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Pharm 19

front 1

Which broad pathway is central to the drugs in the nitric oxide chapter?

A) Histamine release

B) NO/cGMP signaling

C) Beta receptor blockade

D) Folate pathway blockade

back 1

B. NO/cGMP signaling

front 2

The big-picture effect of increased NO/cGMP signaling is which change?

A) Smooth muscle contraction

B) Sodium retention

C) Increased platelet production

D) Smooth muscle relaxation

back 2

D. Smooth muscle relaxation

front 3

Why does smooth muscle relaxation from NO/cGMP lower vascular pressure?

A) Vessels dilate

B) Vessels constrict

C) Blood volume increases

D) Heart rate rises

back 3

A. Vessels dilate

front 4

Inhaled nitric oxide gas directly activates which enzyme?

A) PDE-5

B) ACE

C) Soluble guanylyl cyclase

D) HMG-CoA reductase

back 4

C. Soluble guanylyl cyclase

front 5

Activation of soluble guanylyl cyclase increases which second messenger?

A) cAMP

B) cGMP

C) IP3

D) DAG

back 5

B. cGMP

front 6

Inhaled nitric oxide mostly works in which vascular bed?

A) Systemic veins

B) Coronary arteries

C) Renal arterioles

D) Pulmonary vessels

back 6

D. Pulmonary vessels

front 7

Inhaled nitric oxide lowers which pressure most directly?

A) Portal pressure

B) Intracranial pressure

C) Pulmonary pressure

D) Glomerular pressure

back 7

C. Pulmonary pressure

front 8

Which clinical use matches inhaled nitric oxide?

A) Hyperlipidemia

B) Pulmonary hypertension

C) Acute UTI

D) Chronic constipation

back 8

B. Pulmonary hypertension

front 9

Inhaled nitric oxide can be used in which respiratory condition?

A) Hypoxic respiratory failure

B) Stable angina only

C) Soft tissue infection

D) Benign prostatic hyperplasia

back 9

A. Hypoxic respiratory failure

front 10

Which side effect is specifically listed for inhaled nitric oxide?

A) Tendon rupture

B) Bone marrow suppression

C) Liver dysfunction

D) Methemoglobinemia

back 10

D. Methemoglobinemia

front 11

A patient receives inhaled NO for pulmonary hypertension. Which mediator increases downstream?

A) cGMP

B) cAMP

C) Folate

D) LDL receptors

back 11

A. cGMP

front 12

Which drug form is nitric oxide itself in this chapter?

A) Oral nitrate tablet

B) Inhaled NO gas

C) Transdermal statin

D) IV beta blocker

back 12

B. Inhaled NO gas

front 13

Organic nitrates become what molecule in the body?

A) Angiotensin II

B) Dopamine

C) Nitric oxide

D) Acetylcholine

back 13

C. Nitric oxide

front 14

Which drugs are organic nitrates in these notes?

A) Sildenafil and riociguat

B) Nitroglycerin and isosorbide mononitrate

C) Vericiguat and inhaled NO

D) Aliskiren and losartan

back 14

B. Nitroglycerin and isosorbide mononitrate

front 15

Organic nitrates increase which second messenger?

A) cGMP

B) cAMP

C) IP3

D) DAG

back 15

A. cGMP

front 16

Organic nitrates especially dilate which blood vessels?

A) Arterioles

B) Capillaries

C) Pulmonary arteries only

D) Veins

back 16

D. Veins

front 17

Venodilation from nitrates decreases which variable?

A) LDL

B) Preload

C) Folate

D) Potassium

back 17

B. Preload

front 18

Decreased preload from nitrates causes which cardiac effect?

A) More heart work

B) More afterload

C) Less heart work

D) More pulmonary edema

back 18

C. Less heart work

front 19

Which clinical use matches organic nitrates?

A) Angina

B) Toxoplasmosis

C) Hyperkalemia

D) Osteomyelitis

back 19

A. Angina

front 20

A patient with angina takes nitroglycerin. Which mechanism explains the benefit?

