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1

(001) What is outlined in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 36–2101, Classifying Military Personnel (Officer and Enlisted)?

b. Duties and responsibilities for each Air Force career field or specialty.

2

2. (001) Materiel management specialists are not responsible for

directing policy and guidance for career field

3

The purpose of the Air Force Logistics Career Broadening Program is to promote a better understanding of the whole materiel management system through the cross-utilization of training, knowledge, experience, and

perspectives

4

To be eligible for the Logistics Career Broadening Program, you must be a technical sergeant or master sergeant with less than how many years of time-in-service?

15

5

What two organizations provide wholesale logistics experience for selected materiel management noncommissioned officers (NCO)?

defense logistics agency (DLA) and AFMC

6

Which Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century (eLog21) effect ensures logistics decisions are made and actions are taken with an understanding of their impact across the entire Air Force?

one: enterprise view

7

In support of the Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century’s (eLog21) Integrated Processes, which is not a resource?

technology

8

Which source of supply provides wholesale support to all government agencies?

general services administration (GSA)

9

Local manufacture is a term that describes an item

fabricated by a maintenance activity on base

10

Which section gives maintenance repair functions in a single facility?

centralized repair facility (CRF)

11

Who serves as the primary point of contact for interfacing with the Air Force Sustainment Center (AFSC) on behalf of maintenance customers?

decentralized materiel support (DMS)

12

Who is required to notify the flightline expediter of all back ordered parts in accordance with AFI 21–101?

decentralized materiel support (DMS)

13

Which references govern the Repair Network Integration (RNI) process?

AFI 20-117 and AFMAN 20-118

14

(005) What best describes supply Class I items?

subsistence

15

(005) Which class of supply includes weapons?

2

16

(005) Which class of supply consists of ammunition?

5

17

What best describes supply Class III items?

petroleum, oil, and lubricants. (POL)

18

What best describes supply Class VI items?

personal demand items

19

Which class of supply consists of major end items?

7

20

Which class of supply consists of medical materiel?

8

21

What best describes supply Class X items?

material to support nonmilitary programs

22

What provides a unique framework that links performance metrics, processes, best practices, and people into a unified structure?

supply-chain operations reference (SCOR)

23

Which specialized center is the hub for the integration and management of maintenance/supply chain capabilities?

air force sustainment center

24

The Air Force Sustainment Center’s (AFSC) mission is to

sustain weapon system readiness to generate airpower for America

25

How many primary subordinate units (PSU) make up the foundation of the Air Force Installation & Mission Support Center (AFIMSC)?

6

26

Which maintenance process updates various basic and support records, such as item records, routing identifier records, and warehouse locations?

miscellaneous file maintenance

27

Which type of reports provide information about the overall management of the supply system?

daily

28

Which Department of Defense (DOD) publication implements requirements and procedures for materiel managers and others who work within the supply system?

4140.01,DOD supply chain materiel management procedures

29

The Defense Logistics Manual (DLM) 4000.25, Defense Logistics Management Standards, does not pertain to which functional area?

safety

30

What process governs logistics functional business management standards and practices?

defense logistics management standards

31

Which key on a keyboard do you press after typing in a word or phrase using the Find tool for research?

enter

32

What two entities make up the national stock number (NSN)?

federal supply classification (FSC) and NIIN

33

How many major types of inquiries are there in the materiel management system?

4

34

Which code on an item record inquiry in the materiel management system is used to obtain specific information?

record retrieval

35

Which record retrieval code in the materiel management system gives you the transaction history when processing an inquiry?

4

36

What information prints out after processing an item record inquiry?

data element names

37

What releveling flag is used on a requirements computation inquiry in the materiel management system to provide a summary of information about a given stock number?

R

38

Users can query the materiel management computer system consolidated transaction history (CTH) records as far back as

one year or more

39

Under the consolidated transaction history (CTH) system, which type inquiry allows you to select records using the national stock number (NSN) and transaction date?

stock number

40

Who is responsible for ensuring all rejects are corrected from computer records?

flight chief

41

Which chapter in Air Force Handbook (AFH) 23–123, Materiel Management Handbook, Volume 2, Part 2, identifies the action required to correct the materiel management system’s rejects created during processing?

seven

42

What letters, preceding the management code and phrase, readily identifies management notices?

MGT

43

Which product of the materiel management system is used to ensure rejects are processed in a timely manner?

D818

44

What listing shows all force-deleted rejects processed through the reject processor program?

