sanitation e) Global unavailability of vaccines for endemic diseases

b, c, d) Key factors in explaining the similarity between death rates in the world versus sub-Saharan Africa in the 1930's include: *poverty of nations, political instability, and lack of sanitation*

56

True or False: Polypeptides are the most abundant macromolecule in the cell on a dry weight basis.

True: polypeptides are the most abundant macromolecule in the cell on a dry weight basis

57

True or False: DNA contributes about 2 to 5% to the dry weight of the cell.

True: DNA contributes about 2 to 5% to the dry weight of the cell

58

True or False: Viruses are able to infect all types of cellular life forms.

True: viruses are able to infect all types of cellular life forms

59

True or False: Microbial nitrogen fixation is the conversion of ammonia into dinitrogen gas.

False: Nitrogen fixation is a process by which nitrogen in the Earth's atmosphere is converted into ammonia

60

True or False: The first person to describe bacteria observed under a microscope was Anton van Leeuwenhoek.

True: the first person to describe bacteria observed under a microscope was Anton van Leeuwenhoek

61

Macromolecules that catalyze chemical reactions in the cell are called _________.

Macromolecules that catalyze chemical reactions in the cell are called *enzymes*

62

The main difference between the two cell types, prokaryote and eukaryote, is the presence of a ________________ in the eukaryote.

The main difference between the two cell types, prokaryote and eukaryote, is the presence of a *nucleus* in the eukaryote.

63

The three domains of life are ________, ________, and ________.

The three domains of life are *bacteria, archaea, and eukarya*

64

What is the typical length of a bacterium? a) 5 - 10 nm b) 0.5 - 5 µm c) 20 - 40 µm d) 5 - 10 mm e) 20 - 40 mm

b) The typical length of a bacterium is *0.5 - 5 um*

65

Which term describes straight, rod-shaped bacteria? a) cocci b) bacilli c) spirilla. d) vibrios. e) pleiomorphs

b) rod shaped bacteria -> *bacilli*

66

Which bacterial species would you expect to display pleomorphism? a) Actinomycetes b) Mycoplasma c) Cyanobacteria d) Streptococcus e) Staphylococcus

b) *mycoplasma* experiences pleomorphism as it does not have a cell wall, and therefore does not have a regular shape.

67

What is pleomorphism?

Bacteria that do not exhibit regular shapes, but exhibit regular shapes are pleomorphism.

68

Within a population of E. coli cells, you frequently observe rod-shaped cells that are significantly larger than the rest. This species is not known to be pleomorphic. Which is the most likely explanation for your observation? a) Cells are different because nutritional needs are not being met b) Cells are at different stages of growth before binary fission c) Cells are contaminated with Staphylococcus d) Cells have lost their cell walls e) Cells have lost their plasma membranes

b) The most likely explanation for size discrepancies in E. coli cells are the *cells in different stages of growth before binary fission*

69

The so-called ultra-small bacteria will likely have a diameter approximating a) 1 micrometer b) 1.5 micrometers c) 0.15 micrometers d) 0.5 micrometers e) 0.015 micrometers

c) Ultra-small bacteria have a diameter approximating *0.15 micrometers*

70

Given the size of a typical ribosome, how many would you expect to find inside an ultra-small bacterium? a) a single ribosome b) 5-20 ribosomes c) 50-100 ribosomes d) 100-200 ribosomes e) 500-1000 ribosomes

b) The typical diameter of a ribosome is 0.05 micrometers, so you could expect to find *5-20 ribosomes* in an ultra-small bacterium

71

Given the size of a typical ribosome, how many would you expect to find inside in a Mycoplasma cell? a) A single ribosome b) 5-20 ribosomes c) 50-100 ribosomes d) 100-200 ribosomes e) 500-1000 ribosomes

c) mycoplasma cells are ultrasmall bacteria with diameters of 0.2 micrometers. We can therefore expect to find between *50-100 ribosomes* in mycoplasma

72

Which region contains the chromosome in the bacterial cell? a) Nucleus b) Nucleoid c) Plasmid d) Plastid e) Prophage

b) the *Nucleoid* contains the chromosome in the bacterial cell

73

Which is an example of an "inclusion body" found in a bacterial cell? a) the nucleus b) the mitochondria c) a topoisomerase d) the cell membrane e) polyhydroxybutyrate

e) *polyhydroxybutyrate* is an inclusion body found in a bacterial cell Polyhydroxybutyrate (PHB) can compose over 50% of a bacterial cell's dry weight.

