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Viewing:

Radreview Contrast Media

front 1

Which of the following radiographic examinations require(s) the patient to be NPO 8–10 hours prior to examination for proper patient preparation?

Abdominal survey

Upper GI series

BE

A.
1 and 2 only
B.
1 and 3 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 1

C.
2 and 3 only

front 2

In classifying IV contrast agents, the total number of dissolved particles in solution per kilogram of water defines
A.
osmolality.
B.
toxicity.
C.
viscosity.
D.
miscibility.

back 2

A.
osmolality.

front 3

Gas-producing powder or crystals usually are ingested for which of the following examinations?
A.
Double-contrast barium enema (BE)
B.
Double-contrast gastrointestinal (GI) series
C.
Oral cholecystogram
D.
IV urogram (IVU)

back 3

B.
Double-contrast gastrointestinal (GI) series

front 4

Logrolling is a method of moving patients having suspected
A.
head injury.
B.
spinal injury.
C.
bowel obstruction.
D.
extremity fracture.

back 4

B.
spinal injury.

front 5

Which of the following procedures requires that the patient be placed in the lithotomy position?
A.
Myelography
B.
Venography
C.
T-tube cholangiography
D.
Hysterosalpingography

back 5

D.
Hysterosalpingography

front 6

Which of the following examinations require(s) restriction of a patient's diet?

Barium enema

Pyelogram

Metastatic survey

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
1 and 3 only
D.
2 and 3 only

back 6

B.
1 and 2 only

front 7

The decision as to whether to deliver ionic or nonionic contrast medium should include a preliminary patient history including, but not limited to

patient age.

history of respiratory disease.

history of cardiac disease.

A.
1 and 2
B.
1 and 3
C.
2 and 3
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 7

D.
1, 2, and 3

front 8

Symptoms associated with a respiratory reaction to contrast media include

sneezing.

hoarseness.

wheezing.

A.
1 and 2 only
B.
1 and 3 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 8

D.
1, 2, and 3

front 9

Which of the following sites are commonly used for an intravenous injection?
1. Antecubital vein
2. Basilic vein
3. Popliteal vein

A.
1 and 2 only
B.
1 and 3 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 9

A.
1 and 2 only

front 10

Some proteins in latex can produce mild to severe allergic reactions. Medical equipment that could contain latex includes

tourniquets.

enema tips.

catheters.

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 10

D.
1, 2, and 3

front 11

Sterile technique is required when contrast agents are administered
A.
through a nasogastric tube.
B.
intrathecally.
C.
rectally.
D.
orally.

back 11

B.
intrathecally.

front 12

Which of the following is another name for an intermittent injection port?
A.
Hypodermic needle
B.
Butterfly needle
C.
Heparin lock
D.
Intravenous (IV) infusion

back 12

C.
Heparin lock

front 13

Which of the following medication routes refers to the term parenteral?

Subcutaneous

Intramuscular

Oral

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 13

B.
1 and 2 only

front 14

What is the first treatment for extravasation of contrast media during an IV injection?
A.
Apply a hot compress.
B.
Apply a cold compress.
C.
Apply pressure to the vein until bleeding stops.
D.
Remove the needle and locate a sturdier vein immediately.

back 14

C.
Apply pressure to the vein until bleeding stop

front 15

Medication can be administered by which of the following routes?
1. Orally
2. Intravenously
3. Intramuscularly

A.
1 and 2 only
B.
1 and 3 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 15

D.
1, 2, and 3

front 16

The pain experienced by an individual whose coronary arteries are not conveying sufficient blood to the heart is called
A.
tachycardia.
B.
bradycardia.
C.
angina pectoris.
D.
syncope.

back 16

C.
angina pectoris.

front 17

All the following statements regarding the use of iodinated contrast agents with patients taking metformin hydrochloride are true except
A.
metformin is used to help lower blood sugar levels in type 2 diabetic patients.
B.
patients on metformin who have intravenous (IV) iodinated contrast agent administration are at risk for renal failure.
C.
metformin should be withheld for 48 hours before IV iodinated contrast studies.
D.
metformin should be withheld for 48 hours after IV iodinated contrast studies.

back 17

C.
metformin should be withheld for 48 hours before IV iodinated contrast studies.

front 18

Which of the following may be used to effectively reduce the viscosity of contrast media?
A.
Warming
B.
Refrigeration
C.
Storage at normal room temperature
D.
Storage in a cool, dry place

back 18

A.
Warming

front 19

Which of the following is the most likely site for a lumbar puncture?
A.
S1–2
B.
L3–4
C.
L1–2
D.
C6–7

back 19

B.
L3–4

front 20

Which of the following radiographic procedures requires an intrathecal injection?
A.
IV pyelogram
B.
Myelogram
C.
Lymphangiogram
D.
Computed tomography (CT)

back 20

B.
Myelogram

front 21

Extravasation occurs when
A.
there is an absence of collateral circulation
B.
there is a multitude of vessels supplying one area
C.
excessive contrast medium is injected
D.
contrast medium is injected into surrounding tissue

back 21

D.
contrast medium is injected into surrounding tissue

front 22

In which of the following conditions is a double-contrast BE essential for demonstration of the condition?

