Pharm 19
Which broad pathway is central to the drugs in the nitric oxide chapter?
A) Histamine release
B) NO/cGMP signaling
C) Beta receptor blockade
D) Folate pathway blockade
B. NO/cGMP signaling
The big-picture effect of increased NO/cGMP signaling is which change?
A) Smooth muscle contraction
B) Sodium retention
C) Increased platelet production
D) Smooth muscle relaxation
D. Smooth muscle relaxation
Why does smooth muscle relaxation from NO/cGMP lower vascular pressure?
A) Vessels dilate
B) Vessels constrict
C) Blood volume increases
D) Heart rate rises
A. Vessels dilate
Inhaled nitric oxide gas directly activates which enzyme?
A) PDE-5
B) ACE
C) Soluble guanylyl cyclase
D) HMG-CoA reductase
C. Soluble guanylyl cyclase
Activation of soluble guanylyl cyclase increases which second messenger?
A) cAMP
B) cGMP
C) IP3
D) DAG
B. cGMP
Inhaled nitric oxide mostly works in which vascular bed?
A) Systemic veins
B) Coronary arteries
C) Renal arterioles
D) Pulmonary vessels
D. Pulmonary vessels
Inhaled nitric oxide lowers which pressure most directly?
A) Portal pressure
B) Intracranial pressure
C) Pulmonary pressure
D) Glomerular pressure
C. Pulmonary pressure
Which clinical use matches inhaled nitric oxide?
A) Hyperlipidemia
B) Pulmonary hypertension
C) Acute UTI
D) Chronic constipation
B. Pulmonary hypertension
Inhaled nitric oxide can be used in which respiratory condition?
A) Hypoxic respiratory failure
B) Stable angina only
C) Soft tissue infection
D) Benign prostatic hyperplasia
A. Hypoxic respiratory failure
Which side effect is specifically listed for inhaled nitric oxide?
A) Tendon rupture
B) Bone marrow suppression
C) Liver dysfunction
D) Methemoglobinemia
D. Methemoglobinemia
A patient receives inhaled NO for pulmonary hypertension. Which mediator increases downstream?
A) cGMP
B) cAMP
C) Folate
D) LDL receptors
A. cGMP
Which drug form is nitric oxide itself in this chapter?
A) Oral nitrate tablet
B) Inhaled NO gas
C) Transdermal statin
D) IV beta blocker
B. Inhaled NO gas
Organic nitrates become what molecule in the body?
A) Angiotensin II
B) Dopamine
C) Nitric oxide
D) Acetylcholine
C. Nitric oxide
Which drugs are organic nitrates in these notes?
A) Sildenafil and riociguat
B) Nitroglycerin and isosorbide mononitrate
C) Vericiguat and inhaled NO
D) Aliskiren and losartan
B. Nitroglycerin and isosorbide mononitrate
Organic nitrates increase which second messenger?
A) cGMP
B) cAMP
C) IP3
D) DAG
A. cGMP
Organic nitrates especially dilate which blood vessels?
A) Arterioles
B) Capillaries
C) Pulmonary arteries only
D) Veins
D. Veins
Venodilation from nitrates decreases which variable?
A) LDL
B) Preload
C) Folate
D) Potassium
B. Preload
Decreased preload from nitrates causes which cardiac effect?
A) More heart work
B) More afterload
C) Less heart work
D) More pulmonary edema
C. Less heart work
Which clinical use matches organic nitrates?
A) Angina
B) Toxoplasmosis
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Osteomyelitis
A. Angina
A patient with angina takes nitroglycerin. Which mechanism explains the benefit?
A) Blocks folate synthesis
B) Increases cGMP-mediated vasodilation
C) Inhibits DNA gyrase
D) Activates PPAR-alpha
B. Increases cGMP-mediated vasodilation
Which organic nitrate is listed in the notes?
A) Riociguat
B) Sildenafil
C) Isosorbide mononitrate
D) Vericiguat
C. Isosorbide mononitrate
Which organic nitrate is commonly used for angina?
A) Nitroglycerin
B) Metoprolol
C) Ezetimibe
D) Aliskiren
A. Nitroglycerin
Which side effect is a main concern for nitric oxide vasodilator drugs overall?
A) Hypertension
B) Hypotension
C) Hyperlipidemia
D) Hyperglycemia
B. Hypotension
Sildenafil belongs to which nitric oxide-related drug class?
A) Organic nitrate
B) PDE-5 inhibitor
C) Soluble cyclase activator
D) Inhaled gas
B. PDE-5 inhibitor
Sildenafil directly blocks which enzyme?
A) PDE-5
B) ACE
C) Renin
D) PCSK9
A. PDE-5
PDE-5 normally breaks down which second messenger?