74

What is an inclusion body?

Inclusion bodies store extra carbon, nitrogen, or phosphorus in molecules large enough to be viewed in a microscope as granules. An example of an inclusion body includes polyhydroxybutyrate, or PHB, which can compose over 50% of the cell's dry weight.

75

Sulfur globules are an example of inclusion bodies that may be found in some bacterial cells. What is their use? a) They are a carbon source b) They are used for nucleotide synthesis c) As an energy source d) They provide buoyancy e) They assist in membrane synthesis

c) Sulfur globules may be used *as an energy source* They are used to oxidize sulfide (S2) to sulfate (SO4^2-) to yield energy when sulfide is limiting.

76

How are gas vesicles used by bacterial cells? a) As a source of oxygen for aerobic respiration b) As a source of nitrogen for protein synthesis c) As a source of hydrogen for reductive reactions d) For assistance with photosynthesis e) As an energy source

d) Gas vesicles are used *for assistance with photosynthesis* by bacterial cells Some aquatic bacteria produce air-filled gas vesicles that provide buoyancy to the cells. These gas vesicles can regulate the cell's position in a water column in response to light or nutrient levels.

77

The bacterial chromosome is a highly condensed structure that is tightly wound up around itself to fit into the bacterial cell. What is the main enzyme responsible for condensing the DNA? a) DNA polymerase b) DNA ligase c) DNA topoisomerase d) DNA endonuclease e) DNA synthetase

c) *DNA topoisomerase* is responsible for the highly condensed structure of bacterial chromosome. This highly condensed chromosomal structure is referred to as *supercoiling*

78

Carboxysomes play a role in: a) energy release b) aerobic respiration c) anaerobic respiration d) buoyancy control e) carbon fixation

e) Carboxysomes play a role in *carbon fixation* Cyanobacteria produce carboxysomes that contain key enzymes involved in the conversion of inorganic carbon into organic matter.

79

What would you expect to be a molecular property of the proteinaceous wall surrounding Microcystis vesicles which are gas, but not water, permeable? a) strongly negatively charged b) strongly positively charged c) hydrophobic in nature d) hydrophilic in nature e) none of these choices is correct

c) You would expect the wall surrounding Microcytis to be *hydrophibic* in nature as water would not be permeable

80

What is the main function of the FtsZ protein in the bacterial cell? a) DNA replication b) transcription c) translation d) cell division e) meiosis

d) The FtsZ protein in the bacterial cell causes *cell division*

81

The MreB protein in bacteria may play an important role in: a) determining cell shape b) motility c) energy metabolism d) meiosis e) nuclear division

a) The MreB protein in bacteria may play an important role in *determining cell shape* Mreb in purple, FtsZ in blue

82

What is the role of the ParM protein in bacteria? a) Determination of cell shape. b) To segregate plasmids to each cell during cell division. c) To assist in carrying out meiosis. d) In cell movement during chemotaxis. e) In sugar and protein metabolism.

b) ParM protein in bacteria is used *to segregate plasmids to each cell during cell division*

83

What protein plays an important role in determining cell shape by directing cell wall synthesis in non-spherical bacteria? a) FtsZ b) MreB c) ParM d) FlaA e) PepZ

b) *MreB* proteins play an important role in cell shape

84

The plasmid region where ParR attaches would be the eukaryal (mitotic) equivalent of : a) telomere b) chromatid c) centromere d) spindle e) chromosome

c) The plasmid region where ParR attaches would be the equivalent of the *centromere*

85

The mitotic equivalent activity to the plasmid separation achieved by ParM is: a) interphase b) prophase c) anaphase d) telophase e) cytokinesis

c) Plasmid separation achieved by ParM is the mitoic equivalent to *anaphase*

86

On which other cytoskeletal protein does ParM activity appear to depend? a) ftsZ polymer b) ftsZ monomer c) ParR d) mreB polymer e) mreB monomer

c) ParM and *ParR* are closely dependent on one another

87

What structure might you expect the MamJ protein to possess? a) at least one highly negatively charged region b) at least one highly positively charged region c) at least one lipophilic region d) at least one hydrophilic region e) none of these characteristics is relevant

c) You would expect the MamJ protein to possess *at least one lipophilic region*

88

Which best describes the chemical structure of the Bacteria domain cytoplasmic membrane ? a) A bilayer of phospholipids. b) A monolayer of phospholipids. c) A monolayer of phospholipids with sterols. d) A bilayer of phospholipids with sterols. e) A trilayer of phospholipids.