D20

45

Which individual must ensure force deletions from the reject processor program are processed for valid reasons only?

flight chief

46

Who, in coordination with the flight chief, determines who will process controlled transaction identification codes (TRIC) and informs the computer operations terminal security manager which controlled TRICs each user identification (user ID) is authorized to process?

terminal security monitors

47

Who is responsible for reviewing Part 8 of the D20 when an unauthorized user attempts to process a controlled transaction identification codes (TRIC)?

logistics manager

48

The annotated forecast listing of all computer requirements is returned to the computer room production scheduler by which workday of the same month it is received?

15th

49

The operating principle of no-profit/no-loss best describes the

supply management activity group-retail (SMAG-R)

50

When the cost of an item is transferred from the customer’s funds into the Supply Management Activity Group-Retail (SMAG-R) account, what type of fund is created?

revolving

51

Which is not a division within the Supply Management Activity Group-Retail (SMAG-R)?

air force working capital fund (AFWCF)

52

Which item falls under the scope of the Consolidated Sustainment Activity Group-Supply (CSAG-S)?

`wholesale-managed items

53

The quality assurance (QA) program helps identify any area, program, or equipment and system that is not compliant with

standards

54

Which section has oversight of the self-inspection program?

quality assurance

55

Who selects highly experienced materiel management personnel for customer support visits?

logistics readiness squadron (LRS) leadership

56

When the materiel management system does not process or update transactions as it should, which Air Force form is used to report the problem?

1815, difficulty report (DIREP) worksheet

57

Which activity within the Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) supply chain management –retail (SCM-R) community is responsible for submitting, controlling, and monitoring difficulty reports?

quality assurance

58

A category III difficulty report does not stop computer system processing and is corrected

in the next scheduled release

59

Which analysis method do you use most often for recurring reports or for comparing statistical data with standards and norms?

trend analysis

60

Which analysis method do you use most often to satisfy a one-time requirement or solve a specific problem?

special studies

61

Who works with logistics readiness squadron (LRS) quality assurance (QA) to develop local programs for solving problems identified by management?

training

62

What section of the materiel management analysis program is tasked with assigning meaning to raw data and providing information that can be used to determine the account’s effectiveness?

quality assurance

63

What is used to help logistics readiness squadron (LRS) leadership know what an organization has done in the past and how it is doing at the present before directing future efforts?

analysis

64

Which is not an example of a source document?

reports

65

Which is not required when comparing information between the document control record (DCR) and source document?

nomenclature

66

How often does document control perform a validation of who is authorized to receipt for classified property?

semiannually

67

What type of materiel management source documents are not placed in a permanent document file?

source documents with file indicator D

68

How long are transactions retained when documents are processed through the materiel management automated tracking system?

75 month

69

When does a document become delinquent after processing the information from the document control record (DCR) document?

6th calendar day

70

How often does document control hold a meeting to discuss document delinquent status?

daily

71

Which materiel management register may be prepared to replace the Daily Transaction Register (D06)?

consolidated transaction (M 19)

72

Which materiel management register lists information from the transactions stored in the daily transaction history area of the materiel management database?

daily document control

73

The Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document (IAD) Register (M10) must contain an entry for each adjustment transaction appearing on what two registers?

D04 and D06

74

What is the purpose of the Shipment-Suspense Program?

ensure an item has been shipped

75

All shipments and transfers processed through the logistics readiness squadron (LRS) produce what type of detail?

shipment-suspense or shipped not credited

76

Which transaction identification code is used to update the shipment-suspense detail?

SSC

77

Which listing is used to manage delinquent shipment suspense details?

R40

78

Which transaction identification code is used for an automated reverse-post (RVP) transaction?

1AM

79

What information is required to process an automated reverse-post (RVP) input?

transaction serial number, TTPC, and date

80

The materiel management system uses which issue request code to select the correct internal program to process an input transaction?

.Transaction identification code (TRIC).

81

What one-position alpha code is used to indicate how the materiel management system accumulates demand data for stock leveling and due-in from maintenance (DIFM) control?

Demand code

82

Organizations may identify their issue requests to base supply using either a

stock number or part number

83

What letter is entered in position 8 on the AF Form 2005 for a part number request?

P

84

What is the next step in the ordering process after gathering and documenting data on the AF Form 2005?

enter data into materiel management system

85

What may be produced after processing an order request that notifies further actions are required?

management notice

86

Which management notice is the result of issue processing and reflects issue, kill, or backorder quantity status?

I004

87

An I007 management notice is produced when a

part number request cannot be converted to a stock number under program control

88

What transaction exception code is used to reprocess an issue request when the customer requests a backorder?

