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PTCB Practice Exam

1.

Which condition is a potential side effect of taking dopamine antagonist, which results in unwanted, involuntary rhythmic movement?

Tardive dyskinesia

2.

Which classification states that a product with a strange color or taste will be recalled according to FDA requirements?

Class 3

3.

Which technique used in compounding describes the mixing of two ingredients of unequal quantities?

Geometric dilution

4.

Which of the following is not a potential cause of medication error?

Wrong physician

5.

Which of the following methods should be used in recapping a needle if necessary?

One handed scoop

6.

A pharmacy technician needs to be aware that which of the following medication needs a patient package insert (PPI)?

Albuterol Inhaler

7.

Which of the following is a type of inventory required by the Drug Enforcement Agency of all controlled substances every 2 years?

Biennial

8.

Which of the following part of Medicare is a health plan offered by private insurance companies?

Medicare Part C

9.

The National Council for Prescription Drug Program created standards for electronic exchange of health information, which includes the following except?

Pharmacy informatics

10.

What is the generic name for the drug Cytomel?

liothyronine

11.

A prescription is written for Tenormin 50mg tablets. How long should this prescription be kept on file?

2 Years

12.

Which method is used to prepare capsules?

Punch Method

13.

Which of the following is an error that is caused by the prescriber?

unapproved abbreviation

14.

When performing handwashing, hands should be washed for a minimum of?

30 seconds

15.

A pharmacy receives a prescription for Pilocar 4% Eye Drops #15ml, i gtt both eyes bid. How many days will this bottle last?

75 Days

16.

Which of the following represents the cost the pharmacy paid for the medication?

AAC

17.

Which of the following can be flagged or alerted using patient monitoring functions?

Therapeutic Duplication

18.

Which of the following is the maximum dose for aspirin in an adult?

4000mg

19.

Which of the following containers protects the contents from other solids?

Well-closed container

20.

Which type of medication order may be filled or administered when a patient requests it?

PRN

21.

Which of the following is a medication is used to treat hyperlipidemia?

Pravachol

22.

All the following are reasons why covered entities may disclose protected health information (PHI) to law enforcement officials except?

When the covered entity believes that individuals may have contracted a communicable disease when notification is authorized by law.

23.

The physician prescribes 500mg of a drug with is available as 1gm / 2ml, how many milliliters should this patient receive?

1mL

24.

Which of the following would be a solution to a patient identifiers error caused by nurses?

Use bar coding to identify the patient and medication

25.

Which of the following is not part of the personal protective equipment?

Jacket

26.

Which of the following is not an example of auxiliary labels?

Take one tablet at bedtime

27.

When receiving medications in the pharmacy, which of the following will prevent a high volume of expired medications on the shelf?

Place medication on shelf and rotate stock

28.

Which of the following rejection code describes invalid days supply?

19

29.

Which of the following is a type of computer input device?

Light Pen

30.

Which of the following is a potential side effect of ACE inhibitors?

Dry Cough

31.

The binder for Safety Data Sheets (SDS) consists of how many sections?

16

32.

Which of the following is on the ISMP High Alert list for community and ambulatory setting?

metFORMIN

33.

Which of the following is a role of the United States Pharmacopeia?

Establish standards for medication identity, purity, and strength

34.

A prescription is written for 480ml of a prescription for Zantac Solution. What would be the volume equivalent in household measurement?

1 pint

35.

Which of the following is a 11-digit sequence of numbers assigned to a medication?

NDC number

36.

Which of the following is true regarding prior authorization?

The patient may need to wait 24 – 48 hours before receiving response

37.

How many types of pharmacy interfaces exist?

2

38.

The FDA manages certain programs which place drugs in a restricted status because of their adverse effects. Which of the following drugs is part of this program?

Sotret

39.

Which type of container protects the content from contamination?

Tight Container

40.

Which part of the prescription gives additional information to the pharmacist?

Subscription

41.