Polyps

Colitis

Diverticulosis

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
1 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 22

B.
1 and 2 only

front 23

Adverse reactions to high osmolality water-soluble contrast media that are classified as mild, include
1. nausea.
2. pallor.
3. dyspnea.

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 23

B.
1 and 2 only

front 24

Possible side effects of an iodinated contrast medium that is administered intravenously include all the following except

a warm, flushed feeling.

altered taste.

rash and hives.

A.
1 only
B.
3 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 24

B.
3 only

front 25

Demonstration of which anatomic structures require(s) ingestion of barium sulfate suspension?

Duodenum

Pylorus

Ilium

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 25

B.
1 and 2 only

front 26

If extravasation occurs during an IV injection of contrast media, correct treatment includes which of the following?
1. Remove the needle and locate a sturdier vein immediately.
2. Apply pressure to the vein until bleeding stops.
3. Apply warm, moist heat.

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 26

C.
2 and 3 only

front 27

A patient developed hives several minutes after injection of an iodinated contrast agent. What type of drug should be readily available?
A.
Analgesic
B.
Antihistamine
C.
Anti-inflammatory
D.
Antibiotic

back 27

B.
Antihistamine

front 28

The portion of a hypodermic needle that attaches to the syringe is termed its
A.
hub
B.
gauge
C.
length
D.
bevel

back 28

A.
hub

front 29

All the following statements regarding oxygen delivery are true except
A.
oxygen is classified as a drug and must be prescribed by a physician.
B.
the rate of delivery and mode of delivery must be part of a physician order for oxygen.
C.
oxygen may be ordered as continuously or as needed (prn)..
D.
none of the above; they are all true.

back 29

D.
none of the above; they are all true.

front 30

The advantages of using nonionic, water-soluble contrast media include

cost-containment benefits.

low toxicity.

fewer adverse reactions.

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 30

C.
2 and 3 only

front 31

Which blood vessels are best suited for determination of pulse rate?
A.
Superficial arteries
B.
Deep arteries
C.
Superficial veins
D.
Deep veins

back 31

A.
Superficial arteries

front 32

Diseases that require droplet precautions include

rubella.

mumps.

influenza.

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 32

D.
1, 2, and 3

front 33

During intravenous injection, the needle should form what angle with the arm?
A.
90°
B.
75°
C.
45°
D.
15°

back 33

D.
15°

front 34

Administration of contrast agents for radiographic demonstration of the spinal canal is performed by which of the following parenteral routes?
A.
Subcutaneous
B.
Intravenous
C.
Intramuscular
D.
Intrathecal

back 34

D.
Intrathecal

front 35

When medications are administered parenterally, they are given
A.
orally
B.
orally or intravenously
C.
intravenously or intramuscularly
D.
by a route other than orally

back 35

D.
by a route other than orally

front 36

The legal doctrine res ipsa locquitur means which of the following?
A.
Let the master answer.
B.
The thing speaks for itself.
C.
A thing or matter settled by justice.
D.
A matter settled by precedent.

back 36

B.
The thing speaks for itself.

front 37

Fluids and medications are administered to patients intravenously for which of the following reasons?

To promote rapid response

To administer parenteral nutrition

To achieve a local effect

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
1 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 37

B.
1 and 2 only

front 38

Examples of nasogastric (NG) tubes include

Swan–Ganz.

Salem-sump.

Levin.

A.
1 and 2 only
B.
1 and 3 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 38

C.
2 and 3 only

front 39

Particulate matter entering the respiratory bronchi can cause
A.
emphysema.
B.
empyema.
C.
pneumothorax.
D.
pneumoconiosis.

back 39

D.
pneumoconiosis.

front 40

When a GI series has been requested on a patient with a suspected perforated ulcer, the type of contrast medium that should be used is
A.
a thin barium sulfate suspension.
B.
a thick barium sulfate suspension.
C.
water-soluble iodinated media.
D.
oil-based iodinated media.

back 40

C.
water-soluble iodinated media.

front 41

An esophagram would most likely be requested for patients with which of the following esophageal disorders/symptoms?

Varices

Achalasia

Dysphasia

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
1 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 41

B.
1 and 2 only

front 42

What is the needle angle usually recommended for intramuscular drug injection?
A.
90°
B.
75°
C.
45°
D.
15°

back 42

A.
90°

front 43

A minor reaction to the IV administration of a contrast agent can include

a few hives

nausea

a flushed face

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
1 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 43

D.
1, 2, and 3