a) The chemical structure of Bacteria cytoplasmic membranes include *a bilayer of phospholipids*

89

Some bacteria produce sterol-like molecules called ____________ that help to stabilize the plasma membrane. a) ergosterol b) progesterone c) hopanoids d) phycols e) stigmasterols

c) *Hopanoids* are sterol-like molecules that help to stabilize the plasma membrane

90

Which statement is FALSE in regards to the plasma membrane? a) Glucose cannot easily diffuse across the plasma membrane. b) Protons can easily diffuse across the plasma membrane. c) Oxygen can easily diffuse across the plasma membrane. d) Water can easily diffuse across the plasma membrane. e) Potassium ions cannot easily diffuse across the plasma membrane.

b) Protons can *not* easily diffuse across the plasma membrane.

91

If cells are placed into a hypertonic solution, what reaction would you expect? a) The cell would lose water. b) The cell would gain water. c) The cell would pump out ions. d) The cell would lyse. e) The cell would increase in size.

a) In a hypertonic solution, *the cell would lose water*

92

What conditions must exist for an "active transport system" to transport nutrients into a cell? a) The nutrient concentration must be higher on the outside of the cell. b) The nutrient concentration must be lower on the inside of the cell. c) The nutrient concentration must be equal inside and outside of the cell. d) Passive diffusion needs to drive this transport. e) Some form of energy is required for proper transport.

e) *Some form of energy is required for proper active transport*

93

What is a signal peptide? a) The amino acid sequence of a protein that detects changes in the external environment and signals this change to components in the cell. b) A regulatory protein that turns on/off the expression of certain genes. c) A protein used to signal cell division. d) A short amino acid sequence on the end of a protein that is used for transport of the protein out of the cell. e) A protein in the cytoplasmic membrane that is used to communicate with other closely related cells.

d) A signal peptide is *a short amino acid sequence on the end of a protein that is used for transport of the protein out of the cell*

94

Which of the following terms would best summarize the function of the general secretory path-way shown in Fig2.13? (back of the card) a) translocase b) transacetylase c) peptide entry facilitation d) transaminase e) none is appropriate

a) translocase

95

Which protein shown in this figure can be termed a molecular chaperone? a) SecA b) SecB c) ATPase d) SecY e) SecE

b) *SecB* is termed a molecular chaperone

96

Which is the major component of the cell wall of microbes in the Bacteria domain? a) cellulose b) chitin c) protein d) polysaccharide e) peptidoglycan

e) *Peptidoglycan* is the major component of the cell*WALL*, which exists outside of the plasma membrane

97

The glycan portion of peptidoglycan is composed of alternating units of which two compounds? a) glucose and fructose b) N-acetylmuramic acid and N-acetylglucosamine c) N-acetylmannose and N-acetylglucose d) N-acetylfructose and N-acetylglucose e) N-acetylmannitol and N-acetylsorbitol

b) N-acetylmuramic acid (NAM) and N-acetylglucosamine (NAG) Both are N-acetyl, so remember: muramic and glucosamine

98

What is the main function of peptidoglycan? a) Controlling movement of nutrients into and out of the cell. b) Protecting the cell from harmful chemicals. c) Regulating the transport of water into the cell. d) Protecting against osmotic stress. e) Generating energy through electron transport phosphorylation.

d) Peptidoglycan has the main function of *protecting against osmotic stress*. Without cell walls, cells do easily lyse from osmotic pressure.

99

What is the reaction of β-lactamase enzymes? a) Hydrolyze the glycan chain of peptidoglycan. b) Hydrolyze crosslinks between amino acid chains formed in peptidoglycan c) Inactivate antibiotics like penicillin. d) Inactivate the enzyme lysozyme. e) Prevent the transpeptidation reaction during peptidoglycan synthesis.

c) β-lactamase enzymes *inactivate antibiotics like penicillin* by hydrolyzing their C-N bonds

100

Which structure should the label "Peptide crosslink" be pointing to? (back of card) a) Light green hexagon b) Dark green hexagon c) Pink vertical structure d) Black horizontal structure e) None of these choices is correct

d) The peptide crosslink is represented by the *black horizontal structure*

101

Which structure should be correctly labeled "Peptide chain"? (back of card) a) light green hexagon b) dark green hexagon c) pink vertical structure d) black horizontal structure e) none is a correct choice

c) The peptide chain, which attaches itself to NAM, is represented by the *pink vertical structure*