Which of the following is a drug the helps remove mucous from the respiratory system?

Expectorants

42.

Which DEA Form is used to engage in wholesale distribution by retail pharmacy for drugs containing pseudoephedrine?

DEA Form 510

43.

What type of injectable water is intended to be use for injections?

Bacteriostatic water USP

44.

Which of the following types of errors describes administration to the patient of medication not authorized by a legitimate prescriber?

unauthorized drug error

45.

Which of the following is not a quality-related event?

Incorrect pharmacy

46.

The medical term -phagia means which of the following?

Eat

47.

Which of the following is used to identify medications affected by recalls?

Lot Number

48.

Which of the following demonstrates the gross profit formula?

selling price – purchase price

49.

Which of the following is a way pharmacy information systems can be used?

Clinical screening

50.

Which of the following medication is used to treat GERD?

Ranitidine

51.

The transferring of a Schedule II prescription can be done how many times?

Zero

52.

Which type of Laminar Flood Hood uses recycled air within the hood?

Type B3

53.

Which of the following is an incorrect match for the ISMP tall man lettering?

CycloSERINE and clomiPRAMINE

54.

Which of the following organization regulates pharmacies and other entities that manufacture or distribute medication?

State Board of Pharmacy

55.

A prescription is written for Dilantin 125mg/5ml # 16oz, 2 tsp po bid. What is the days supply?

24 Days

56.

A daily log should be kept for medications stored in the refrigerator that must maintain a temperature of?

2 to 8 degrees C

57.

Which of the following is not a reason a claim will be rejected?

invalid medication strength

58.

Which of the following report is used to account for significant theft or loss of a controlled substance?

Diversion report

59.

Which of the following is the classification for Vesicare?

Overactive Bladder

60.

When entering the information into the computer, which code would be used for the spouse?

02

61.

Which of the following hormone stimulates bone and muscle growth in men?

Testosterone hormone

62.

In which section of the drug monograph would you find an abbreviated summary of the most clinically adverse reactions?

Warning and precaution

63.

The technician is checking the refrigerators temperature that reads 8 degree Celsius, what is this temperature in Fahrenheit?

46.4

64.

Which of the following is a way to reduce medication errors for a pharmacy technician?

Do a mental check of dosage appropriateness

65.

Which of the following documentation form requires that patient profile be maintained for every patient regardless of the pharmacy setting?

Patient profile

66.

Which of the indicates the correct expiration date for 12/17?

12/31/2017

67.

Which of the following date is assigned by the pharmacy when repacking a medication?

Beyond use date

68.

Insurance companies enact plan limitations to control drug use, which of the following is a limitation for a mail order pharmacy for days’ supply?

90

69.

Which of the following is a disadvantage to implementing pharmacy information systems?

Barriers in accessing different databases.

70.

Which of the following is not an organ in the lymphatic system?

Thyroid

71.

A physician with a DEA number starting with “X” represents?

Opioid treating practitioner

72.

All the following are classification list of hazardous waste based on ignitability, corrosivity, reactivity and toxicity except?

Q List

73.

Which of the following organization does not track medication errors?

Board of Pharmacy (BOP)

74.

What storage condition would indicate a temperature of 75 degrees Fahrenheit?

Controlled room temperature

75.

Which of the following is used to identify and define inventory items based on their usage?

ABC analysis

76.

Which of the following is a method of payment when a patient does not have insurance?

Self - Pay

77.

E-prescribing tools can include all the following except?

Printers

78.

Which of the following is not a condition that affects the dermatological system of skin?

Onychomycosis

79.

Pharmacy technicians are not allowed to counsel patients. Which of the following is considered counseling of a patient?

Action to take if a dose is missed

80.

Which dispense as written codes indicates an override?

6

81.

Which of the following classification works to alter the levels of chemical known as neurotransmitters in the brain?

Antidepressant

82.

Which of the following medication is not used to treat glaucoma?

