Print Options

Font size:

← Back to notecard set|Easy Notecards home page

To print: Ctrl+PPrint as notecards

Phys 17

1.

During exercise, coronary and skeletal-muscle perfusion increase primarily because most tissues regulate local blood flow in proportion to:

A. Metabolic needs
B. Venous pressure
C. Lymphatic drainage
D. Arterial viscosity

A. Metabolic needs

2.

In a febrile patient, increased blood flow to which tissue most directly increases heat loss?

A. Liver
B. Skin
C. Spleen
D. Bone

B. Skin

3.

Which statement best describes blood flow to inactive skeletal muscle at rest?

A. Very high, due to mass
B. Moderate, due to tone
C. Very low, despite size
D. Equal to skin flow

C. Very low, despite size

4.

Although skeletal muscle makes up roughly 30–40% of body mass, blood flow to inactive muscle is usually:

A. Markedly elevated
B. Very low
C. Highly pulsatile only
D. Fixed by hormones

B. Very low

5.

Under usual conditions, tissue blood flow is regulated near the:

A. Maximal reserve level
B. Random average level
C. Minimal adequate level
D. Highest oxygen level

C. Minimal adequate level

6.

Maintaining tissue perfusion at the minimal adequate level chiefly helps reduce workload on the:

A. Heart
B. Lung
C. Kidney
D. Liver

A. Heart

7.

Local blood-flow regulation is classically divided into:

A. Neural and endocrine
B. Acute and long term
C. Arterial and venous
D. Pressure and volume

B. Acute and long term

8.

Acute local blood-flow control is produced mainly by:

A. New vessel growth
B. Protein synthesis
C. Rapid vasomotor changes
D. Hormonal receptor upregulation

C. Rapid vasomotor changes

9.

Acute control acts predominantly at which vascular sites?

A. Veins and venules
B. Aorta and vena cava
C. Lymphatics and capillaries
D. Arterioles and metarterioles

D. Arterioles and metarterioles

10.

Long-term local blood-flow control refers to changes occurring over:

A. Seconds to minutes
B. Minutes to hours
C. Days to months
D. Single cardiac cycles

C. Days to months

11.

Which condition decreases oxygen availability to tissues?

A. Hyperventilation alone
B. Carbon monoxide poisoning
C. Polycythemia vera
D. Hyperbaric oxygen

B. Carbon monoxide poisoning

12.

Which additional condition can reduce tissue oxygen availability?

A. Pneumonia
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Nephrotic syndrome
D. Mitral stenosis

A. Pneumonia

13.

A climber at very high altitude develops local compensatory vasodilation. The initiating problem is reduced tissue availability of:

A. Sodium
B. Oxygen
C. Calcium
D. Albumin

B. Oxygen

14.

Which substance is a local vasodilator?

A. Histamine
B. Endothelin
C. Thromboxane
D. Serotonin only

A. Histamine

15.

Which combination contains only vasodilator substances listed in your material?

A. Potassium, hydrogen, adenosine
B. Calcium, sodium, angiotensin
C. Endothelin, norepinephrine, ADH
D. Thromboxane, serotonin, renin

A. Potassium, hydrogen, adenosine

16.

Local vasodilator substances are often released in response to:

A. Oxygen deficiency
B. Glucose excess
C. Increased oncotic pressure
D. High arterial pressure

A. Oxygen deficiency

17.

According to the oxygen-demand theory, absence of oxygen causes vessels to:

A. Spasm intermittently
B. Dilate
C. Fibrose
D. Thrombose

B. Dilate

18.

At the origin of the capillary lies the:

A. Metarteriole shunt
B. Postcapillary venule
C. Precapillary sphincter
D. Arteriovenous anastomosis

C. Precapillary sphincter

19.

The cyclical opening and closing of precapillary sphincters is called:

A. Vasospasm
B. Vasomotion
C. Vasculogenesis
D. Autoperfusion

B. Vasomotion

20.

Increasing local oxygen concentration tends to increase the ______ of precapillary and metarteriole sphincter contraction.

A. Duration
B. Strength
C. Frequency
D. Velocity

B. Strength

21.