A) Blocks folate synthesis

B) Increases cGMP-mediated vasodilation

C) Inhibits DNA gyrase

D) Activates PPAR-alpha

back 20

B. Increases cGMP-mediated vasodilation

front 21

Which organic nitrate is listed in the notes?

A) Riociguat

B) Sildenafil

C) Isosorbide mononitrate

D) Vericiguat

back 21

C. Isosorbide mononitrate

front 22

Which organic nitrate is commonly used for angina?

A) Nitroglycerin

B) Metoprolol

C) Ezetimibe

D) Aliskiren

back 22

A. Nitroglycerin

front 23

Which side effect is a main concern for nitric oxide vasodilator drugs overall?

A) Hypertension

B) Hypotension

C) Hyperlipidemia

D) Hyperglycemia

back 23

B. Hypotension

front 24

Sildenafil belongs to which nitric oxide-related drug class?

A) Organic nitrate

B) PDE-5 inhibitor

C) Soluble cyclase activator

D) Inhaled gas

back 24

B. PDE-5 inhibitor

front 25

Sildenafil directly blocks which enzyme?

A) PDE-5

B) ACE

C) Renin

D) PCSK9

back 25

A. PDE-5

front 26

PDE-5 normally breaks down which second messenger?

A) cAMP

B) IP3

C) cGMP

D) DAG

back 26

C. cGMP

front 27

Blocking PDE-5 causes cGMP to do what?

A) Disappear faster

B) Convert to folate

C) Leave the intestine

D) Stay longer

back 27

D. Stay longer

front 28

When cGMP stays longer after sildenafil, what increases?

A) Smooth muscle contraction

B) Smooth muscle relaxation

C) LDL receptor degradation

D) Bacterial DNA copying

back 28

B. Smooth muscle relaxation

front 29

Sildenafil causes vasodilation because it increases persistence of which mediator?

A) cGMP

B) VLDL

C) Folate

D) Angiotensin II

back 29

A. cGMP

front 30

Which clinical use matches sildenafil?

A) Osteomyelitis

B) Erectile dysfunction

C) Torsades de pointes

D) Lower UTI

back 30

B. Erectile dysfunction

front 31

Sildenafil is also used for which vascular condition?

A) Pulmonary hypertension

B) Hypertriglyceridemia

C) Atrial fibrillation

D) Soft tissue infection

back 31

A. Pulmonary hypertension

front 32

Which side effect is a main concern with sildenafil’s vasodilating action?

A) Ototoxicity

B) Myopathy

C) Hypotension

D) Lupus-like syndrome

back 32

C. Hypotension

front 33

Riociguat and vericiguat belong to which class?

A) PDE-5 inhibitors

B) Organic nitrates

C) Soluble guanylyl cyclase activators

D) Inhaled gases

back 33

C. Soluble guanylyl cyclase activators

front 34

Which memory clue helps identify riociguat and vericiguat?

A) “guat”

B) “flozin”

C) “AD SID”

D) “three Cs”

back 34

A) “guat”

front 35

Riociguat and vericiguat directly activate which enzyme?

A) PDE-5

B) Soluble guanylyl cyclase

C) HMG-CoA reductase

D) DNA gyrase

back 35

B. Soluble guanylyl cyclase

front 36

Direct soluble guanylyl cyclase activation increases which molecule?

A) cAMP

B) IP3

C) DAG

D) cGMP

back 36

D. cGMP

front 37

More guanylyl cyclase activity causes which downstream effect?

A) Smooth muscle relaxation

B) Smooth muscle contraction

C) LDL receptor breakdown

D) Folate depletion

back 37

A. Smooth muscle relaxation

front 38

Riociguat and vericiguat cause vasodilation by increasing which pathway?

