Pharm final ch 3, 5 Flashcards


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1

. A hospital pharmacy is known as a:
a. closed-door pharmacy.
b. inpatient pharmacy.
c. institutional pharmacy.
d. all of the above.

b. inpatient pharmacy.

2

PTCB requirements for continuing education (CE) hours for pharmacy technicians include:
a. thirty (30) credits every 2 years.
b. one credit must be in pharmacy law, and one must be in medication and patient safety.
c. one credit must be in pharmacy law, and one must be in counseling techniques.
d. A and B.

b. one credit must be in pharmacy law, and one must be in medication and patient safety.

3

Who oversees the State Boards of Pharmacy (BOPs)?
a. American Pharmacists Association (APhA)
b. American Society of Health-System Pharmacists (ASHP)
c. National Association of Boards of Pharmacy (NABP)
d. Pharmacy Technician Certification Board (PTCB)

c. National Association of Boards of Pharmacy (NABP)

4

6. Which one of the following tasks is not considered a non-discretionary duty for a pharmacy technician?
a. Managing the inventory
b. Counseling patients
c. Billing
d. Stocking shelves

b.Counseling patients

5

Which one of the following difficult tasks is usually needed more as an outpatient technician?
a. Intravenous (IV) preparation
b. Knowledge of medications
c. Good communication skills

d. B and C

c. Good communication skills

6

. Which of the following is (are) true concerning closed door pharmacies?
a. Closed-door pharmacies are not open to the public.
b. They deliver medications.
c. Closed-door pharmacies service long-term care facilities.
d. All of the above statements are true.

d. All of the above statements are true.

7

. Which organization is the leader in providing course objective for pharmacy technicians?
a. APhA
b. ASHP
c. NHA
d. PTCB

b. ASHP

8

All of the following statements are true about the Pharmacy Technician Certification Examination (PTCE) except:
a. the PTCE consists of 90 multiple choice questions.
b. the PTCE is a 2-hour process.
c. all math is performed without a calculator.
d. the PTCE is a computer-based examination.

c. all math is performed without a calculator.

9

Which certification examination for pharmacy technicians is accepted in all 50 states?
a. ExCPT
b. PTCE
c. BOP
d. Both A and B

c. BOP

10

Which organization offers specialty certification programs for pharmacy technicians who want to enhance their skills and marketability?
a. Pharmacy Technician Certification Board (PTCB)
b. National Association of Chain Drug Stores (NACDS)
c. American Society of Health-System Pharmacists (ASHP)
d. National Pharmacy Technician Association (NPTA)

d. National Pharmacy Technician Association (NPTA)

11

Which of the following organizations provide career opportunities for pharmacy technicians?
a. Hospital, retail, and long-term care pharmacies
b. Prisons
c. Insurance and software companies
d. All of the above

d. All of the above

12

A stat dose needs to be delivered within ____ minutes.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20

c. 15

13

All of the following are considered non-traditional jobs for pharmacy technicians except:
a. poison control call center operator.
b. nuclear pharmacy technician.
c. inpatient pharmacy technician.
d. director or instructor of a pharmacy technician training program.

c. inpatient pharmacy technician.

14

What does a CE with the letter “T” and the number “05” next to the course indicate?
a. Designed for technicians
b. Worth five CE credits
c. Concerns patient safety
d. Both A and C

d. Both A and C

15

. A good resume should always:
a. Be approximately one page long
b. Contain a long list of references
c. Focus on educational experience
d. All of the above

a. Be approximately one page long

16

The National Healthcareer Association (NHA):
a. Administers the ExCPT examination
b. Administers the PTCE
c. Writes questions for the PTCE
d. Scores the PTCE

a. Administers the ExCPT examination

17

The PTCB requires that a pharmacy technician complete one CPE in __________ when renewing their PTCB certification.
a. communication
b. medication/patient safety
c. pharmacology
d. pharmacy calculation

b. medication/patient safety

18

Which pharmacy setting would find a pharmacy technician preparing hyperalimentation products?
a. Closed-door pharmacy
b. Inpatient pharmacy
c. Mail order pharmacy
d. Outpatient pharmacy

b. Inpatient pharmacy

19

The “Do Not Use List” provided by The Joint Commission (TJC) outlines:
a. Medications that physicians should use only as a last resort
b. Medications that need prior approval before being prescribed
c. Commonly misinterpreted medical abbreviations
d. Medication abbreviations that physicians are not permitted to use

c. Commonly misinterpreted medical abbreviations

20

Which factors influence manufacturers’ choices of dosage forms?
a. Desired speed of release and action
b. Target age of the patient
c. Metabolism of the drug
d. All of the above

d. All of the above

21

The three major broad categories of dosage forms are:
a. Capsules, tablets, and liquids
b. Solids, semisolids, and liquids
c. Oral, topical, and IV
d. Extended release, liquids, and tablets