Lack of glucose in perfusing blood most directly causes local tissue:

A. Vasodilation
B. Venoconstriction
C. Lymphatic collapse
D. Capillary rupture

A. Vasodilation

22.

A malnourished patient with thiamine deficiency develops warm extremities and low peripheral resistance. This vasodilation is most characteristic of:

A. Scurvy
B. Pellagra
C. Beriberi
D. Kwashiorkor

C. Beriberi

23.

In beriberi, peripheral vascular blood flow is typically:

A. Unchanged
B. Halved
C. Tripled to quadrupled
D. Increased two- to threefold

D. Increased two- to threefold

24.

Reactive hyperemia occurs after:

A. Increased metabolism
B. Temporary arterial occlusion
C. Venous thrombosis
D. Chronic hypertension

B. Temporary arterial occlusion

25.

A forearm cuff is inflated for several minutes, then released. The transient overshoot in flow that follows is:

A. Active hyperemia
B. Venous pooling
C. Reactive hyperemia
D. Myogenic escape

C. Reactive hyperemia

26.

Active hyperemia most directly follows increased tissue:

A. Metabolic activity
B. Fibrotic remodeling
C. Venous return
D. Colloid pressure

A. Metabolic activity

27.

Once previously increased local blood flow falls back toward normal, this return is termed:

A. Vasomotion
B. Autoregulation
C. Capillary recruitment
D. Sympathetic escape

B. Autoregulation

28.

Which pair lists the two main acute autoregulatory theories?

A. Metabolic and myogenic
B. Neural and endocrine
C. Osmotic and oncotic
D. Cardiac and venous

A. Metabolic and myogenic

29.

In the myogenic theory of acute autoregulation, stretch of small blood vessels causes:

A. Endothelial apoptosis
B. Immediate dilation
C. Contraction
D. Valve closure

C. Contraction

30.

Which vignette best illustrates active rather than reactive hyperemia?

A. Flow rises after cuff release
B. Flow rises after exercise
C. Flow rises after hemorrhage
D. Flow rises after standing

B. Flow rises after exercise

31.

A patient’s arterioles constrict when arterial pressure suddenly rises, helping protect the vessel wall. This myogenic mechanism is most important for preventing excessive:

A. oxygen extraction
B. metabolic demand
C. stretching
D. vascular sprouting

C. stretching

32.

Renal blood-flow autoregulation is classically controlled by:

A. tubuloglomerular feedback
B. baroreceptor discharge
C. venous capacitance
D. lymphatic drainage

A. tubuloglomerular feedback

33.

Increased NaCl delivery to the macula densa causes afferent arteriolar constriction primarily to normalize:

A. renal vein pressure
B. filtration fraction
C. medullary osmolarity
D. GFR

D. GFR

34.

The level of excitability of the brain depends importantly on control of:

A. sodium and chloride
B. carbon dioxide and hydrogen
C. calcium and magnesium
D. glucose and phosphate

B. carbon dioxide and hydrogen

35.

Nitric oxide released in the vasculature is produced mainly by:

A. endothelial cells
B. platelets
C. smooth muscle cells
D. neutrophils

A. endothelial cells

36.

Endothelial nitric oxide is synthesized from which substrates by eNOS?

A. citrulline and carbon dioxide
B. ornithine and nitrogen
C. arginine and glucose
D. arginine and oxygen

C. arginine and glucose

37.

Nitric oxide has a blood half-life of only a few seconds, so its effects are mainly:

A. endocrine
B. systemic
C. genomic
D. local

D. local

38.

Increased blood flow stimulates endothelial nitric oxide release mainly through:

A. shear stress
B. low oncotic pressure
C. venous collapse
D. platelet adhesion

A. shear stress

39.

Which vasoconstrictor can paradoxically stimulate endothelial nitric oxide release to limit excessive constriction?

A. norepinephrine
B. endothelin
C. angiotensin II
D. thromboxane A2

B. endothelin

40.

The most important vasoconstrictor released by endothelial cells is:

A. prostacyclin
B. endothelin
C. bradykinin
D. histamine

B. endothelin

41.

The usual stimulus for endothelin release is:

A. endothelium injury
B. low glucose delivery
C. high venous pressure
D. lymphatic obstruction

A. endothelium injury

42.