M

89

Which base-wide organization uses the Integrated Maintenance Data System Central Database (IMDS CDB) to interface with materiel management system?

maintenance

90

What materiel management system output notifies the Integrated Maintenance Data System Central Database (IMDS CDB) of changes in due-out status?

1SH

91

When the materiel management system detects an Integrated Maintenance Data System Central Database (IMDS CDB) transaction error, the image is

returned to IMDS CDB

92

What Air Force Sustainment Center (AFSC) entity is responsible for mission capable (MICAP) management?

Air Force Materiel Command Supply Chain Management-Retail (AFMC SCM-R) Weapon System Support Activity (WSSA).

93

When spares support is required, the Air Force Materiel Command Supply Chain Management-Retail (AFMC SCM-R) Weapon System Support Activity (WSSA) is the primary interface for the

LRS

94

What response is sent to the materiel management computer system when a mission capable (MICAP) requisition is transmitted to the source of supply when assets are immediately available?

positive status

95

Who confirms an end-item is not mission capable and verifies all local resources are exhausted prior to submitting a MICAP request?

Logistics readiness squadron (LRS) base level

96

Who will the aircraft parts store (APS) or customer support liaison contact to verify a mission capable (MICAP) condition exists?

.Maintenance production superintendent

97

What information needs to be aggressively monitored and updated on a mission capability (MICAP) requirement?

Status.

98

What mission capability (MICAP) report (DIC B9*) code identifies the reason for terminating a MICAP condition?

Delete.

99

What is processed in the materiel management system to satisfy a mission capability (MICAP) condition and allow MICAP reporting to be initiated?

Due-in.

100

What transaction can be processed on an existing requisition that will initiate mission capability (MICAP) reporting?

Upgrade.

101

What output is produced to report the applicable change of a mission capable (MICAP) condition each time transaction NOR is processed?

MICAP report (B9*).

102

Y-type details are internally established and maintained in the supply computer for how many days after a mission capability (MICAP) termination?

90

103

What transaction identification code (TRIC) is processed to end the repair cycle process?

TIn

104

Which activity is responsible for providing repair cycle support with new status and location for a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) detail?

maintenance

105

What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to process the updated status and location for a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) record?

DFM

106

Which listing is used to perform the due-in from maintenance (DIFM) reconciliation?

D23

107

What is the purpose of performing a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) reconciliation between the logistics readiness squadron (LRS) and the maintenance activities?

Ensure maintenance activities physically have all the DIFM items.

108

Within how many duty days from the date of issue will a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) item that was not inducted into maintenance repair be returned to the LRS?

4

109

How are time compliance technical order (TCTO) items identified on the item record?

numeric parts preference code (NPPC) 4

110

What condition tag is used to label a time compliance technical order (TCTO) item that was modified and returned from the maintenance function?

.DD Form 1574 (Yellow tag)

111

What is entered in the “remarks” block of the DD Form 1574 (yellow tag)?

Time compliance technical order (TCTO) number.

112

What code is used on a turn-in request for DIFM item indicating what actions were taken by maintenance and logistics readiness squadron (LRS)/materiel management activity?

.Action taken.

113

Which action taken code indicates an item is condemned?

9

114

What will the materiel management information technology system scan for in its internal records after an item was repaired and turned in as serviceable?

due-out

115

Where are serviceable condition returns forwarded after a “notice to stock” document is received?

appropriate storage facility

116

What is produced after processing an unserviceable turn-in for an asset that cannot be repaired at base level?

shipment document

117

Time change assets are replaced on what type of schedule?

Calendar or hourly

118

Who appoints the time change manager?

Materiel management flight chief or equivalent.

119

Failure to process turnaround (TRN) data in a correct and timely manner results in reduced base stock levels and incomplete reports from which buy, repair, and distribution decisions are made by

Headquarters Air Force Materiel Command (HQ AFMC).

120

Which update is prepared and processed by repair cycle support (RCS) to update demand data on the item record and repair cycle data on the repair cycle record?

Turnaround.

121

Where does Supply obtain data used to process turnaround transactions?

.Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 350, Reparable Item Processing Tag.

122

Which management notice is produced reflecting stock awaiting disposition instructions after an unserviceable turn-in process?

.I012

123

What transaction identification code (TRIC) is not an option for processing after dispositions instructions for an unserviceable asset has been received?

ISU

124

Who maintains ownership of supply point assets until they are used?

LRS

125

Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load, change, or delete supply point details?

FSP

126

Which listing is used to verify balances during a supply point reconciliation?

Q13

127

What transaction identifier code (TRIC) is processed when the on-hand quantity is less than the authorized quantity after a supply point reconciliation?

ISU

128

Who will continuously monitor requirements supporting Air Force war plans and ensure the validity of all war reserve materiel (WRM) requirements?

