Pathophysiology - E-Book: MIDTERM Flashcards


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Pathophysiology - E-Book
Chapters 1, 2, 4, 7, 10, 11, 13-16, 18-20, 22-25
updated 2 years ago by Coffeequ33n
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pathophysiology, medical, physiology, pathology
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1

Blood flow throughout the periphery is regulated by

the autonomic nervous system.

2

Pulse pressure is defined as

systolic pressure – diastolic pressure

3

The patient who requires the most careful monitoring for development of metabolic acidosis is a patient who

has had diarrhea for over a week.

4

Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis would result in

increased pH, increased HCO 3 .

5

A common characteristic of viral pneumonia is

increased carbonic acid.

6

A patient is diagnosed with cardiogenic shock. The patient is hyperventilating and is therefore at risk for the respiratory complication of respiratory acidosis.

False (resp alkalosis)

7

Overproduction of nitric oxide is an important aspect of the pathophysiologic process of what type of shock?

Septic

8

Respiratory acidosis is associated with

increased carbonic acid.

9

Croup is characterized by

a barking cough

10

A patient is diagnosed with a tortuous blood vessel of the right hand that bleeds spontaneously. This patient presents with

telangiectasia.

11

The inward-pulling force of particles in the vascular fluid is called _____ pressure.

capillary osmotic

12

Transfusion reactions involve RBC destruction caused by

recipient antibodies

13

The major cause of death from leukemic disease is

infection

14

The arterial oxygen content (CaO 2) for a patient with PaO 2 100 mm Hg, SaO 2 95%, and hemoglobin 15 g/dL is _____ mL oxygen/dL.

19.4

15

Mitral stenosis is associated with

a pressure gradient across the mitral valve.

16

An example of an acyanotic heart defect is

ventricular septal defect.

17

A loud pansystolic murmur that radiates to the axilla is most likely a result of

mitral regurgitation.

18

After sitting in a chair for an hour, an elderly patient develops moderate lower extremity edema. His edema is most likely a consequence of

right-sided heart failure.

19

What age group has a larger volume of extracellular fluid than intracellular fluid?

Infants

20

How is a patient hospitalized with a malignant tumor that secretes parathyroid hormone–related peptide monitored for the resulting electrolyte imbalance?

Serum calcium, bowel function, level of consciousness

21

A deficiency of von Willebrand factor impairs

platelet adhesion to injured tissue

22

Pneumocystitis is a term that refers to a

fungal pneumonia secondary to HIV.

23

The therapy that most directly improves cardiac contractility in a patient with systolic heart failure is

digitalis.

24

Rheumatic heart disease is most often a consequence of

β-hemolytic streptococcal infection.

25

How do clinical conditions that increase vascular permeability cause edema?

By allowing plasma proteins to leak into the interstitial fluid, which draws in excess fluid by increasing the interstitial fluid osmotic pressure

26

In contrast to all other types of shock, the hyperdynamic phase of septic shock is associated with

high cardiac output

27

After suffering a heart attack, a middle-aged man is counseled to take a cholesterol-lowering medication. This is an example of

tertiary prevention.

28

Which causes vasoconstriction?

Norepinephrine

29

Renal compensation for respiratory acidosis is evidenced by

elevated bicarbonate ion concentration.

30

Which change in a patient’s assessment has the greatest urgency?

Serum potassium concentration is increasing; has developed cardiac dysrhythmias, but denies any difficulty breathing

31

Peripheral edema is a result of

venous thrombosis.

32

Necrotic death of brain tissue usually produces _____ necrosis.

liquefactive

33

While hospitalized, an elderly patient with a history of myocardial infarction was noted to have high levels of low-density lipoproteins (LDLs). What is the significance of this finding?

Increased LDL levels are associated with increased risk of coronary artery disease

34

Hypotension associated with neurogenic and anaphylactic shock is because of

peripheral pooling of blood.

35

A normal bleeding time in association with normal platelet count, and increased prothrombin time (PT) and INR, is indicative of

vitamin K deficiency.

36

Which disorder is associated with a type III hypersensitivity mechanism of injury?

Systemic lupus erythematosus

37

What is the correct definition of complete remission (CR) of leukemia?

CR is less than 5% blasts in marrow and normal CBC values.

38

In which stage of shock is a patient who has lost 1200 mL of blood, who has normal blood pressure when supine, but who experiences orthostatic hypotension upon standing?

Class II, Compensated Stage

39

Certain autoimmune diseases are associated with the presence of specific proteins on a person’s cells. These proteins are called ________ proteins.

HLA or MHC

40

After being diagnosed with hypertension, a patient returns to the clinic 6 weeks later. The patient reports “moderate” adherence to the recommended lifestyle changes and has experienced a decreased from 165/96 to 148/90 mm Hg in blood pressure. What is the most appropriate intervention for this patient at this time?

Continue lifestyle modifications only

41

Selye’s three phases of the stress response include all the following except

allostasis.

42

All the following stress-induced hormones increase blood glucose except

aldosterone.

43

The hypersecretion of mucus resulting for chronic bronchitis is the result of

recurrent infection.

44

Administration of a vasodilator to a patient in shock would be expected to

decrease left ventricular afterload.

45

The person at highest risk for developing hypernatremia is a person who

receives tube feedings because he or she is comatose after a stroke.

46

The primary adaptive purpose of the substances produced in the alarm stage is

energy and repair.