A) Folate synthesis

B) NO/cGMP signaling

C) LDL receptor degradation

D) Sodium-glucose reabsorption

back 38

B. NO/cGMP signaling

front 39

Which clinical use matches soluble guanylyl cyclase activators

A) Pulmonary hypertension

B) Acute UTI

C) Toxoplasmosis

D) High LDL

back 39

A. Pulmonary hypertension

front 40

Vericiguat is listed for which clinical condition?

A) Anthrax

B) Heart failure

C) Osteomyelitis

D) Arrhythmia only

back 40

B. Heart failure

front 41

A patient receives riociguat for pulmonary hypertension. Which mechanism best explains its effect?

A) Blocks PDE-5

B) Directly activates soluble guanylyl cyclase

C) Becomes NO in veins

D) Blocks cholesterol absorption

back 41

B. Directly activates soluble guanylyl cyclase

front 42

Which side effect is a main concern with riociguat and vericiguat?

A) Tendon rupture

B) Hyperkalemia

C) Constipation

D) Hypotension

back 42

D. Hypotension

front 43

Which drug becomes nitric oxide in the body to increase cGMP?

A) Nitroglycerin

B) Sildenafil

C) Riociguat

D) Vericiguat

back 43

A. Nitroglycerin

front 44

Which drug prevents cGMP breakdown rather than making or activating it?

A) Vericiguat

B) Sildenafil

C) Nitroglycerin

D) Inhaled NO

back 44

B. Sildenafil

front 45

Which drug directly activates soluble guanylyl cyclase rather than blocking PDE-5?

A) Isosorbide mononitrate

B) Nitroglycerin

C) Vericiguat

D) Sildenafil

back 45

C. Vericiguat

front 46

Nitrogen dioxide formed from inhaled nitric oxide is harmful because it acts as what?

A) Renal toxin

B) Liver toxin

C) Pulmonary irritant

D) Bone marrow toxin

back 46

C. Pulmonary irritant

front 47

Which side effect set best matches inhaled nitric oxide gas from the table?

A) Constipation and bloating

B) Myopathy and liver dysfunction

C) Rash and hyperkalemia

D) Hypotension, methemoglobinemia, nitrogen dioxide

back 47

D. Hypotension, methemoglobinemia, nitrogen dioxide

front 48

Which endogenous substances are listed as nitric oxide synthase activators?

A) Acetylcholine and histamine

B) Nitroglycerin and nitroprusside

C) Riociguat and vericiguat

D) Sildenafil and tadalafil

back 48

A. Acetylcholine and histamine

front 49

Nitric oxide synthase activators increase which signaling molecule first in the pathway?

A) cGMP

B) cAMP

C) IP3

D) DAG

back 49

C. IP3

front 50

In NOS activator signaling, increased IP3 causes an increase in which intracellular ion?

A) Sodium

B) Calcium

C) Potassium

D) Chloride

back 50

B. Calcium

front 51

Increased intracellular calcium activates which enzyme?

A) Nitric oxide synthase

B) HMG-CoA reductase

C) DNA gyrase

D) PDE-5

back 51

A. Nitric oxide synthase

front 52

Activated nitric oxide synthase converts arginine into which products?

A) Citrulline plus NO

B) Ornithine plus urea

C) Glutamate plus ammonia

D) Angiotensin plus aldosterone

back 52

A. Citrulline plus NO

front 53

Which sequence best describes NOS activator signaling?

A) cGMP → PDE-5 → calcium

B) IP3 → calcium → NOS activation

C) LDL receptors → PCSK9 blockade

D) Folate blockade → DNA failure

back 53

B. IP3 → calcium → NOS activation

front 54

Acetylcholine and histamine increase NO production by activating which enzyme pathway?

A) Soluble guanylyl cyclase directly

B) Nitric oxide synthase pathway

C) PDE-5 degradation pathway

D) HMG-CoA reductase pathway

back 54

B. Nitric oxide synthase pathway

front 55

Which class includes nitroglycerin, other nitrates, and nitroprusside?

A) Nitric oxide donors

B) NOS activators

C) PDE-5 inhibitors

D) PCSK9 inhibitors

back 55

A. Nitric oxide donors

front 56

Nitric oxide donors increase cGMP by doing what?