MAJCOMs.

129

Who is responsible for physical materiel handling, receiving, storing, and processing of war reserve materiel (WRM) shipment requests?

Bases

130

Which Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) system includes facilities, equipment, and supplies necessary to establish and support aircraft flight-related operations and maintenance activities for an initial aircraft squadron deployed to a bare base location?

Initial flightline.

131

Which Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) system includes facilities, equipment, and supplies necessary to establish and support flight operations and maintenance needs for a second and subsequent squadrons deployed to an austere base?

Follow-on flightline.

132

Mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) assets are designed to allow support of a weapon system in a deployed location for how many days before resupply is necessary?

60

133

Who will authorize allocation of readiness spares packages (RSP) to specific units/bases?

MAJCOM

134

What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load the serial number/control record for readiness spares package (RSP) authorizations?

1EB

135

In the master file, what format is readiness spares package (RSP) data authorization input records received from the major command (MAJCOM)?

XVF

136

What program performs the readiness spares package (RSP) reconciliation?

S05

137

What process involves shelf life controls and other inspection functions for readiness spares package (RSP) assets?

Care of supplies in storage (COSIS).

138

What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to issue mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) assets to users?

MSI.

139

What asset status flag reflects mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) assets are deployed?

D

140

The decision to transfer mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) accountability rests with the host and the

gaining major command (MAJCOM).

141

What transaction identification code (TRIC) do you use to transfer mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) accountability?

1WD.

142

What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to transfer assets between mobility readiness spares packages (MRSP) and war reserve materiel (WRM) detail records?

1KT.

143

What action code is used when transferring multiple quantities from a mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) or war reserve materiel (WRM) detail record?

M

144

Which current listing/listings must be obtained prior to shipping out readiness spares package (RSP) assets?

R43 and/or R52.

145

What wartime capability system is used to conduct wartime assessments?

Personal Computer-Aircraft Sustainability Model (PC-ASM).

146

What system is used to access the War Consumable Distribution Objective (WCDO)?

Logistics Feasibility Analysis Capability (LOGFAC).

147

Which listing provides a management product for special spares authorizations, assets, and products?

Special Spares Report (R34).

148

The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) is structured and executed under three principles transparency, predictability, and

equitability.

149

Which of the following identifies the first three positions of a materiel management unit type code (UTC)?

JFB

150

What system captures unit type code (UTC) assessments, identifies suitable UTCs to satisfy taskings, and helps forecast shortfalls?

Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) Unit Type Code (UTC) Reporting Tool (ART).

151

What code reflected in the operation plan (OPLAN) or time phased force deployment data (TPFDD) defines the number of passengers and/or amount of cargo that must be moved to meet a wartime tasking?

Unit type code (UTC).

152

What was established as the sole readiness reporting system for the Department of Defense?

Defense Readiness Reporting System (DRRS).

153

What section stores small arms for mobility use?

.Individual protective equipment element.

154

What number must be annotated on all documentation for small arms?

serial

155

What Air Force (AF) Form will requesting individuals provide prior to being issued a weapon?

AF form 522

156

Who must ensure that additional controls are exercised over all weapons movements, marshaling, and deployments at the deployed location?

.Accountable officer (AO) or commander.

157

At a minimum, how often are mobility assets inventoried?

.Annually.

158

Who performs warehouse validations prior to inventorying mobility assets?

Individual protective equipment personnel.

159

Which type mobility bag (MOBAG) contains cold weather equipment?

B

160

Which type mobility bag (MOBAG) contains chemical warfare defense equipment?

C

161

What is available to allow Individual Protective Equipment (IPE) element personnel to put away, redistribute, ship, and mange shipment discrepancies within Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S) Mobility?

.Mobility dashboards.

162

Shelf life assets are tracked in ES-S Mobility by

Contract/lot number

163

What is used to determine bulk stock requirements and are the basis for placing mobility stock orders based on mission support requirements?

Mobility shopping list.

164

Which function in Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S) Mobility gives Individual Protective Equipment (IPE) element personnel the ability to view and update customer information and manage assets currently in possession by customers?

Issue items.

165

Which capability gives Individual Protective Equipment (IPE) element personnel the ability to check stock availability that is either on hand in mobility warehouse locations or in the possession of mobility customers?

.Mobility data query.

166

What information is entered when returning mobility items through Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S) Mobility?What information is entered when returning mobility items through Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S) Mobility?

Electronic data interchange personal identifier (EDIPI).

167

What does Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S) Mobility asset management programmatically search for and detect in relation to gas masks?