b. Solids, semisolids, and liquids

22

Some tablets are enteric coated to:
a. Delay disintegration until the tablets are through the alkaline environment of the stomach
b. Make the tablets easier to swallow
c. Avoid the release of the medication in the stomach, which could be irritating
d. Accomplish all of the above

c. Avoid the release of the medication in the stomach, which could be irritating

23

A dosage that can be safely split in half is a(n):
a. Delayed-release tablet
b. Capsule
c. Enteric-coated tablet
d. Scored tablet

d. Scored tablet

24

Caplet refers to a(n):
a. Little capsule
b. Different-shaped tablet
c. Easy-to-swallow form of tablet
d. B and C

d. B and C

25

Which of the following is not a type of capsule?
a. Gelatin
b. Pulvule
c. Caplet
d. Spansule

c. Caplet

26

Which of the following abbreviations does not refer to releasing medication over an extended period?
a. IR
b. SA
c. SR
d. XR

a. IR

27

What is the recommended abbreviation for subcutaneous administration?
a. SubQ
b. SQ
c. SC
d. SUBCUT

d. SUBCUT

28

SSRI means:
a. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
b. Sliding scale regular insulin
c. Selective serotonin regulation injection
d. A and B

d. A and B

29

In which of the following dosage forms are medications often aimed at a local action in the mouth or throat?
a. Sublingual tablets
b. Ointments
c. Lozenges and troches
d. A and C

c. Lozenges and troches

30

Transdermal medication patches:
a. Are easily administered
b. Should be folded in half with the sticky parts together before disposing
c. Are void of medication once they are removed
d. A and B

d. A and B

31

Which of the following liquids always contain alcohol?
a. Syrup
b. Suspension
c. Elixir
d. Spray

c. Elixir

32

Syrups contain water and ______ with dissolved medications.
a. alcohol
b. sugar
c. calcium
d. potassium

b. sugar

33

MDI stands for:
a. Measured dose inhaler
b. Measured drug inhaler
c. Metered drug inhaler
d. Metered dose inhaler

d. Metered dose inhaler

34

HFA:
a. Is the abbreviation for hydrofluoroalkane
b. Replaced chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) in inhalers in 2009
c. Is more expensive than CFC
d. All of the above statements are true

d. All of the above statements are true

35

What can be added to a mixture of water and oil to bind them together in a medication base?
a. Flavoring
b. Coloring
c. Emulsifier
d. Mixer

c. Emulsifier

36

An example of an evacuation enema is:
a. Diazepam gel (Diastat) for seizures
b. Antiinflammatory for ulcerative colitis
c. Fleet Enema for constipation
d. A and C

c. Fleet Enema for constipation

37

__________ are a topical preparation that is designed to absorb secretions.
a. Gels
b. Creams
c. Ointments
d. Pastes

d. Pastes

38

Rectal suppositories act _______ when they are used for nausea and vomiting.
a. locally
b. systemically
c. topically
d. A and C

b. systemically

39

PO is the abbreviation for:
a. By mouth
b. Parenterally
c. Topically
d. Rectally

a. By mouth

40

What is an advantage of the IV route of administration?
a. Fast onset of action
b. Low cost
c. Ease of preparation and administration
d. Little or no time to counteract an overdose

a. Fast onset of action

41

What is the meaning of ADME?
a. Absorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination
b. Administration, distribution, metabolism, and excretion
c. Absorption, delivery, metabolism, and elimination
d. Absorption, delivery, metabolism, and excretion

a. Absorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination

42

The primary site of drug metabolism in the human body is:
a. Kidneys
b. Liver
c. Pancreas
d. Blood

b. Liver

43

Half-life refers to the time it takes for the:
a. Body to break down and excrete one half of the medication
b. Body to absorb one half of the dose
c. Plasma concentration of the medication to decrease by 50%
d. A and C

d. A and C

44

37. Which of the following are ways a drug may be eliminated from the body?
a. Urine and feces
b. Sweat
c. Breast milk
d. All of the above

d. All of the above

45

Which of the following routes of administration have 100% bioavailability?
a. Intramuscular (IM)
b. IV
c. SUBCUT
d. B and C

ANS: B

b. IV

46

All of the following are excipients except:
a. Fillers
b. Preservatives
c. Flavorings
d. Active ingredients

d. Active ingredients

47

Which term refers to the proportion of the drug that is delivered to its destination and is available to the site of action for which it was intended?
a. Bioavailability
b. Bioequivalence
c. Pharmacodynamics
d. Pharmacokinetics

a. Bioavailability

48

Pharmacies that compound medications must comply with __________ __________.
a. FDA standards
b. NABP standards
c. USP monographs
d. USP <797>

ANS: C

c. USP monographs

49

__________ contain medication in a glycol or oil base, such as petrolatum.
a. Cream
b. Lotion
c. Ointment
d. Paste

c. Ointment