A) Blocking cGMP breakdown only

B) Activating beta receptors

C) Releasing nitric oxide

D) Blocking calcium channels

back 56

C. Releasing nitric oxide

front 57

Nitrates release nitric oxide primarily in which tissue?

A) Blood only

B) Smooth muscle

C) Bone marrow

D) Kidney glomerulus

back 57

B. Smooth muscle

front 58

Nitroprusside releases nitric oxide primarily in which location according to the table?

A) Blood

B) Intestine

C) Liver

D) Prostate

back 58

A. Blood

front 59

Nitroglycerin causes smooth muscle relaxation by increasing synthesis of which second messenger?

A) cAMP

B) IP3

C) DAG

D) cGMP

back 59

D. cGMP

front 60

Nitroprusside causes vasodilation through which broad mechanism?

A) NO release and cGMP increase

B) Folate pathway blockade

C) LDL receptor preservation

D) Beta receptor blockade

back 60

A. NO release and cGMP increase

front 61

Which pairing is correct based on the table?

A) Acetylcholine—NO donor

B) Nitroglycerin—NO donor

C) Sildenafil—NOS activator

D) Riociguat—organic nitrate

back 61

B. Nitroglycerin—NO donor

front 62

Which pairing is correct based on the table?

A) Histamine—NOS activator

B) Nitroprusside—PDE-5 inhibitor

C) Inhaled NO—bile acid binder

D) Nitroglycerin—folate antagonist

back 62

A. Histamine—NOS activator

front 63

Which pairing is correct based on the table?

A) Nitroprusside—NO donor

B) Acetylcholine—organic nitrate

C) Histamine—PDE-5 inhibitor

D) Inhaled NO—PCSK9 inhibitor

back 63

A. Nitroprusside—NO donor

front 64

Which pathway directly explains smooth muscle relaxation from nitric oxide donors?

A) Less VLDL secretion

B) Increased cGMP synthesis

C) Increased folate blockade

D) Less LDL receptor breakdown

back 64

B. Increased cGMP synthesis

front 65

What does cGMP stand for?

A) Cyclic guanosine monophosphate

B) Calcium-gated membrane protein

C) Cytosolic glucose metabolism pathway

D) Cyclic glycerol messenger phosphate

back 65

A. Cyclic guanosine monophosphate

front 66

Which of the following is an endogenous inhibitor/inactivator
of nitric oxide?
(A) Arginine
(B) Angiotensinogen
(C) Arachidonic acid
(D) Hemoglobin
(E) Thromboxane

back 66

Heme and hemoglobin inactivate NO. The answer is D.

front 67

Which of the following is a recognized effect of nitric oxide
(NO)?
(A) Arrhythmia
(B) Bronchoconstriction
(C) Constipation
(D) Inhibition of acute graft rejection
(E) Pulmonary vasodilation

back 67

(E) Pulmonary vasodilation

front 68

The primary endogenous substrate for the enzyme nitric
oxide synthase (NOS) is
(A) Acetylcholine
(B) Angiotensinogen
(C) Arginine
(D) Citrulline
(E) Heme

back 68

(C) Arginine

front 69

The inducible isoform of nitric oxide synthase (iNOS,
isoform 2) is found primarily in which of the following?
(A) Adipose tissue
(B) Eosinophils
(C) Macrophages
(D) Platelets
(E) Vascular endothelial cells

back 69

The inducible form of NOS is associated with inflammation,
and the enzyme is found in highest concentration in macro￾phages, cells that are particularly involved in inflammation. The answer is C.

front 70

Which one of the following is not a nitric oxide donor but
causes it to be synthesized and released from endogenous
precursors, resulting in vasodilation?
(A) Acetylcholine
(B) Arginine
(C) Isosorbide mononitrate
(D) Nitroglycerin
(E) Nitroprusside

back 70

(A) Acetylcholine