A) cAMP
B) IP3
C) cGMP
D) DAG
C. cGMP
Blocking PDE-5 causes cGMP to do what?
A) Disappear faster
B) Convert to folate
C) Leave the intestine
D) Stay longer
D. Stay longer
When cGMP stays longer after sildenafil, what increases?
A) Smooth muscle contraction
B) Smooth muscle relaxation
C) LDL receptor degradation
D) Bacterial DNA copying
B. Smooth muscle relaxation
Sildenafil causes vasodilation because it increases persistence of which mediator?
A) cGMP
B) VLDL
C) Folate
D) Angiotensin II
A. cGMP
Which clinical use matches sildenafil?
A) Osteomyelitis
B) Erectile dysfunction
C) Torsades de pointes
D) Lower UTI
B. Erectile dysfunction
Sildenafil is also used for which vascular condition?
A) Pulmonary hypertension
B) Hypertriglyceridemia
C) Atrial fibrillation
D) Soft tissue infection
A. Pulmonary hypertension
Which side effect is a main concern with sildenafil’s vasodilating action?
A) Ototoxicity
B) Myopathy
C) Hypotension
D) Lupus-like syndrome
C. Hypotension
Riociguat and vericiguat belong to which class?
A) PDE-5 inhibitors
B) Organic nitrates
C) Soluble guanylyl cyclase activators
D) Inhaled gases
C. Soluble guanylyl cyclase activators
Which memory clue helps identify riociguat and vericiguat?
A) “guat”
B) “flozin”
C) “AD SID”
D) “three Cs”
A) “guat”
Riociguat and vericiguat directly activate which enzyme?
A) PDE-5
B) Soluble guanylyl cyclase
C) HMG-CoA reductase
D) DNA gyrase
B. Soluble guanylyl cyclase
Direct soluble guanylyl cyclase activation increases which molecule?
A) cAMP
B) IP3
C) DAG
D) cGMP
D. cGMP
More guanylyl cyclase activity causes which downstream effect?
A) Smooth muscle relaxation
B) Smooth muscle contraction
C) LDL receptor breakdown
D) Folate depletion
A. Smooth muscle relaxation
Riociguat and vericiguat cause vasodilation by increasing which pathway?
A) Folate synthesis
B) NO/cGMP signaling
C) LDL receptor degradation
D) Sodium-glucose reabsorption
B. NO/cGMP signaling
Which clinical use matches soluble guanylyl cyclase activators
A) Pulmonary hypertension
B) Acute UTI
C) Toxoplasmosis
D) High LDL
A. Pulmonary hypertension
Vericiguat is listed for which clinical condition?
A) Anthrax
B) Heart failure
C) Osteomyelitis
D) Arrhythmia only
B. Heart failure
A patient receives riociguat for pulmonary hypertension. Which mechanism best explains its effect?
A) Blocks PDE-5
B) Directly activates soluble guanylyl cyclase
C) Becomes NO in veins
D) Blocks cholesterol absorption
B. Directly activates soluble guanylyl cyclase
Which side effect is a main concern with riociguat and vericiguat?
A) Tendon rupture
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Constipation
D) Hypotension
D. Hypotension
Which drug becomes nitric oxide in the body to increase cGMP?
A) Nitroglycerin
B) Sildenafil
C) Riociguat
D) Vericiguat
A. Nitroglycerin
Which drug prevents cGMP breakdown rather than making or activating it?
A) Vericiguat
B) Sildenafil
C) Nitroglycerin
D) Inhaled NO
B. Sildenafil
Which drug directly activates soluble guanylyl cyclase rather than blocking PDE-5?
A) Isosorbide mononitrate
B) Nitroglycerin
C) Vericiguat
D) Sildenafil
C. Vericiguat
Nitrogen dioxide formed from inhaled nitric oxide is harmful because it acts as what?
A) Renal toxin
B) Liver toxin
C) Pulmonary irritant
D) Bone marrow toxin
C. Pulmonary irritant
Which side effect set best matches inhaled nitric oxide gas from the table?
A) Constipation and bloating
B) Myopathy and liver dysfunction
C) Rash and hyperkalemia
D) Hypotension, methemoglobinemia, nitrogen dioxide
D. Hypotension, methemoglobinemia, nitrogen dioxide
Which endogenous substances are listed as nitric oxide synthase activators?
A) Acetylcholine and histamine
B) Nitroglycerin and nitroprusside
C) Riociguat and vericiguat
D) Sildenafil and tadalafil
A. Acetylcholine and histamine
Nitric oxide synthase activators increase which signaling molecule first in the pathway?
A) cGMP
B) cAMP
C) IP3
D) DAG
C. IP3
In NOS activator signaling, increased IP3 causes an increase in which intracellular ion?
A) Sodium
B) Calcium
C) Potassium
D) Chloride
B. Calcium
Increased intracellular calcium activates which enzyme?