Endothelin-receptor blockers are used clinically to treat:

A. essential hypertension
B. portal hypertension
C. malignant edema
D. pulmonary hypertension

D. pulmonary hypertension

43.

A key mechanism for long-term local blood-flow regulation is changing tissue:

A. viscosity
B. vascularity
C. oxygen affinity
D. contractility

B. vascularity

44.

A tissue with chronically increased metabolism develops more microvessels over weeks. This process is called:

A. vasomotion
B. autoregulation
C. angiogenesis
D. myogenic escape

C. angiogenesis

45.

A neonatal retinal vascular overgrowth syndrome associated with blindness is called:

A. cataracta brunescens
B. papilledema
C. diabetic retinopathy
D. retrolental fibroplasia

D. retrolental fibroplasia

46.

Which set contains only factors that increase growth of new blood vessels?

A. VEGF, PDGF, angiogenin, FGF
B. endothelin, renin, ADH, serotonin
C. histamine, bradykinin, NO, cortisol
D. thromboxane, aldosterone, ANP, dopamine

A. VEGF, PDGF, angiogenin, FGF

47.

Angiogenesis begins with new vessels ______ from existing small vessels.

A. looping
B. fusing
C. sprouting
D. collapsing

C. sprouting

48.

Steroid hormones and angiostatin act ______ angiogenesis.

A. opposite to
B. synergistically with
C. independently of
D. downstream from

A. opposite to

49.

Small vessels chronically exposed to higher pressure may reorganize around a smaller lumen diameter. This is called:

A. outward hypertrophic remodeling
B. inward eutrophic remodeling
C. concentric hyperplasia
D. fixed vasomotion

B. inward eutrophic remodeling

50.

In chronic pressure loading, large arteries that fail to constrict to rising pressure respond with:

A. Vasomotion
B. Inward remodeling
C. Hypertrophic remodeling
D. Capillary sprouting

C. Hypertrophic remodeling

51.

The hallmark of chronic hypertension is:

A. Stiffer blood vessels
B. Dilated venules
C. Lower shear stress
D. Thin arterial walls

A. Stiffer blood vessels

52.

A vessel exposed to chronically high flow and shear stress enlarges its lumen while wall thickness stays the same. This is:

A. Inward eutrophic remodeling
B. Outward hypertrophy
C. Hypertrophic remodeling
D. Outward remodeling

D. Outward remodeling

53.

On the venous side of an arteriovenous fistula, increased pressure and flow most directly cause:

A. Inward remodeling
B. Outward hypertrophic remodeling
C. Pure vasospasm
D. Capillary rarefaction

B. Outward hypertrophic remodeling

54.

During increased cardiac activity, epinephrine may produce vasodilation in the:

A. Coronary arteries
B. Renal arteries
C. Cutaneous arterioles
D. Splanchnic veins

A. Coronary arteries

55.

Which listed substance is a vasodilator?

A. Vasopressin
B. Norepinephrine
C. Bradykinin
D. Angiotensin II

C. Bradykinin

56.

Which listed substance is a vasoconstrictor?

A. Histamine
B. Vasopressin
C. Bradykinin
D. Kallidin

B. Vasopressin

57.

The kinins are small polypeptides cleaved by proteolytic enzymes from:

A. Albumins
B. Gamma globulins
C. Beta globulins
D. Alpha2-globulins

D. Alpha2-globulins

58.

Bradykinin is inactivated by which enzyme?

A. Renin
B. Kallikrein
C. Elastase
D. Converting enzyme

D. Converting enzyme

59.

Activated kallikrein is destroyed by a:

A. Histamine esterase
B. Kallikrein inhibitor
C. Cyclooxygenase
D. Bradykininase

B. Kallikrein inhibitor

60.

Bradykinin causes powerful arteriolar dilation and increased:

A. Capillary permeability
B. Venous compliance
C. Lymphatic tone
D. RBC deformability

A. Capillary permeability

61.

In damaged tissues, histamine is derived mainly from:

A. Basophils
B. Platelets
C. Mast cells
D. Neutrophils

C. Mast cells

62.