Expired service life dates

168

Where are the equipment requests forwarded after being reviewed and validated by the equipment accountability element (EAE)?

AFMC SCM-R Equipment Activity

169

The selection of property custodians requires mutual agreement between the

equipment accountability element (EAE) and organization commanders.

170

What is used to determine which equipment items organizations are authorized to purchase and maintain?

.AS and configuration data

171

Which item describes the items and quantities of equipment Air Force activities and individuals normally require to carry out their mission?

Allowance standards (AS).

172

What element within an allowance standard (AS) establishes the number of items that can be issued to an individual, activity, or military organization?

.BOI.

173

Which expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCD) identifies nonequipment authorization inventory data (non-EAID) equipment items?

.NF1.

174

Which Air Force form is used to request a change to an allowance standard (AS) or to request an item that requires approval under miscellaneous allowance source code (ASC)?

601.

175

Which Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS) computer screen provides an automated method for submitting and evaluating allowance change requests?

TACR

176

Which FCI format within the Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS) is used to load, change, or delete equipment authorized/in-use details?

1

177

Which turn-in method to the logistics readiness squadron (LRS) is used to process the turnin before picking up the property?

Pre-degraded operations.

178

Which activity code is used to process non-equipment authorization inventory data (nonEAID) equipment turn-ins to the logistics readiness squadron (LRS)?

P

179

Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to transfer equipment from one custodian account to another?

FET.

180

Which management listing helps ensure that equipment authorizations are maintained within prescribed allowances?

Allowance source code (ASC) listing.

181

Which management listing is used to identify out-of-balance conditions?

Q10.

182

Which management listing provides visibility for high dollar value non-equipment authorization inventory data (non-EAID) items?

R15, Organizational visibility listing

183

Which system is used to globally distinguish one item from all other items that the Department of Defense (DOD) buys or owns?

Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS).

184

Who mandated the Item Unique Identification (IUID) compliance process for equipment assets with an acquisition cost of over $5,000?

Department of Defense (DOD).

185

Equipment accountability element (EAE) personnel use which method to conduct physical inventories?

Floor to book.

186

Who ensures chief financial officer (CFO) data is loaded in the applicable Materiel Management information technology system?

Equipment accountability element (EAE).

187

Which system is used to report any equipment item exceeding $100,000?

Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS).

188

Which special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM) asset categories are defined in the –21 technical order (TO)?

Maintenance and safety protection (MSP) equipment, AME, and CPS equipment.

189

Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load a special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM) detail?

1XA.

190

Which report provides a listing of all items authorized, on-hand, and due-out, for organizations authorized special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets?

. R25.

191

How often must you reconcile base weapons detail records with the central file at Warner Robins Air Logistics Complex (WR-ALC)?

annually

192

Who works hand-in-hand with the logistics readiness squadron (LRS) to support mission requirements?

Air Force Materiel Command Supply Chain Management-Retail (AFMC SCM-R) Stock Control Activity.

193

Which stock leveling term identifies the repair rate for the current and past four quarters?

. Average percent of base repair (PBR).

194

What stock leveling term represents the maximum quantity that should be on-hand or on order to sustain current operations?

Requisition objective (RO).

195

Which stock leveling term identifies quantities required to be on hand to permit continuous operation during minor interruptions of normal replenishment or unpredictable increases in demands?

. Safety level quantity (SLQ).

196

What must be established anytime stock is authorized for nonexpendable (equipment) items?

adjustment level

197

When one-for-one stock requisitioning is not needed, which adjusted minimum level should be used?

A

198

Which type of adjusted stock level (ASL) is assigned to an item to ensure the requisitioning objective remains constant and does not fluctuate due to demand patterns?

Fixed

199

Which materiel management system program is used to review and validate adjusted stock levels (ASL)?

r35

200

Which stock level is derived from a mathematical technique used to determine the lowest total variable costs to order and hold inventory?

Economic order quantity (EOQ).

201

Which materiel management system listing is used to identify a possible readiness-based level (RBL) misallocation?

R47.

202

Which technology enables logisticians to identify, categorize, and locate assets?

.Radio frequency identification (RFID).

203

What process has the overall goal to have the capability to provide users with timely and accurate information on the location, movement, status, and identity of units, personnel, equipment, materiel, and supplies?

Total asset visibility (TAV).

204

What document identification code (DIC) indicates a denial to a redistribution order (RDO) sent by Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) item managers (IM)?

B7*.

205

Which shipment exception (SEX) code is used for do not ship—assets frozen?

1

206

Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to process a special requisition (SPR)?

SPR

207

Program control uses which system to assign a requisition priority for each requisition?

Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS).