102

Which compound binds the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria to the thin peptidoglycan layer? a) lipoproteins b) lipoteichoic acid c) porin d) bactoprenol e) polysaccharide

a) *lipoproteins* bind the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria to the thin peptidoglycan layer

103

Clavulanic acid can be seen to act in which manner to augment penicillin activity? a) It molecularly links to penicillin to increase its effectiveness b) It acts as a competitive inhibitor of beta lactamase c) It acts indirectly to alter peptide crosslinks and strengthen the cell wall d) It acts as a non-competitive inhibitor of lysozyme e) It strengthens the glyan covalent linkages

d) Clavulanic acid can augument penicillin activity by *acting as a competitive inhibitor of beta lactamase*

104

One feature of the peptidoglycans found in E. coli and Staphylococcus which correlates positively with the relative thickness of the layers found in Gram positive and Gram negative cells is the; a) Structure of the glycan layer b) Length of the peptide chains c) Length of the peptide crossbridges d) Amino acid sequence of the peptide chains e) Amino acid sequence of the peptide crossbridges

c) The *length of the peptide crossbridges* correlates positively with the relative thickness of the layers found in gram positive and gram negative cells

105

The differential step in the Gram stain is: a) the application of crystal violet b) the application of the iodine mordant c) the alcohol wash step d) application of safranin red dye e) none is considered differential

c) The differential step in the Gram stain is *the alcohol wash step*

106

Which of these gene products appears to confer a survival advantage on bacteria living in a competitive environment? a) TonB dependent receptors b) TonB c) Flagellin d) ExbB e) ExbD

a) TonB dependent receptors confer a survival advantage on bacteria living in a competitive environment. When nutrients are present in low concentrations in the environment, outer membrane proteins called TonB-dependent receptors that bind scares nutrients (such as iron and vitamin B12) with high affinity, and deliver them into the periplasm by active transport.

107

In Type III secretion, which protein seems to mimic flagellin? a) the protein being exported b) the cytoplasmic component of the Type III secretion complex c) the transmembrane component of the Type III secretion complex d) the syringe-like component of the Type III secretion complex e) none is a comparable protein

a) *The protein being exported* in Type III secretion mimics the flagellin Several of the components of the type III secretion system are evolutionary related to proteins involved in making the flagella. Flagellar proteins and proteins exported through the type III secretion system appear to be secreted by a similar mechanism, entering the pore at the base of the flagellum or type III needle, then moving through a channel in the core of the flagellar filament or secretory syringe to emerge at the other end.

108

The bacterial flagellum is turned by a motor using energy from: a) ATP. b) glucose. c) a proton motive force. d) phosphoenolpyruvate. e) AMP.

c) The bacterial flagellum is turned by a motor using energy from *a proton motive force*

109

Which of these describes the peritrichous arrangement of flagella? a) Flagella all around the cell. b) Flagella at both polar ends of the cell. c) Flagella in a tuft at one end of the cell. d) Flagella inside the periplasm wrapping around the cell. e) Flagella on a single side of the cell.

a) Peritrichous arrangement of flagella = *flagella all around the cell* Lophiotrichouse = more than one flagellum at one or both ends Monotrichous = a single polar flagellum

110

What are short fiber-like structures that protrude from the bacterial surface and are primarily used for attachment called? a) pili b) flagellin c) porins d) bactoprenol e) lipopolysaccharides

a) The short fiber-like structures that protrude from the bacterial surface and are primarily used for attachment are called *pili*

111

What is the function of the bacterial capsule? a) Attachment. b) Preventing phagocytosis by phagocytic cells. c) Resisting desiccation. d) All of these choices. e) None of these choices.

d) The function of the bacterial capsule includes: - *attachment* - *preventing phagocytosis by phagocytic cells* - *resisting desiccation* Overall, protecting the cell

112

Which of the bacterial behaviors described seems most similar to the differentiation observed in Caulobacter growth? a) Proteus swarming b) E. coli intestinal attachment c) Treponema movement with axial filaments d) Streptococcal capsule formation e) E. coli TonB dependent receptor active transport

a) Caulobacter cells have the observed behaviour most simmilar to *proteus swarming* Caulobacter = cauliflower (to remember it has a stalk)

