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Radreview Contrast Media

1.

Which of the following radiographic examinations require(s) the patient to be NPO 8–10 hours prior to examination for proper patient preparation?

Abdominal survey

Upper GI series

BE

A.
1 and 2 only
B.
1 and 3 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

C.
2 and 3 only

2.

In classifying IV contrast agents, the total number of dissolved particles in solution per kilogram of water defines
A.
osmolality.
B.
toxicity.
C.
viscosity.
D.
miscibility.

A.
osmolality.

3.

Gas-producing powder or crystals usually are ingested for which of the following examinations?
A.
Double-contrast barium enema (BE)
B.
Double-contrast gastrointestinal (GI) series
C.
Oral cholecystogram
D.
IV urogram (IVU)

B.
Double-contrast gastrointestinal (GI) series

4.

Logrolling is a method of moving patients having suspected
A.
head injury.
B.
spinal injury.
C.
bowel obstruction.
D.
extremity fracture.

B.
spinal injury.

5.

Which of the following procedures requires that the patient be placed in the lithotomy position?
A.
Myelography
B.
Venography
C.
T-tube cholangiography
D.
Hysterosalpingography

D.
Hysterosalpingography

6.

Which of the following examinations require(s) restriction of a patient's diet?

Barium enema

Pyelogram

Metastatic survey

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
1 and 3 only
D.
2 and 3 only

B.
1 and 2 only

7.

The decision as to whether to deliver ionic or nonionic contrast medium should include a preliminary patient history including, but not limited to

patient age.

history of respiratory disease.

history of cardiac disease.

A.
1 and 2
B.
1 and 3
C.
2 and 3
D.
1, 2, and 3

D.
1, 2, and 3

8.

Symptoms associated with a respiratory reaction to contrast media include

sneezing.

hoarseness.

wheezing.

A.
1 and 2 only
B.
1 and 3 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

D.
1, 2, and 3

9.

Which of the following sites are commonly used for an intravenous injection?
1. Antecubital vein
2. Basilic vein
3. Popliteal vein

A.
1 and 2 only
B.
1 and 3 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

A.
1 and 2 only

10.

Some proteins in latex can produce mild to severe allergic reactions. Medical equipment that could contain latex includes

tourniquets.

enema tips.

catheters.

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

D.
1, 2, and 3

11.

Sterile technique is required when contrast agents are administered
A.
through a nasogastric tube.
B.
intrathecally.
C.
rectally.
D.
orally.

B.
intrathecally.

12.

Which of the following is another name for an intermittent injection port?
A.
Hypodermic needle
B.
Butterfly needle
C.
Heparin lock
D.
Intravenous (IV) infusion

C.
Heparin lock

13.

Which of the following medication routes refers to the term parenteral?

Subcutaneous

Intramuscular

Oral

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

B.
1 and 2 only

14.

What is the first treatment for extravasation of contrast media during an IV injection?
A.
Apply a hot compress.
B.
Apply a cold compress.
C.
Apply pressure to the vein until bleeding stops.
D.
Remove the needle and locate a sturdier vein immediately.

C.
Apply pressure to the vein until bleeding stop

15.

Medication can be administered by which of the following routes?
1. Orally
2. Intravenously
3. Intramuscularly

A.
1 and 2 only
B.
1 and 3 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

D.
1, 2, and 3

16.

The pain experienced by an individual whose coronary arteries are not conveying sufficient blood to the heart is called
A.
tachycardia.
B.
bradycardia.
C.
angina pectoris.
D.
syncope.

C.
angina pectoris.

17.

All the following statements regarding the use of iodinated contrast agents with patients taking metformin hydrochloride are true except
A.
metformin is used to help lower blood sugar levels in type 2 diabetic patients.
B.
patients on metformin who have intravenous (IV) iodinated contrast agent administration are at risk for renal failure.
C.
metformin should be withheld for 48 hours before IV iodinated contrast studies.
D.
metformin should be withheld for 48 hours after IV iodinated contrast studies.

C.
metformin should be withheld for 48 hours before IV iodinated contrast studies.

18.

Which of the following may be used to effectively reduce the viscosity of contrast media?
A.
Warming
B.
Refrigeration
C.
Storage at normal room temperature
D.
Storage in a cool, dry place

A.
Warming

19.

Which of the following is the most likely site for a lumbar puncture?
A.
S1–2
B.
L3–4
C.
L1–2
D.
C6–7

B.
L3–4

20.

Which of the following radiographic procedures requires an intrathecal injection?
A.
IV pyelogram
B.
Myelogram
C.
Lymphangiogram
D.
Computed tomography (CT)

B.
Myelogram

21.