208

Who does the source of supply (SOS) owe an item to when a due-in detail is established after being requisitioned?

Requisitioning activity

209

What part of the due-in document identifies the base that placed the requisition?

.Address code.

210

How often are requisition exception (REX) codes reviewed and validated?

Semiannually.

211

Which requisition exception (REX) code is assigned under program control due to military standard requisitioning and issue procedures (MILSTRIP) status?

1.

212

Which code is assigned to the item record to indicate the source of supply (SOS) has cancelled a requisition?

REX1

213

Which type of military standard requisitioning and issue procedures (MILSTRIP) status results from out-of-stock conditions, new requirements, and other conditions that stop the supply source from filling the requisition exactly as it was requested?

Exception/other.

214

Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is processed to request an improved estimated availability date or estimated shipment date for priority 01–08 requisitions?

AFC

215

What reconciliation flag on the status detail record indicates that AFC action was taken to request improved status on a requisition?

C

216

Supply difficulty for Air Force-managed items is reported on Air Force Form

1667

217

Supply difficulty reports must be processed within how many calendar days?

7

218

Which listings are used to perform due-out review and validation?

.D18 and R01.

219

How often are urgency of need (UND) C due-outs validated?

monthly

220

Which transaction is processed to change various data elements on retail materiel management system due-in details?

Due-in/due-out (DIT).

221

What cancellation status code indicates that a due-in cancellation request was generated by off-line action?

ZC

222

How many days will local purchase (LP) items appear on the listing after the vendor bill is received and processed for billed-not-received (BNR) transactions?

7

223

Which detail is created by the materiel management system whenever a referral order is honored and a credit is given to the shipping base?

shipped not credited

224

Which interactive query screen in Web Federal Logistics Information System (WebFLIS) provides the option to select more or less information to include in a search?

Search Selection Menu.

225

Which search screen in Web Federal Logistics Information System (WebFLIS) allows users to locate manufacturer names for the code entered?

CAGE

226

Which system provides Air Force personnel with on-line cataloging, standardization, and other logistics management data for Air Force-managed or user items?

D043A

227

Illustrated parts breakdowns (IPB) are normally identified and published in

–4 series of technical orders (TO).

228

Which section of the illustrated parts breakdown (IPB) provides a sequential listing of all part numbers appearing in the IPB

Group assembly parts list

229

The transaction identification code (TRIC) FIL input establishes what type of record(s)?

Repair cycle and constant records.

230

An expendable item is identified by which code used in the first position of an expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost (ERRC) designator?

X

231

What transaction identification code (TRIC) establishes the part number record?

FIC or 1AA

232

What purpose does the part number detail record serve?

Automates the part number to stock number cross-reference file.

233

What noncataloged (NC) number position indicates which Air Logistics Complex (ALC) assigned the number?

position 7

234

Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to change the stock number; expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCD), equipment management code (EMC), routing identifier (RID), and budget code on the item record?

FCU

235

What is the maximum number of characters for the descriptive nomenclature field on the item record?

32

236

For internal records, what transaction identification code (TRIC) changes the unit price, unit of issue, and quantity unit pack (except for local purchase [LP] items) fields?

FID

237

What computer system provides interchangeable and substitute group (I&SG) information?

D043B

238

Which code identifies the order in which items within interchangeability and substitution grouping (I&SG) are substituted or issued?

order of use

239

What transaction identification code (TRIC) code is used to load, change, or delete interchangeable and substitution group (I&SG) items?

FIS

240

Who must justify in writing the request to load, change, or delete interchangeable and substitution group (I&SG) items?

Major command

241

Which item is not checked when off-loading property from a carrier?

Production date.

242

Who works with the in-checker to ensure items are correctly identified and the appropriate condition tags or labels are used on the assets?

Inspector

243

Which block of the AF Form 2005 will the inspector sign or stamp after the in-checker has signed and dated the form?

B

244

Which operation includes verifying identity, security classification, condition, status, markings, tagging, and labeling for property?

Inspection operations

245

Who is responsible for overseeing the Care of Supplies in Storage (COSIS) program?

Chief inspector

246

What three things are used to identify an item?

Reference number, stock number, and item description.

247

Which Department of Defense (DD) form is red and is used to identify property that is unserviceable and uneconomical to repair?

DD Form 1577, Unserviceable (Condemned) Tag.

248

Which Department of Defense (DD) form is red and is used to identify property that is unserviceable and uneconomical to repair?

Updates inspection data.

249

What transaction identification code (TRIC) is processed to initiate a condition change?

FCC

250

An organizational refusal would be a customer’s responsibility if the

customer failed to cancel the due-out.