Ciprofloxacin

83.

Which of the following classifications use the USAN suffix -tidine?

H2 receptor antagonist

84.

Which reference material is a compilation of medication package inserts?

Physician Desk Reference

85.

If a hazardous substance comes in contact with skin, it must be washed immediately with soap and water for at least?

5 minutes

86.

This Act requires states to establish drug use review programs?

Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990

87.

Calculate the flow rate in gtt/min for a 3 L bag of 0.9% sodium using a drop factor of 20 gtt/ml, infused over 24 hours?

42 gtt/min

88.

A 500ml solution containing 30% of drug has 100ml of solution added. What is the final percentage strength?

25%

89.

Which of the following is a medication error deficit in knowledge?

Employee may not have been given the information needed to perform the task

90.

According to the Medication Error Reporting and Prevention Categories, which of the following categories describes an error occurred that may have contributed to or resulted in temporary harm to patient and patient required intervention?

Category D

91.

Which of the following is a strategy to prevent patient harm that involves identifying the most up to date list of all medications a patient is currently taking?

Medication reconciliation

92.

Which of the following programs contain information on adverse events that have been reported to the FDA?

FAERS

93.

Which auxiliary label would be best placed on a suspension?

Shake Well

94.

Which of the following is not a type of unit dose package system?

Cubie System

95.

A beyond use date would be found on which type of label?

Unit dose label

96.

Which of the following terms assumes the cost at the earliest purchase of goods is the first to be recognized as the cost of the goods sold?

First in, first out

97.

Which of the following is not a type of formulary?

Perpetual

98.

When a patient has more than one insurance, what must be done to determine who shall provide the maximum coverage for the patient?

Reject Claim

99.

Which of the following identifies medications that may cause problems if taken simultaneously?

Drug – drug interaction

100.

Which part of the computer is called the “brain”?

Processor

101.

What is Vitamin B1 mostly required for?

Converting sugars into energy

102.

What is the generic name for Cytotec?

Misoprostol

103.

What do the last two numbers in an NDC number refer to?

Drug Packaging

104.

How often must pharmacy scales and weights be evaluated and calibrated?

Every 12 months

105.

What was the Drug Price Competition and Patent Term Restoration Act of 1984 created for?

To establish the modern system for generic drugs

106.

Which describes the air flow of a Type B1 laminar flow hood?

Exhausts a majority of contaminated air to the outside

107.

What are the characteristics of Emphysema?

An abnormal condition of the lungs marked by decreased respiratory function

108.

A 70% HCl solution has the strength of 35 mEq/mL. How many mL are needed to prepare 50 mEq?

1.43 mL

109.

In which classification does DynaCirc belong?

Calcium Channel Blocker

110.

How many mL will a patient receive if infused with 125 mL/hr for 7 hrs?

875 mL

111.

30 mL of hydroxyzine containing gr viiss is available. How many mL must be dispensed for a gr v order?

20 mL

112.

Patient is to be given 90 mg dose of naproxen via suspension containing 25 mg of naproxen per 10 mL. How many mL must be administered?

36 mL

113.

Which of the following drugs is not used to treat Multiple Sclerosis?

Nilstat

114.

Which of the following is formed when a pharmacy agrees to purchase a majority of its goods from a wholesaler?

Prime Vendor Agreement

115.

Which disease is characterized by a mental disorder characterized by abnormalities in the perception or expression of reality?

Schizophrenia

116.

What is not required on a repackaging log?

Wholesaler

117.

Which disease is characterized by a relatively permanent state of worry and nervousness?

Anxiety

118.

Which of the following is required on a patient prescription?

Prescriber information

119.

What was the Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906 created for?

To prohibit interstate sales of adulterated or misbranded drugs

120.

Which act established revisions to Medicare and Medicaid Conditions of Participation regarding long term care facilities and pharmacy?

Omnibus Reconciliation Act of 1987

121.