In the blood, histamine is derived from:

A. Eosinophils
B. Monocytes
C. Basophils
D. Platelets

C. Basophils

63.

Histamine-induced arteriolar dilation and increased capillary porosity can cause marked:

A. Edema
B. Cyanosis
C. Thrombosis
D. Vasospasm

A. Edema

64.

Which ion most strongly favors vasoconstriction?

A. Potassium
B. Hydrogen
C. Magnesium
D. Calcium

D. Calcium

65.

Which ion most strongly favors vasodilation?

A. Calcium
B. Potassium
C. Sodium
D. Phosphate

B. Potassium

66.

Which ion is also associated with vasodilation?

A. Magnesium
B. Calcium
C. Chloride
D. Iron

A. Magnesium

67.

Increased tissue carbon dioxide causes vasodilation especially in the:

A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Skin
D. Brain

D. Brain

68.

Which sequence ranks blood flow highest to lowest?

A. Kidney > liver > muscles > thyroid
B. Liver > thyroid > kidney > muscles
C. Kidney > liver > thyroid > muscles
D. Liver > kidney > thyroid/adrenal > muscles

D. Liver > kidney > thyroid/adrenal > muscles

69.

In outward remodeling driven by high flow and shear stress, wall thickness is usually:

A. Increased
B. Unchanged
C. Decreased
D. Fibrotic

B. Unchanged

70.

Which peptide is named as the immediate precursor converted to bradykinin?

A. Histamine
B. Angiotensin
C. Kallikrein
D. Kallidin

D. Kallidin

71.

Which pair are both listed vasodilators?

A. Bradykinin and histamine
B. Epinephrine and ADH
C. Norepinephrine and ADH
D. Angiotensin and epinephrine

A. Bradykinin and histamine

72.

Which enzyme besides converting enzyme inactivates bradykinin?

A. Renin
B. Trypsin
C. Carboxypeptidase
D. Cyclase

C. Carboxypeptidase

73.

A coronary artery transiently underperfuses working myocardium. Which local metabolite is especially important for restoring coronary blood flow?

A. Adenosine
B. Endothelin
C. Angiotensin II
D. Vasopressin

A. Adenosine

74.

Increased cardiac activity most directly causes which change inside heart muscle cells?

A. Increased intracellular oxygen
B. Decreased ATP breakdown
C. Decreased adenosine release
D. Decreased oxygen concentration

D. Decreased oxygen concentration

75.

In the heart, increased metabolic activity causes which paired change?

A. Increased oxygen, less adenosine
B. More ATP degradation, more adenosine
C. Less ATP degradation, less flow
D. More oxygen, less vasodilation

B. More ATP degradation, more adenosine

76.

The number of open precapillary sphincters is most proportional to tissue:

A. Nutritional requirement
B. Venous pressure
C. Sympathetic tone
D. Capillary hydrostatic pressure

A. Nutritional requirement

77.

The duration of precapillary sphincter opening is most proportional to tissue need for:

A. Sodium
B. Amino acids
C. Oxygen
D. Chloride

C. Oxygen

78.

The strength of vascular smooth-muscle contraction is most proportional to local concentration of:

A. Glucose
B. Potassium
C. Adenosine
D. Oxygen

D. Oxygen

79.

Rising local oxygen concentration most directly causes precapillary sphincters to:

A. Open wider
B. Constrict more strongly
C. Lose smooth muscle tone
D. Become pressure-insensitive

B. Constrict more strongly

80.

Which vitamin-deficiency pattern is most associated with beriberi-related vasodilation in your notes?

A. A, D, E
B. Thiamine, niacin, riboflavin
C. B12, folate, biotin
D. C, K, niacin

B. Thiamine, niacin, riboflavin

81.

Autoregulation is especially precise in which two organs?

A. Liver and skin
B. Kidney and spleen
C. Lungs and intestine
D. Brain and heart

D. Brain and heart

82.

Which statement best describes the myogenic theory of acute autoregulation?

A. Excess flow creates more vasodilators
B. Sudden vessel stretch triggers contraction
C. High pressure relaxes arterioles directly
D. Low pressure causes immediate constriction

B. Sudden vessel stretch triggers contraction

83.