113

What is the major difference between the strategies of Caulobacter and Proteus in nutrient acquisition? a) Caulobacter increases its own cell surface area while Proteus covers more nutrient-containing surface area to improve nutrient absorption b) Proteus increases its own cell surface area while Caulobacter covers more nutrient-containing surface area to improve nutrient absorption c) Caulobacter uses pili to attach to new surface areas while Proteus uses axial filaments for enhanced motility d) Proteus uses pili to attach to new surface areas while Caulobacter uses axial filaments for enhanced motility e) None is a correct statement

a) Caulobacter increases its own cell surface area while Proteus covers more nutrient-containing surface area to improve nutrient absorption

114

Which of these constitue valid reasons why actin polymer formation by Shigella should be considered as a strong virulence factor? a) Actin can propel bacterial cells from one side of a host cell to another b) Actin polymers allow bacteria to invade an epithelial sheet without immune cell exposure c) Actin polymer formation adheres bacterial cells to host cells d) Actin polymers trigger the expression of host defenses e) None is a valid reason to consider actin polymer formation as a virulence factor

b) The actin polymer formation by Shigella is considered a strong virulence factor as *actin polymers allow bacteria to invade an epithelial sheet without immune cell exposure*

115

Select the structure and assocated function which is incorrect: a) Pili, motility b) Flagella, motility c) Capsule, attachment d) Pili, attachment e) Porin, attachment

e) Porins are NOT used for attachment, rather they are used to facilitate nutrient movements across the outer membrane

116

Select the structure and assocated function which is incorrect: a) S-layer, protection b) Capsule, protection c) Peptidoglycan, protection d) Flagella, protection, e) TonB, diffusion

e) TonB does NOT use diffusion, it uses active transport

117

All of the following are taxonomic groups used to classify bacteria EXCEPT: a) Kingdom. b) Phylum. c) Class. d) Family. e) Genus.

a) Kingdom is NOT used to classify bacteria. The classification hierarchy is: Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species Philip Came Over For Good Soup (Bacteria Philip is not a king)

118

Which phyla contain photosynthetic bacteria? (Select all that apply) a) Proteobacteria b) Cyanobacteria c) Firmicultes d) Deinococcus e) Actinobacteria

a, b) Proteobacteria and Cyanobacteria both contain photosynthetic bacteria

119

Suggest a survival advantage for cyanobacterial filaments compared with the single celled growth pattern seen for cultures such as E. coli: (Select all that apply) a) nutrients may be shared down the length of a filament b) nutrient loss may occur along the filament length c) intercellular communication may allow all cells to synthesize key enzymes d) intercellular communication leads to differentiation of cell types e) none is a possible advantage

a, c) Survival advantages for cyanobacterial filaments compared to the single celled growth pattern in E. coli include: - nutrients may be shared down the length of a filament - intercellular communication may allow all cells to synthesize key enzymes

120

An advantage of polyhydroxybutyrate use in plastics is: (Select all that apply) a) reduced dependence on petroleum products b) the likelihood of biodegradability c) cheaper manufacture d) potential upcycling of other organic molecules during the plastic manufacture e) less biomass generation

a, b, c, d) polyhydroxybutyrate (PHB) are being used in plastics due to their: - reduced dependence on petroleum products - the likelihood of biodegradability - cheaper to manufacture - potential upcycling of other organic molecules during the plastic manufacture Biomass is still generated, but its not harmful

121

The proton motive force (PMF) across a cell membrane can be used for which of these processes? a) Generate ATP. b) Propel the flagella. c) symport d) antiport e) lowering pH outside the cell membrane

a, b, c, d) The proton motive force (PMF) can be used to: - generate ATP - Propel the flagella - symport - antiport pH cannot be adjusted OUTSIDE the cell membrane, only inside

122

Which of the molecule(s) shown in this figure is exerting an allosteric effect on channel opening? (Select all that apply, back of card) a) nutrient b) solute binding protein c) hydrophobic protein unit d) ATP binding protein unit e) None is acting allosterically

a, b, c) The molecules exerting an allosteric effect on the channel opening are: - nutrient - solute binding protein - hydrophobic protein unit

123

SecB is a highly acidic protein. How is this characteristic likely to assist in its role as molecular chaperone? (Select all possibilities) a) The negative charges may interfere with formation of alpha helices and beta sheets in the peptide being translocated b) The positive charges may interfere with formation of alpha helices and beta sheets in the peptide being translocated c) SecA may be a basic protein d) SecYEG may be a basic protein complex e) SecA may be an acidic protein

a, c) SebB uses its high acidity as a molecular chaperone by: - the negative charges may interfere with formation of alpha helices and beta sheets in the peptide being translocated - SecA may be a basic protein