251

Who schedules and accomplishes an aggressive surveillance inspection program of all items in storage?

Inspector

252

When is a supply discrepancy report (SDR) required?

Incorrect materiel, unacceptable substitutes, or duplicate shipments

253

Where are all unresolved supply discrepancy reports forwarded when additional help is needed?

Major command (MAJCOM).

254

(608) At what temperature must a refrigerated storage chill space be maintained?

Between 32 and 50°F.

255

At a minimum, how many feet must separate flammable storage facilities from other facilities?

50

256

What is a major disadvantage in the use of unimproved open storage?

Limited use of materiel handling equipment (MHE).

257

The basic resource of any materiel management and distribution operation is the

storage space

258

What must be planned before the actual start of the storage operation to assure the floor and cubic capacity of the warehouse will be used to the greatest extent possible?

Storage areas.

259

When you increase the amount of space for an item in a location to eliminate overflow into another item’s location, you are implementing what storage factor?

Item quantity

260

What is used to identify a bin subdivision in the warehouse location code 05C045F056D?

D

261

Warehouse stockrooms are sequenced from

left to right and front to rear

262

What letter or symbol is entered in the “Warehouse Location Delete Flag” field when deleting a warehouse location?

*

263

What item does the Air Force use to aid in inventory and warehouse validation?

Bar-coded labels.

264

Within how many workdays of the start of an inventory cycle should the storage activity complete scheduled validations?

10

265

How many days prior to the start of a warehouse validation is a warehouse location parameter input prepared?

1

266

What action is required prior to performing a validation to ensure a warehouse is in the best condition for an inventory?

Prepare the warehouse area.

267

What transaction identification code (TRIC) is processed to move property to the correct location?

. FCS.

268

The practice of storing items in a way that causes a loss of storage space is called

honeycombing.

269

Markings found on containers that do not apply to presently packaged materials need to be

obliterated.

270

Which transaction identification code (TRIC) identifies a warehouse change document for an indicative data change?

FIC

271

What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to manually transfer nondirected assets to the Defense Logistics Agency Disposition Services (DLADS)?

TRM

272

What routing identifier code (RIC) is processed with a special requisition when property is available in Defense Logistics Agency Disposition Services (DLADS)?

JBR

273

What is used to identify hazards and safety measures associated with a particular product?

Safety data sheet (SDS).

274

As a minimum, how often must a utility program be run to identify potentially hazardous item records that do not have an issue exception (IEX) code or health hazard flag (HHF) assigned?

Monthly

275

Flammable solids include chemicals that are solids at a minimum temperature of

100°F.

276

What type of material storage is best used for items such as pesticides, poisons, and certain batteries?

Low hazard

277

When chemical and petroleum products reach their retest dates, what transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to suspend the outdated materiel on an unserviceable detail and prevent reissue?

. FCC.

278

Hazardous disposal can generally be grouped into how many categories?

Two

279

Who is responsible for the costs of disposing of hazardous wastes?

Producing organization

280

Which class of storage vault is used for storing secret and confidential materiel?

B

281

Who is assigned as the installation Precious Metals Recovery Program (PMRP) manager/focal point for all matters concerning PMRP?

Materiel management flight chief inspector.

282

Who is responsible for transferring precious metals-bearing metals to the nearest Defense Logistics Agency Disposition Services (DLADS) facility?

Department of Defense (DOD) activity

283

As a minimum, how often must the combination on padlocks be changed for classified storage?

Annually

284

How are electronic sensitive devices (ESD) identified on the item record?

Type cargo code 3.

285

What transaction identification code (TRIC) and activity code are used to process an electronic sensitive device (ESD) item from a detail record to maintenance for testing?

MSI, C.

286

If required, who can open an electrostatic discharge (ESD) item package?

Materiel management inspector

287

What markings on an item provides proof that a functional check was done?

. Base maintenance inspector’s stamp/signature.

288

As a minimum, how often is a functional check listing produced?

. Semiannually

289

What type of shelf life coded item has a definite nonextendable shelf-life?

Type I.

290

How many days prior to the expiration date should type II shelf-life items be scheduled for serviceability testing?

15 to 45

291

What computer input is used to load a suspect materiel flag to an item record?

FCD with suspect flag S.

292

What is employed to determine how counterfeit/discrepant materiel was procured to prevent reoccurrence?

Risk-based approach

293

Which program reviews discrepant and suspected counterfeit materiel?

Joint Discrepancy Reporting System.

294

The information that must be annotated on the receiving document of a warranty or guaranty item is the serial number,

model, and manufacturer’s name

295

At a minimum, how frequently is the unserviceable storage area reviewed by storage personnel for validation purposes?