Which juxtaglomerular apparatus structure detects increased tubular flow at the distal convoluted tubule and helps restore filtration toward normal?

A. Extraglomerular mesangium
B. Macula densa
C. Proximal convoluted tubule
D. Collecting duct principal cells

B. Macula densa

84.

When the macula densa senses excessive distal tubular flow from increased renal blood flow, the immediate corrective response is usually:

A. Afferent arteriolar constriction
B. Efferent arteriolar dilation
C. Renin release from JG cells
D. Mesangial relaxation only

A. Afferent arteriolar constriction

85.

A patient with hypercapnia develops a compensatory cerebrovascular response. Increased brain CO2 and H+ most directly cause:

A. Cerebral vasoconstriction
B. Reduced cerebral flow
C. Cerebral vasodilation
D. Blood-brain barrier closure

C. Cerebral vasodilation

86.

The major purpose of cerebral vasodilation in response to elevated brain CO2 or H+ is to:

A. Increase CSF formation
B. Wash out excess CO2 and H+
C. Lower neuronal metabolism
D. Increase venous resistance

B. Wash out excess CO2 and H+

87.

Which statement best describes control of cutaneous and subcutaneous blood flow?

A. It is mainly fixed locally
B. It is regulated by sympathetic nerves
C. It depends only on venous tone
D. It is independent of CNS input

B. It is regulated by sympathetic nerves

88.

During environmental heat exposure, rising body temperature normally causes skin blood flow to:

A. Decrease sharply
B. Remain unchanged
C. Increase
D. Become pressure-passive

C. Increase

89.

During cold exposure, the usual thermoregulatory response in skin is:

A. Vasodilation to lose heat
B. Decreased skin blood flow
C. Increased capillary permeability
D. Loss of sympathetic tone

B. Decreased skin blood flow

90.

Even during marked cutaneous vasoconstriction, some skin flow is still maintained primarily to meet:

A. Lymphatic demand
B. Hair-follicle cycling
C. Sweat-gland reserve
D. Skin metabolic needs

D. Skin metabolic needs

91.

Chronic hypertension and atherosclerosis damage endothelium. Reduced nitric oxide release in that setting most strongly promotes:

A. Excessive vasoconstriction
B. Excessive vasodilation
C. Capillary rupture
D. Venous pooling

A. Excessive vasoconstriction

92.

PDE-5 normally promotes vasoconstriction mainly by:

A. Blocking guanylate cyclase
B. Degrading cAMP
C. Degrading cGMP
D. Inhibiting eNOS directly

C. Degrading cGMP

93.

A PDE-5 inhibitor prolongs nitric oxide–mediated vasodilation primarily by:

A. Increasing endothelin release
B. Preventing cGMP breakdown
C. Blocking arginine uptake
D. Lowering shear stress

B. Preventing cGMP breakdown

94.

One physiologic role of endothelin is to:

A. Promote angiogenesis
B. Increase cGMP
C. Dilate cerebral arterioles
D. Limit arterial bleeding

D. Limit arterial bleeding

95.

If tissue metabolism remains elevated for a prolonged period, tissue vascularity generally:

A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Oscillates rapidly
D. Becomes pressure-fixed

A. Increases

96.

If tissue metabolism remains low for a prolonged period, tissue vascularity generally:

A. Becomes unchanged
B. Decreases
C. Increases
D. Doubles abruptly

B. Decreases

97.

In premature infants, excess oxygen initially causes retinal vessels to:

A. Overgrow immediately
B. Arterialize rapidly
C. Stop growing and regress
D. Dilate but remain intact

C. Stop growing and regress

98.

When the infant is removed from excess oxygen, the subsequent retinal vessel overgrowth is driven mainly by:

A. Sudden glucose excess
B. Sudden oxygen deficiency
C. High venous pressure
D. Endothelin excess

B. Sudden oxygen deficiency

99.

The first listed step of angiogenesis is:

A. Capillary loop perfusion
B. Tube-to-tube fusion
C. Basement membrane dissolution
D. Smooth muscle hypertrophy

C. Basement membrane dissolution

100.