Which of the following is used to report medication quality problems?

MedWatch Form

122.

How many refills are allowed on CIII drugs?

5

123.

A 60 day supply for a prescription for Colace 100 mg capsule taken bid should be filled with ___.

120 capsules

124.

A PRN order is an order for a medication that is used on a(n) ________ basis in a hospital.

as needed

125.

Pharmacy technicians can refer to the _______ Book to find out of if two drugs are equivalent.

Orange

126.

What is the nature of a drug idiosyncrasy?

It is an unexpected response to medication.

127.

Before, after, and throughout each shift, pharmacy technicians should wash their hands with an anti-microbial agent for at least _____.

30 seconds

128.

Which of the following defines a solvent?

The larger part of a solution

129.

A physician order for a 120 mg dose of Gentamycin 40mg/mL should be filled with ______ of Gentamycin.

3mL

130.

There are ______ ounces (oz.) in a pound (lb).

16

131.

Epilepsy is caused by excessive ______ activity within the brain.

electrical

132.

Which age ranges defines a neonate?

Birth to 1 month

133.

While working in a pharmacy, a technician can locate storage requirements for a particular drug in which resource?

United States Pharmacopeia and National Formulary

134.

Augmentin suspension should be _________ and it will last for ___________ days.

refrigerated, 10

135.

The seven rights of medication include all of the following EXCEPT_______________.

gender

136.

After administering a drug, the time when the body first starts to respond to the medication is called:

Onset of action

137.

A patient asks a pharmacy technician if it is okay to drink grapefruit juice every day while taking a Coumadin. A pharmacy technician should _______.

refer the patient to a pharmacist.

138.

What should countertops in I.V. rooms be cleaned with?

70% Isopropyl Alcohol

139.

Laminar flow hoods require ________ filters for use.

HEPA

140.

Which scales are sensitive enough to measure a 650 mg to 120 g?

Class B balance

141.

Medicare Part ___ provides prescription coverage.

Medicare Part D

142.

What three components are needed to bill a pharmacy claim?

Member ID number, BIN, and PCN

143.

What does the abbreviation NPO mean?

Nothing by mouth

144.

What is the brand name for eszopiclone?

Lunesta

145.

Which of the following provides the Medicare prescription drug benefit?

Medicare Part D

146.

Which of the following is NOT a Schedule I narcotic?

OxyContin

147.

This is an autoimmune disease in which the thyroid is overactive, and produces excessive amounts of thyroid hormones:

Graves' Disease

148.

If a physician writes an order for 400 mL of D5W to be infused over a 4-hour time period, and the IV drop factor is 12 gtt/mL, how many drops per minute should be delivered?

20 gtt

149.

If two drugs are taken together and one of them intensifies the action of the other, what type of drug interaction has occurred?

Potentiation

150.

Which of these herbal medications can be used to treat anxiety?

Kava

151.

A drug sells for $29.99 retail and has a wholesale cost of $19.74. The dispensing cost is $3.20. What is the pharmacy's net profit?

$7.05

152.

Which of the following medications is NOT used to treat high cholesterol?

Nexium

153.

What is the generic drug suffix for a proton pump inhibitor?

PRAZOLE

154.

You are planning to prepare 600 mL of 20% dextrose solution, by mixing your 5% and 50% dextrose solution. How much of each solution will be needed?

200 mL of the 50% and 400 mL of the 5%

155.

The action of reducing a material to small particles is:

Comminution

156.

What is DEA form 222 used for?

To order Schedule II medications

157.

Seventy-four degrees Fahrenheit is equal to what temperature in Celsius?

23.3

158.

This law defined two specific categories for medications: prescription and over-the-counter.

Durham-Humphrey Amendment

159.

The Red Book is a resource that focuses on:

drug pricing

160.

A list of medications available for use within a health care system is called a:

Formulary

161.

Tall man letters are used for drugs which:

have look-alike names

162.