124

Mutations occur in proteins of the general secretory pathway. Which bacterial regions may be deprived of key proteins? (Select all that apply) a) Plasma membrane b) Cytoplasm c) Gram negative outer membrane d) Periplasmic space e) Nucleoid

a, c, d) Bacterial regions of the secretory pathway that may be deprived of key proteins include: - plasma membrane - gram negative outer membrane - periplasmic space

125

A mutation alters amino acids in SecA of the general secretory pathway. Which proteins may no longer be able to interact within the pathway because of the SecA structural change? (Select all that apply) a) SecB b) ATPase c) SecY d) SecG e) SecE

a, b, c, d, e) All proteins associated may no longer be able to interact within the pathway because of the structural change (SecA associates with every other protein)

126

A mutation alters amino acids in SecB of the general secretory pathway. Which proteins may no longer be able to interact within the pathway because of the SecB structural change? (Select all that apply) a) SecA b) ATPase c) SecY d) SecG e) SecE

a) SecA would no longer be able to interact within the pathway because of the SecB structural change (SecB ONLY associates with SecA)

127

General secretory pathway proteins SecYEG must contain protein domains which are: (Select all that apply) a) Acidic b) Basic c) Lipophilic d) Hydrophilic e) Hydrophobic

c, e) SecYEG contain protein domains which are: - lipophilic - hydrophobic

128

Which of these molecules has been modified by kinase activity? (Select all that apply, back of card) a) NAM b) UDP c) Bactoprenol d) Transpeptidase e) None is a correct choice

a, c) NAM and Bactoprenol are both modified by kinase activity

129

Identify the correctly paired peptidoglycan targets and their detroyers: (Select all that apply) a) NAG-NAM linkages and lysozyme b) NAG-NAM linkages and penicillin c) Polyglycine peptide crossbridges and lysostaphin d) Polyglycine peptide crossbridges and penicillin e) Amino acid crossbridges in E. coli peptidoglycan and penicillin

a, c) - NAG-NAM linkages are destroyed by lysozymes - Polyglycine peptide crossbridges are destroyed by lysostaphin

130

Identify the correctly paired peptidoglycan targets and their detroyers: (Select all that apply) a) Polyglycine peptide crossbridges and lysozyme b) Peptidoglycan crosslinking enzymes and penicillin c) NAG-NAM linkages and penicillin d) NAG-NAM linkages and lysostaphin e) NAG-NAM linkages and lysozyme

b, e) - Peptidoglycan crosslinking enzymes are destroyed by penicillin - NAG-NAM linkages are destroyed by lysozyme

131

Which of these molecules can elicit strong inflammatory host responses? (Select all that apply) a) lipoteichoic acid b) lipopolysaccharide lipid A c) NAG-NAM glycan chains d) Pentaglycine peptides e) Lipopolysaccharide O side chains

a, b, e) Strong inflammatory host responses can be caused by: - lipoteichoic acid - lopopolysaccharide lipid A - lipopolysaccharide O side chains

132

Which of these molecules will be lysozyme resistant? (Select all that apply) a) lipoteicheoic acid b) lipopolysaccharide lipid A c) NAG-NAM glycan chains d) Pentaglycine peptides e) Lipopolysaccharide O side chains

a, b, d, e) Lysozyme resistant molecules are: - lipoteicheoic acid - lipopolysaccharide lipid A - pentaglycine peptides - lipopolysaccharide O side chains

133

True or False: The ABC transporter system uses phosphoenolpyruvate as the energy source to drive transport.

False: the ABC transporter system uses ATP hydrolysis as the energy source

134

True or False: The bacterial flagellum is structurally and functionally related to the eukaryotic flagellum.

False: Structures of bacterial, archaeal, and eukaryal flagella are distinct.

135

Short hair-like protrusions on the surface of some bacterial cells, used primarily for attachment but occasionally for motility, are called ______.