Extravasation occurs when
A.
there is an absence of collateral circulation
B.
there is a multitude of vessels supplying one area
C.
excessive contrast medium is injected
D.
contrast medium is injected into surrounding tissue

D.
contrast medium is injected into surrounding tissue

22.

In which of the following conditions is a double-contrast BE essential for demonstration of the condition?

Polyps

Colitis

Diverticulosis

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
1 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

B.
1 and 2 only

23.

Adverse reactions to high osmolality water-soluble contrast media that are classified as mild, include
1. nausea.
2. pallor.
3. dyspnea.

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

B.
1 and 2 only

24.

Possible side effects of an iodinated contrast medium that is administered intravenously include all the following except

a warm, flushed feeling.

altered taste.

rash and hives.

A.
1 only
B.
3 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

B.
3 only

25.

Demonstration of which anatomic structures require(s) ingestion of barium sulfate suspension?

Duodenum

Pylorus

Ilium

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

B.
1 and 2 only

26.

If extravasation occurs during an IV injection of contrast media, correct treatment includes which of the following?
1. Remove the needle and locate a sturdier vein immediately.
2. Apply pressure to the vein until bleeding stops.
3. Apply warm, moist heat.

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

C.
2 and 3 only

27.

A patient developed hives several minutes after injection of an iodinated contrast agent. What type of drug should be readily available?
A.
Analgesic
B.
Antihistamine
C.
Anti-inflammatory
D.
Antibiotic

B.
Antihistamine

28.

The portion of a hypodermic needle that attaches to the syringe is termed its
A.
hub
B.
gauge
C.
length
D.
bevel

A.
hub

29.

All the following statements regarding oxygen delivery are true except
A.
oxygen is classified as a drug and must be prescribed by a physician.
B.
the rate of delivery and mode of delivery must be part of a physician order for oxygen.
C.
oxygen may be ordered as continuously or as needed (prn)..
D.
none of the above; they are all true.

D.
none of the above; they are all true.

30.

The advantages of using nonionic, water-soluble contrast media include

cost-containment benefits.

low toxicity.

fewer adverse reactions.

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

C.
2 and 3 only

31.

Which blood vessels are best suited for determination of pulse rate?
A.
Superficial arteries
B.
Deep arteries
C.
Superficial veins
D.
Deep veins

A.
Superficial arteries

32.

Diseases that require droplet precautions include

rubella.

mumps.

influenza.

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

D.
1, 2, and 3

33.

During intravenous injection, the needle should form what angle with the arm?
A.
90°
B.
75°
C.
45°
D.
15°

D.
15°

34.

Administration of contrast agents for radiographic demonstration of the spinal canal is performed by which of the following parenteral routes?
A.
Subcutaneous
B.
Intravenous
C.
Intramuscular
D.
Intrathecal

D.
Intrathecal

35.

When medications are administered parenterally, they are given
A.
orally
B.
orally or intravenously
C.
intravenously or intramuscularly
D.
by a route other than orally

D.
by a route other than orally

36.

The legal doctrine res ipsa locquitur means which of the following?
A.
Let the master answer.
B.
The thing speaks for itself.
C.
A thing or matter settled by justice.
D.
A matter settled by precedent.

B.
The thing speaks for itself.

37.

Fluids and medications are administered to patients intravenously for which of the following reasons?

To promote rapid response

To administer parenteral nutrition

To achieve a local effect

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
1 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

B.
1 and 2 only

38.

Examples of nasogastric (NG) tubes include

Swan–Ganz.

Salem-sump.

Levin.

A.
1 and 2 only
B.
1 and 3 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

C.
2 and 3 only

39.

Particulate matter entering the respiratory bronchi can cause
A.
emphysema.
B.
empyema.
C.
pneumothorax.
D.
pneumoconiosis.

D.
pneumoconiosis.

40.

When a GI series has been requested on a patient with a suspected perforated ulcer, the type of contrast medium that should be used is
A.
a thin barium sulfate suspension.
B.
a thick barium sulfate suspension.
C.
water-soluble iodinated media.
D.
oil-based iodinated media.

C.
water-soluble iodinated media.

41.

An esophagram would most likely be requested for patients with which of the following esophageal disorders/symptoms?

Varices

Achalasia

Dysphasia

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
1 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

B.
1 and 2 only

42.

What is the needle angle usually recommended for intramuscular drug injection?
A.
90°
B.
75°
C.
45°
D.
15°

A.
90°

43.

A minor reaction to the IV administration of a contrast agent can include

a few hives

nausea

a flushed face

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
1 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

D.
1, 2, and 3