The pharmacy technician notices that a dosage may be typed wrong in the system. The reading says 0.1g but it should probably be 0.01g as 0.1 may be too large of a dose. What should the technician do in this case?

Alert the pharmacist to verify

163.

A drug is recalled by the FDA, but the problem is unlikely to cause any adverse health reactions. What type of recall would this be?

Class III

164.

According to federal law, DEA forms need to be maintained for ____ years.

2

165.

Laminar flow hoods must be certified every ___ months.

6

166.

Which of the following is NOT used to treat insomnia?

Chantix

167.

What is the brand name for aripiprazole?

Abilify

168.

Convert 5.5 kg to pounds.

12.1 lb

169.

An order is written to administer 2 liters of an IV fluid over 18 hours. What will the flow rate be?

111 mL/hr

170.

What type of drug is loratadine?

Antihistamine

171.

The percent equivalent of a 1:125 ratio is:

0.8%

172.

An order is written for 500 mL of NS to infuse at 40 gtt/min. How long would it take to infuse the NS if the set delivers 10 gtt/mL?

125 minutes

173.

If a drug has no accepted medical use and extremely high potential for abuse, which DEA schedule would it be categorized in?

Schedule I

174.

On which of these would you find information about the pharmacology of a drug?

PPI

175.

What is a common side effect of warfarin?

Internal bleeding

176.

This federal law requires pharmacists to review Medicaid recipients' entire drug profile before filling their prescriptions.

Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990

177.

Schedule II medication must be stored in:

a locked safe

178.

What is the proper hand washing guideline in USP <797>?

Wash hands and forearms to the elbow for at least 30 seconds.

179.

What is DEA Form 41 used for?

To document the destruction of controlled substances

180.

Which of the following is a non-prescription medication used to treat insomnia?

Melatonin

181.

What type of drug is omeprazole?

Proton pump inhibitor (PPI)

182.

What is the maximum capacity for a class A balance?

120 g

183.

Which of these is an antihistamine?

fexofenadine

184.

Which statement is true of PPO plans?

PPO membership provides a substantial discount below the regular rates of the medical professionals who are in the network.

185.

Which Act of Congress addresses the privacy and security of health data?

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996.

186.

Which of the following correctly matches brand/generic names?

Cymbalta/duloxetine

187.

The FDA publishes a book called Approved Drug Products with Therapeutic Equivalence Evaluations, which is more commonly known as the:

Orange Book

188.

Which part of the NDC number indicates the manufacturer of a drug?

The first 4–5 digits

189.

The iPLEDGE program is designed to mitigate the risks associated with taking:

isotretinoin

190.

Which of the following is NOT a medication for Parkinson’s?

amlodipine

191.

A prescription calls for 25mg of a medication t.i.d. for 7 days. The stock solution is composed of a 100mg/3mL. How many Liters of the stock solution is needed for the order?

0.01575

192.

How many digits is a BIN number?

6

193.

Which is the proper use of tall man letters to help differentiate these look-alike/sound-alike medications?

PARoxetine — FLUoxetine

194.

The process by which a health insurance company determines if it should be the primary or secondary payer of medical claims for a patient who has coverage from more than one health insurance policy:

Coordination of Benefits

195.

Which of the following covers inpatient hospitals stays?

Medicare Part A

196.

What is DEA form 106 used for?

Theft or loss of controlled substances

197.

Which federal law introduced a ‘proof-of-efficacy’ requirement?

Kefauver Harris Amendment

198.

Individuals with a severe allergy to penicillin SHOULD NOT receive

amoxicillin

199.

How much dextrose is in a 900mL solution of D5W?

45 g

200.

Which of the following potential hazards are addressed by OSHA regulations?

All of these potential hazards are addressed by OSHA regulations.

201.

Bar Code Medication Administration (BCMA) is a system designed to:

prevent medication errors in healthcare settings

202.

Which of the following is NOT a diuretic?

pioglitazone