1) In eukaryotic cells, chromosomes are composed of _____.
A) DNA and RNA
B) DNA only
C) DNA and proteins
D) DNA and phospholipids
2) What is the final result of mitosis in a human?
A) genetically identical 2n somatic cells
B) genetically different 2n somatic cells
C) genetically identical 1n somatic cells
D) genetically identical 2n gamete cells
3) Starting with a fertilized egg (zygote), a series of five cell
divisions would produce an early embryo with how many cells?
4) If there are 20 duplicated chromosomes in a cell, how many
centromeres are there? A) 10
5) Scientists isolate cells in various phases of the cell cycle. They find a group of cells that have 1.5 times more DNA than G1 phase cells. The cells of this group are _____.
A) between the G1 and S phases in the cell cycle
B) in the G2 phase of the cell cycle
C) in the M phase of the cell cycle
D) in the S phase of the cell cycle
6) The first gap in the cell cycle (G1) corresponds to _____.
A) normal growth and cell function
B) the phase in which DNA is being replicated
C) the beginning of mitosis
D) the phase between DNA replication and the M phase
7) The microtubule-organizing center found in animal cells is an
identifiable structure present during all phases of the cell cycle.
Specifically, it is known as the _____.
8) In human and many other eukaryotic species' cells, the nuclear
membrane has to disappear to permit _____.
B) the attachment of microtubules to kinetochores
C) the splitting of the centrosomes
D) the disassembly of the nucleolus
9) The mitotic spindle is a microtubular structure that is involved in _____.
A) splitting of the cell (cytokinesis) following mitosis
B) triggering the compaction and condensation of chromosomes
C) dissolving the nuclear membrane
D) separation of sister chromatids
10) Metaphase is characterized by _____.
A) aligning of chromosomes on the equator
B) splitting of the centromeres
D) separation of sister chromatids
11) Kinetochore microtubules assist in the process of splitting centromeres by _____.
A) using motor proteins to split the centromere at specific arginine
B) creating tension by pulling toward opposite poles
C) sliding past each other like actin filaments
D) phosphorylating the centromere, thereby changing its conformation
12) Some cells have several nuclei per cell. How could such multinucleated cells be explained?
A) The cell underwent repeated cytokinesis but no mitosis.
B) The cell underwent repeated mitosis with simultaneous cytokinesis.
C) The cell underwent repeated mitosis, but cytokinesis did not occur.
D) The cell had multiple S phases before it entered mitosis.
13) How is plant cell cytokinesis different from animal cell
A) The contractile filaments found in plant cells are structures composed of carbohydrates; the cleavage furrow in animal cells is composed of contractile phospholipids.
B) Plant cells deposit vesicles containing cell-wall building blocks on the metaphase plate; animal cells form a cleavage furrow.
C) The structural proteins of plant cells separate the two cells; in animal cells, a cell membrane separates the two daughter cells.
D) Plant cells divide after metaphase but before anaphase; animal cells divide after anaphase.
15) At which phase are centrioles beginning to move apart in animal cells?
18) Which of the following are primarily responsible for cytokinesis
in plant cells but not in animal cells?
B) Golgi-derived vesicles
C) actin and myosin
D) centrioles and centromeres
19) Movement of the chromosomes during anaphase would be most
affected by a drug that prevents _____.
A) nuclear envelope breakdown
B) elongation of microtubules
C) shortening of microtubules
D) formation of a cleavage furrow
21) A group of cells is assayed for DNA content immediately following mitosis and is found to have an average of 8 picograms of DNA per nucleus. How many picograms would be found at the end of S and the end of G2?
A) 8; 8
B) 8; 16
C) 16; 8
D) 16; 16
22) The beginning of anaphase is indicated by which of the following?
A) Chromatids lose their kinetochores.
B) Cohesin attaches the sister chromatids to each other.
C) Cohesin is cleaved enzymatically.
D) Spindle microtubules begin to polymerize.
23) During which phase of mitosis do the chromatids become chromosomes?
24) A cleavage furrow is _____.
A) a ring of vesicles forming a cell plate
B) the separation of divided prokaryotes
C) a groove in the plasma membrane between daughter nuclei
D) the space that is created between two chromatids during anaphase
Several organisms, primarily protists, have what are called intermediate mitotic organization.
32) These protists are intermediate in what sense?
A) They reproduce by binary fission in their early stages of development and by mitosis when they are mature.
B) They use mitotic division but only have circular chromosomes.
C) They maintain a nuclear envelope during division.