Daily

296

The inventory deadline date is the Julian date the actual count

begins.

297

Who ensures the warehouse does not remain closed to normal receipts and issues for an unreasonable length of time and that all backlog transactions are processed upon completion of the inventory?

Accountable officer

298

When inventory count images are input, the computer compares the record balance with the

physical count quantity.

299

When performing an inventory on an equipment account, which product is used to record the out-of-balance conditions?

Custodian authorization/custody receipt listing (CA/CRL) (R14).

300

What document is used to clear the “I” freeze code suspense file?

Annotated 1GP notice.

301

An automatic adjustment for a pilferable item occurs when the record balance does not agree with the recount quantity and the dollar value of the adjustment is less than

$100.

302

To indicate that additional research is needed, the modified recount image contains a research indicator of

. AR.

303

At a minimum, how often will an inventory analysis be performed?

Monthly.

304

Which listing has an intermediate inventory adjustment summary of the inventory analysis?

M10.

305

Who initiates the deficiency report process to include the deficient property at the time of turn-in?

Maintenance personnel.

306

Which document is an official report of facts and circumstances supporting assessment of financial liability for the loss, damage, or destruction of Air Force property?

Report of survey.

307

Which individual is appointed by the unit commander to accept custodial responsibility for government property under their control?

Property custodian.

308

Which concept mandates all personnel are essential to conserve, protect, and maintain available government systems, equipment and supplies for operational requirements?

Supply discipline

309

The expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCD) for bench stock items must be

XB3.

310

What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load the initial master bench stock details?

2BS.

311

Once the date of last demand has exceeded how many days are bench stock items recommended for deletion?

270.

312

Which product recommends items that qualify for addition to organizational bench stocks?

M04

313

How often must bench stock standard reporting designator (SRD) data and minimum reserve authorization (MRA) levels be validated?

Annually

314

Which principle of materiel handling obtains the greatest economy in moving materiel?

Least handling is the best handling

315

Which principle of materiel handling requires consideration of legal and physical restrictions concerning transportation?

Advanced planning.

316

What can increase productivity and utilization of warehouse space in addition to improving mission capability and enhancing safety?

Storage aids systems

317

Short-life reusable containers are expected to survive at least how many round-trips?

10

318

Which action makes cargo loading and unloading as fast and easy as possible?

Palletize.

319

Which element within the logistic readiness squadron (LRS) is responsible for providing secure storage for weapons?

Mobility.

320

What is defined as materiel that requires a high degree of protection and control due to statutory requirements or regulations?

Sensitive items.

321

Identification of persons authorized to accept controlled material is done according to

AFI 16–1404, Air Force Information Security Program

322

Who is responsible for training logistics readiness squadron (LRS) personnel who will handle controlled materiel?

Chief inspector.

323

Who will Air Force activities report to concerning all discrepancies involving classified items?

Security manager.

324

What color of ink is used to stamp or write “Classified Item” on copies of source documents for classified items?

Red

325

Who is responsible for the health of assigned items to meet mission requirements?

Item manager

326

Who accounts for threat reduction assets at both organic and contract repair facilities?

. Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) item management team

327

What item must be loaded in the Enterprise Solution–Supply (ES-S) system for all individuals who receive parts from the logistics readiness squadron (LRS)?

Customer record

328

Which report provides a snapshot of the effectiveness of meeting customer requirements with on-the-shelf assets?

Items Not Received by Customer

329

The intent of the Enterprise Asset Visibility (EVA) component is to provide complete visibility of Air Force

owned assets

330

What legacy systems can the Enterprise Solution–Supply (ES–S) query and view orders in?

Materiel Management System; D035A; D035K

331

In Enterprise Solution–Supply (ES–S), what are the three main areas of the Order Selection Page?

Data Source, Search Value, and DODAAC

332

What type of audits does the Audit Data Query enhances your ability to query transaction information for?

Internal and external.

333

What on-line system combines the issue, shipment, receipt, and transfer of wholesale and retail materiel?

. Stock control system (SCS).

334

Which system provides the user with information on their requisitions, with emphasis placed on the flightline base level user?

TRACKER

335

Which supports repair execution and item distribution, and manages flow of recoverable assets in and out of depot repair?

Execution and Prioritization of Repair Support System.

336

The Supply Interface System residue images are considered delinquent after how many hours?

24

337

How long are the Supply Interface System residue images kept before they are deleted?

10 days

338

How can users request access to the logistics, installations & mission support-enterprise view (LIMS-EV)?

Via the Air Force Portal