Pili - used for attachment and occasionally motility

136

_________ motility is used by myxobacteria and some cyanobacteria for smooth movement across a solid surface.

Nonflagellar Motility: *Gliding motility* - smooth movement across a solid surface Twitching motility - slow, jerky process extending, attaching to, and pulling along a solid surface

137

Eukaryal proteins that are secreted outside of the cell undergo modification before secretion. Which organelles are involved in this secretion pathway? a) the mitochondria and endoplasmic reticulum b) the mitochondria and Golgi apparatus c) the endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus d) the endoplasmic reticulum and lysosome e) the lysosome and mitochondria

c) *the endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus* are involved in the secretion pathway of eukaryal cells

138

Molecular chaperones are proteins involved in which eukaryal cell process? a) transcription b) translation c) mitosis d) protein folding e) energy production

d) Molecular chaperones are proteins involved in *protein folding*

139

Eukaryal proteins undergo various chemical modifications after the translational process to ensure correct folding of the protein for optimal activity. Which of these are examples of such modifications? a) hydrogen bond formation and disulfide bond formation b) attachment of lipids and glucose molecules c) acetylation and phosphorylation d) hydrogen bond formation, disulfide bond formation, acetylation and phosphorylation are cor-rect e) all of these choices are correct

e) all of these choices are correct

140

Which of these best describes chemiosmosis? a) The movement of water across a biological membrane into or out of a cell. b) The movement of protons across a biological membrane for energy production. c) The movement of organic nutrients across a biological membrane into or out of a cell. d) The movement of inorganic nutrients across a biological membrane into or out of a cell. e) The production of energy as a result of the reactions occurring in the glycolytic pathway.

b) Chemiosmosis is described as *the movement of protons across a biological membrane for energy production*

141

Which statement below is FALSE regarding mitochondria and chloroplasts? a) Both contain DNA. b) Both replicate independently of the host cell. c) Both function in energy generation. d) Both contain the enzymes for the glycolytic pathway. e) Both contain inner membranes.

d) Glycolysis occurs in a cells cytoplasm, not in the mitochondria and chloroplasts

142

Which of these best represents the component(s) of the plasma membrane of eukaryal cells? a) phospholipids only b) phospholipids and sterols c) phospholipids and proteins. d) phospholipids, proteins, and sterols e) proteins and sterols

d) *phospholipids, proteins, and sterols* are the components of the plasma membrane in eukaryal cells

143

What is the basic chemical structure of a phospholipid in a eukaryal cell? a) A glycerol molecule with cholesterol attached. b) A fatty acid with a phosphate attached at the carboxyl end. c) A glycerol molecule with two fatty acids and a phosphate attached. d) A glycerol molecule with two phosphates and a fatty acid attached. e) A glycerol molecule with cholesterol and phosphate attached.

c) The basic chemical structure of a phospholipid in a eukaryal cell is *a glycerol molecule with two fatty acids and a phosphate attached*

144

Chitin, a component of the fungal cell wall, is a polymer composed of _______. a) amino acids b) glucose c) acetyl-glucosamine d) silica dioxide e) dipicolinic acid

c) Chitin is a polymer composed of *acetyl-glucosamine*

145

What are the three major structures that comprise the eukaryal cytoskeleton? a) microtubules, microfilaments, and intermediate filaments b) centromeres, microtubules, and microfilaments c) telomeres, centromeres, and microtubules d) telomeres, microtubules, and microfilaments e) telomeres, centromeres, and microfilaments

a) The 3 major structures that comprise the eukaryal cytoskeleton are *microtubules, microfilaments, and intermediate filaments*

146

Movement of the eukaryal cilia and flagella involves interaction between dynein motor proteins and _______. a) microtubules b) microfilaments c) intermediate filaments d) PMF driven motors in the membrane e) intermediate filaments and actin

a) Movement of the eukaryal cilia and flagella involves interaction between dynein motor proteins and *microtubules*

147

A protein found within the mitochondrial matrix is seen to be leucine-rich in sequence. What is the likely origin of this protein? a) derived from a nuclear gene b) derived from a mitochondrial gene c) derived from a chloroplast gene d) transported to the mitochondrion through the secretory pathway e) none is a correct choice

a) A protein found that is rich in leucine sequences has a likely origin from the nuclear gene.