D) None of them form spindles.
Nucleotides can be radiolabeled before they are incorporated into newly forming DNA and, therefore, can be assayed to track their incorporation. In a set of experiments, a student—faculty research team used labeled T nucleotides and introduced these into the culture of dividing human cells at specific times.
35) The research team used their experiments to study the
incorporation of labeled nucleotides into a culture of lymphocytes and
found that the lymphocytes incorporated the labeled nucleotide at a
significantly higher level after a pathogen was introduced into the
culture. They concluded that _____.
A) the presence of the pathogen made the experiments too contaminated to trust the results
B) infection causes lymphocytes to divide more rapidly
C) infection causes cell cultures in general to reproduce more rapidly
D) infection causes lymphocyte cultures to skip some parts of the cell cycle
38) The drug cytochalasin B blocks the function of actin. Which of
the following aspects of the cell cycle would be most disrupted by
A) spindle formation
B) spindle attachment to kinetochores
C) cell elongation during anaphase
D) cleavage furrow formation and cytokinesis
39) Motor proteins require which of the following to function in the
movement of chromosomes toward the poles of the mitotic
A) intact centromeres
B) a microtubule-organizing center
C) ATP as an energy source
D) synthesis of cohesin
42) MPF is a dimer consisting of _____.
A) a growth factor and mitotic factor
B) ATP synthetase and a protease
C) cyclin and tubulin
D) cyclin and a cyclin-dependent kinase
43) Cyclin-dependent kinase (Cdk) is _____.
A) inactive, or "turned off," in the presence of cyclin
B) present only during the S phase of the cell cycle
C) the enzyme that catalyzes the attachment of chromosomes to microtubules
D) an enzyme that attaches phosphate groups to other proteins
44) What happens if MPF (mitosis-promoting factor) is introduced into immature frog oocytes that are arrested in G2?
A) Nothing happens.
B) The cells undergo meiosis.
C) The cells enter mitosis.
D) Cell differentiation is triggered.
46) The M-phase checkpoint ensures that all chromosomes are attached
to the mitotic spindle. If this does not happen, cells would most
likely be arrested in _____.
47) Which of the following is released by platelets in the vicinity of an injury?
48) Which of the following is a protein synthesized at specific times
during the cell cycle that associates with a kinase to form a
catalytically active complex?
50) Which of the following triggers the cell's passage past the G2 checkpoint into mitosis? A) PDGF
53) Density-dependent inhibition is explained by which of the
A) As cells become more numerous, they begin to squeeze against each other, restricting their size and ability to produce control factors.
B) As cells become more numerous, the cell surface proteins of one cell contact the adjoining cells and they stop dividing.
C) As cells become more numerous, the protein kinases they produce begin to compete with each other, such that the proteins produced by one cell essentially cancel those produced by its neighbor.
D) As cells become more numerous, the level of waste products increases, eventually slowing down metabolism.
56) A research team began a study of a cultured cell line. Their
preliminary observations showed them that the cell line did not
exhibit either density-dependent inhibition or anchorage dependence.
What could they conclude right away?
A) The cells are unable to form spindle microtubules.
B) They have altered the series of cell cycle phases.
C) The cells show characteristics of tumors.
D) They were originally derived from an elderly organism.
58) Cells from advanced malignant tumors often have very abnormal
chromosomes and an abnormal number of chromosomes. What might explain
the association between malignant tumors and chromosomal
A) Cancer cells are no longer density-dependent.
B) Cancer cells are no longer anchorage-dependent.
C) Cell cycle checkpoints are not in place to stop cells with chromosome abnormalities.
D) Transformation introduces new chromosomes into cells.
60) Density-dependent inhibition is a phenomenon in which crowded cells stop dividing at some optimal density and location. This phenomenon involves binding of a cell-surface protein to its counterpart on an adjoining cell's surface. A growth inhibiting signal is sent to both cells, preventing them from dividing. Certain external physical factors can affect this inhibition mechanism.
Select the statement that makes a correct prediction about natural
phenomena that could occur during the cell cycle to prevent cell
A) As cells become more numerous, they begin to squeeze against each other, restricting their size and ability to allow cell growth.
B) As cells become more numerous, the protein kinases they produce
begin to compete with each other until only one cell has the proteins
necessary for growth.
C) As cells become more numerous, the amount of required growth factors and nutrients per cell becomes insufficient to allow for cell growth.
D) As cells become more numerous, more and more of them enter the synthesis part of the cell cycle and duplicate DNA to inhibit cell growth.