47

Respiratory acidosis may be caused by

hypoventilation

48

Persistence of the alarm stage will ultimately result in

permanent damage and death

49

An increase in hemoglobin affinity for oxygen occurs with

shift to the left.

50

Hyperaldosteronism causes

ECV excess and hypokalemia.

51

A patient has a positive Chvostek sign. The nurse interprets this as a sign of

increased neuromuscular excitability.

52

Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors block the

conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.

53

Hemophilia B is also known as Christmas disease.

True

54

The hypermetabolic state leading to cachexia in terminal cancer is thought to be because of

tumor necrosis factor.

55

Which serum biomarker(s) are indicative of irreversible damage to myocardial cells?

Elevated CK-MB, troponin I, and troponin T

56

The cellular component that is most susceptible to radiation injury is the

DNA.

57

The hypersensitivity reaction that does not involve antibody production is type

IV.

58

Which group of clinical findings describes the typical presentation of ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)?

Pain in long bones, infection, fever, bruising

59

Cancer grading is based on

cell differentiation.

60

In individuals who have asthma, exposure to an allergen to which they are sensitized leads to which pathophysiologic event?

Inflammation, mucosal edema, and bronchoconstriction

61

Airway obstruction in chronic bronchitis is because of

thick mucus, fibrosis, and smooth muscle hypertrophy.

62

Early manifestations of a developing metabolic acidosis include

headache.

63

A patient with flail chest will demonstrate

outward chest movement on expiration

64

When systemic vascular resistance is decreased, blood flow

decreases.

65

Tumor necrosis factor α and interleukin-1 contribute to shock states because they induce production of

nitric oxide.

66

The electrolyte that has a higher concentration in the extracellular fluid than in the intracellular fluid is _____ ions.

sodium

67

Velocity of blood flow is measured in

centimeters per second.

68

The increased anterior-posterior chest diameter associated with obstructive lung disease is caused by

increased residual lung volumes.

69

An increase in the resting membrane potential (hyperpolarized) is associated with

hypokalemia.

70

The most appropriate treatment for secondary polycythemia is

measured to improve oxygenation.

71

The majority of cardiac cells that die after myocardial infarction do so because of

apoptosis.

72

Which blood pressure reading is considered to be indicative of prehypertension according to the JNC-7 criteria?

128/82

73

Second-degree heart block type I (Wenckebach) is characterized by

lengthening PR intervals and dropped P wave.

74

An abnormally wide (more than 0.10 second) QRS complex is characteristic of

premature ventricular complexes.

75

The primary source of erythropoietin is provided by the

kidney.

76

The assessment findings of a 5-year-old with a history of asthma include extreme shortness of breath, nasal flaring, coughing, pulsus paradoxus, and use of accessory respiratory muscles. There is no wheezing and the chest is silent in many areas. How should you interpret your assessment?

The child may be having such a severe asthma episode that the airways are closed, so start oxygen and get the doctor immediately.

77

Metaplasia is

the replacement of one differentiated cell type with another.

78

A patient presenting with fever, hypotension, and lactic acidosis is most likely to be experiencing what type of shock?

Septic

79

Which characteristic is indicative of hemolytic anemia?

Jaundice

80

Retroviruses are associated with human cancers, including

Burkitt lymphoma.

81

The imbalance that occurs with oliguric renal failure is

hyperkalemia

82

A patient with a productive cough and parenchymal infiltrates on x-ray is demonstrating symptomology of

bacterial pneumonia.

83

High blood pressure increases the workload of the left ventricle, because it increases

afterload.

84

The characteristic x-ray findings in tuberculosis include

Ghon tubercles.

85

Cardiogenic shock is characterized by

reduced cardiac output.

86

First-degree heart block is characterized by

prolonged PR interval.

87

The nurse provides teaching regarding dietary intake of potassium to avoid an electrolyte imbalance when a patient

has chronic heart failure that is treated with diuretics

88

Clinical manifestations of severe symptomatic hypophosphatemia are caused by

deficiency of ATP.

89

Patent ductus arteriosus is accurately described as a(n)

communication between the aorta and the pulmonary artery.

90

When a parent asks how they will know if their 2-month-old baby, who is throwing up and has frequent diarrhea, is dehydrated, the nurse’s best response is

“If the soft spot on the top of his head feels sunken in and his mouth is dry between his cheek and his gums, then he is probably dehydrated.”

91

Individuals who have chronic bronchitis most often have

a productive cough.

92

Red blood cells differ from other cell types in the body, because they

have no cytoplasmic organelles.

93

Metabolic alkalosis is often accompanied by

hypokalemia.

94

Decreased neuromuscular excitability is often the result of

hypercalcemia and hypermagnesemia.

95

A 58-year-old woman is seen in the clinic for reports of severe back pain. Her chest x-ray demonstrates generalized bone demineralization and compression fracture. Blood studies demonstrate elevated calcium levels. The most likely diagnosis is

myeloma.

96

Lactated Ringer solution and normal saline are commonly used crystalloid solutions that contain electrolytes.

True

97

Clinical manifestations of chronic arterial obstruction include

intermittent claudication

98

A patient has a history of falls, syncope, dizziness, and blurred vision. The patient’s symptomology is most likely related to

hypotension

99

A 5-year-old patient’s parents report loss of appetite and fatigue in their child. The parents also state that the child refuses to walk as a result of pain. The child’s most likely diagnosis is

ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)

100

Increased preload of the cardiac chambers may lead to which patient symptom?

Edema