A) Nitric oxide synthase
B) HMG-CoA reductase
C) DNA gyrase
D) PDE-5
A. Nitric oxide synthase
Activated nitric oxide synthase converts arginine into which products?
A) Citrulline plus NO
B) Ornithine plus urea
C) Glutamate plus ammonia
D) Angiotensin plus aldosterone
A. Citrulline plus NO
Which sequence best describes NOS activator signaling?
A) cGMP → PDE-5 → calcium
B) IP3 → calcium → NOS activation
C) LDL receptors → PCSK9 blockade
D) Folate blockade → DNA failure
B. IP3 → calcium → NOS activation
Acetylcholine and histamine increase NO production by activating which enzyme pathway?
A) Soluble guanylyl cyclase directly
B) Nitric oxide synthase pathway
C) PDE-5 degradation pathway
D) HMG-CoA reductase pathway
B. Nitric oxide synthase pathway
Which class includes nitroglycerin, other nitrates, and nitroprusside?
A) Nitric oxide donors
B) NOS activators
C) PDE-5 inhibitors
D) PCSK9 inhibitors
A. Nitric oxide donors
Nitric oxide donors increase cGMP by doing what?
A) Blocking cGMP breakdown only
B) Activating beta receptors
C) Releasing nitric oxide
D) Blocking calcium channels
C. Releasing nitric oxide
Nitrates release nitric oxide primarily in which tissue?
A) Blood only
B) Smooth muscle
C) Bone marrow
D) Kidney glomerulus
B. Smooth muscle
Nitroprusside releases nitric oxide primarily in which location according to the table?
A) Blood
B) Intestine
C) Liver
D) Prostate
A. Blood
Nitroglycerin causes smooth muscle relaxation by increasing synthesis of which second messenger?
A) cAMP
B) IP3
C) DAG
D) cGMP
D. cGMP
Nitroprusside causes vasodilation through which broad mechanism?
A) NO release and cGMP increase
B) Folate pathway blockade
C) LDL receptor preservation
D) Beta receptor blockade
A. NO release and cGMP increase
Which pairing is correct based on the table?
A) Acetylcholine—NO donor
B) Nitroglycerin—NO donor
C) Sildenafil—NOS activator
D) Riociguat—organic nitrate
B. Nitroglycerin—NO donor
Which pairing is correct based on the table?
A) Histamine—NOS activator
B) Nitroprusside—PDE-5 inhibitor
C) Inhaled NO—bile acid binder
D) Nitroglycerin—folate antagonist
A. Histamine—NOS activator
Which pairing is correct based on the table?
A) Nitroprusside—NO donor
B) Acetylcholine—organic nitrate
C) Histamine—PDE-5 inhibitor
D) Inhaled NO—PCSK9 inhibitor
A. Nitroprusside—NO donor
Which pathway directly explains smooth muscle relaxation from nitric oxide donors?
A) Less VLDL secretion
B) Increased cGMP synthesis
C) Increased folate blockade
D) Less LDL receptor breakdown
B. Increased cGMP synthesis
What does cGMP stand for?
A) Cyclic guanosine monophosphate
B) Calcium-gated membrane protein
C) Cytosolic glucose metabolism pathway
D) Cyclic glycerol messenger phosphate
A. Cyclic guanosine monophosphate
Which of the following is an endogenous inhibitor/inactivator
of nitric oxide?
(A) Arginine
(B)
Angiotensinogen
(C) Arachidonic acid
(D) Hemoglobin
(E) Thromboxane
Heme and hemoglobin inactivate NO. The answer is D.
Which of the following is a recognized effect of nitric oxide
(NO)?
(A) Arrhythmia
(B) Bronchoconstriction
(C)
Constipation
(D) Inhibition of acute graft rejection
(E)
Pulmonary vasodilation
(E) Pulmonary vasodilation
The primary endogenous substrate for the enzyme nitric
oxide
synthase (NOS) is
(A) Acetylcholine
(B)
Angiotensinogen
(C) Arginine
(D) Citrulline
(E) Heme
(C) Arginine
The inducible isoform of nitric oxide synthase (iNOS,
isoform
2) is found primarily in which of the following?
(A) Adipose
tissue
(B) Eosinophils
(C) Macrophages
(D)
Platelets
(E) Vascular endothelial cells
The inducible form of NOS is associated with inflammation,
and
the enzyme is found in highest concentration in macrophages, cells
that are particularly involved in inflammation. The answer is C.
Which one of the following is not a nitric oxide donor but
causes it to be synthesized and released from endogenous
precursors, resulting in vasodilation?
(A)
Acetylcholine
(B) Arginine
(C) Isosorbide
mononitrate
(D) Nitroglycerin
(E) Nitroprusside
(A) Acetylcholine