148

A mycoplasma may adapt to a cooler environment through: a) synthesis of a stronger cell wall b) increasing hopanoid content in its plasma membrane c) decreasing unsaturated fatty acid composition within the plasma membrane d) increasing saturated fatty acid composition within the plasma membrane e) none is correct

b) A mycoplasma may adapt to a cooler environment through *increasing hopanoid content in its plasma membrane*

149

Which of these eukaryal cells will have the greatest number of mitochondria per unit of cytoplasmic volume? a) fungal cell in a mold hyphal filament b) fungal cell within a yeast colony c) algal cell within a multicellular filament d) flagellated protozoan e) all will possess the same mitochondrial density

d) A *flagellated protozoan* will have the greatest number of mitochondria per unit of cytoplasmic volume due to the energy demands from the flagella

150

When considering the structure of the fungal cell wall, which of these microbes possesses a wall with molecular similarities? a) Plants b) Bacteria c) Protozoa d) algae

b) The structure of the fungal cell wall has molecular similarity to *bacteria*

151

You discover a new microbe whose cell wall appears to be heavily enriched with glycopeptides. Which type of organism do you suspect? a) bacteria b) archaea c) fungus d) alga e) protozoan

b) A cell wall rich with glycopeptides relates to *archaea*

152

Which of these features is likely to be UNIVERSALLY displayed by Bacteria? a) presence of peptidoglycan in the cell envelope b) presence of teichoic acid in the cell envelop c) presence of chitin in the cell envelope d) presence of cellulose in the cell envelope e) presence of glycopeptides in the cell envelope

a) *Presence of peptidoglycan in the cell envelope* is universally displayed by Bacteria

153

Which of these is a fungus widely used by molecular biologists to investigate the workings of eukaryal cells? a) Giardia lamblia b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae c) Dictyostelium discoideum d) Penicillium notatum e) Cephalosporium acremonium

b) Saccharomyces cervisiae is a widely researched fungus

154

What is the slime-mold Dictyostelium discoideum commonly used to study? a) the fungal life cycle b) evolution of multi-cellularity c) flagella movement d) cell wall synthesis e) cyst formation

b) The slime-mold Dictyostelium discordeum is commonly used to study *evolution of multi-cellularity*

155

Which alga is commonly used as a model eukaryal organism to study flagellar operation? a) Synechococcus elongatus b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae c) Euglena gracilis d) Chlamydomonas reinhardtii e) Trypanosoma cruzi

d) *Chlamydomonas reinhardtii* is commonly used as a model eukaryal organsism to study flagellar operation

156

The appearance of mitochondria within eukaryal cells is defined as an evolutionary Big Bang. Which landmark ability might have preceded it? a) evolution of phagocytosis b) evolution of lysosomal organelles c) formation of the nucleolus d) development of the endoplasmic reticulum e) formation of motility structures

a) The *evolution of phagocytosis* may have preceded the appearance of mitochondria, as the mitochondria itself may be a heavily modified bacteria that was enveloped billions of years ago.

157

The definition of a clade is "a group of organisms sharing a common phylogenetic history. Which of the following pairings shows organisms from the same clade? (back of card) a) animals and land plants b) animals and ichthiosporia c) charophytes and chlorophytes d) apicomplexan and Amoebozoa e) unikonta and excavate

b) animals and ichthiosporia are both from the same clade (originate from the same point)

158

Given your biological knowledge of cellular and acellular slime molds, select the correct re-productive strategy employed by Dictyostelium: a) asexual reproduction during the single celled phase and meiotic divisions within the fruiting body b) sexual reproduction during the single celled phase and mitotic divisions within the fruit-ing body c) asexual reproduction during the single celled phase and meiotic divisions within the plasmodium d) sexual reproduction during the single celled phase and mitotic divisions within the plasmodium e) none match the growth cycle of Dictyostelium

a) Dictyostelium (slime molds) replicate via *asexual reproduction during the single celled phase and meiotic divisions within the fruiting body*

159

The signaling substance used to direct the aggregation of cells during the Dictyostelium growth cycle indicates: a) a lack of water within the environment b) high levels of nutrients are present within the environment c) low levels of nutrients have led to an energy shortage d) elevated moisture in the environment threatens survival e) reduced phosphorous levels in the environment

c) The aggregation of cells during the Dictyostelium growth cycle indicates *low levels of nutrients have led to an energy shortage*

160

Identify the correct association between organism and characteristics: a) fungi, chloroplasts b) protozoa, chitin cell wall c) slime mold, chitin cell wall d) algae, cellulose cell wall e) fungi, flagella

d) *algae have cellulose cell walls* Fungi have chitin cell walls Ptotozoa have no cell walls

161

Which organism displays the most recent evolutionary ancestry? a) Lobosea b) Basidiomycetes c) Acantharia d) Cryptomonads e) Apicomplexa

b) Basidiomycetes (short line at the end of the tree)