After sprouting begins, endothelial cells next:

A. Reproduce and stream outward
B. Undergo apoptosis
C. Secrete endothelin
D. Constrict donor vessels

A. Reproduce and stream outward

101.

During angiogenesis, the endothelial cords then:

A. Become lymphatics
B. Fold into tubes
C. Undergo fibrosis
D. Form arterioles first

B. Fold into tubes

102.

A later step in angiogenesis occurs when a new tube:

A. Undergoes thrombosis
B. Loses its lumen
C. Regresses completely
D. Connects with another tube

D. Connects with another tube

103.

The final listed result of angiogenesis is:

A. A perfused capillary loop
B. Arterial wall calcification
C. Venous valve formation
D. Immediate vasoconstriction

A. A perfused capillary loop

104.

Which substance is a plasminogen fragment that inhibits angiogenesis?

A. Endothelin
B. Angiogenin
C. Angiostatin
D. Histamine

C. Angiostatin

105.

Endostatin is best described as an:

A. Endothelial vasodilator
B. Anti-angiogenic peptide
C. Adrenergic cotransmitter
D. Platelet growth factor

B. Anti-angiogenic peptide

106.

Vascularity is primarily determined by the tissue’s:

A. Resting venous pressure
B. Lowest oxygen tension
C. Mean capillary density
D. Maximum flow requirement

D. Maximum flow requirement

107.

After exercise-induced vascularity has developed, the extra vessels not currently needed usually:

A. Remain vasoconstricted
B. Thrombose permanently
C. Regress within minutes
D. Stay maximally open

A. Remain vasoconstricted

108.

A patient develops gradual reperfusion of ischemic tissue after an arterial occlusion because preexisting vascular connections enlarge and later new channels grow. This process is called:

A. Active hyperemia
B. Collateral circulation
C. Vasomotion
D. Reactive vasospasm

B. Collateral circulation

109.

Immediately after a vessel becomes blocked, the first stage of collateral development consists primarily of:

A. New capillary sprouting
B. Fibrotic wall thickening
C. Dilation of small vascular loops
D. Venous arterialization

C. Dilation of small vascular loops

110.

The earliest dilation of preexisting collateral loops after arterial blockage is driven mainly by:

A. Sympathetic discharge
B. Metabolic factors
C. Endothelin release
D. Fibroblast activation

B. Metabolic factors

111.

In the second stage of collateral development over hours to days, which change predominates?

A. Vessel calcification
B. Greater vessel opening
C. Wall fibrosis only
D. Capillary regression

B. Greater vessel opening

112.

Over months after an occlusion, collateral vessels typically:

A. Undergo thrombosis
B. Remain minimally dilated
C. Form multiple channels
D. Lose smooth muscle

C. Form multiple channels

113.

In most tissues, small arteries and arterioles respond within seconds to increased arterial pressure by:

A. Vasodilation
B. Capillary recruitment
C. Venous pooling
D. Vasoconstriction

D. Vasoconstriction

114.

The rapid vasoconstrictor response of small resistance vessels to increased pressure primarily serves to:

A. Increase lymph formation
B. Autoregulate tissue blood flow
C. Promote angiogenesis
D. Raise venous return

B. Autoregulate tissue blood flow

115.

Inward eutrophic remodeling is best defined as:

A. Wall thickening with lumen gain
B. Cell rearrangement around smaller lumen
C. Medial hypertrophy with fibrosis
D. Endothelial loss with dilation

B. Cell rearrangement around smaller lumen

116.

Which statement best describes inward eutrophic remodeling?

A. Wall area stays unchanged
B. Collagen markedly increases
C. Lumen enlarges progressively
D. Media becomes hypertrophic

A. Wall area stays unchanged

117.

Large vessels that do not constrict when pressure rises are most likely to undergo:

A. Inward eutrophic remodeling
B. Outward remodeling
C. Hypertrophic remodeling
D. Reactive hyperemia

C. Hypertrophic remodeling

118.

Which change is characteristic of hypertrophic remodeling?

A. Smaller wall cross-sectional area
B. Increased wall cross-sectional area
C. Loss of vascular smooth muscle
D. Decreased collagen synthesis

B. Increased wall cross-sectional area

119.

Hypertrophic remodeling helps vessels adapt to high blood pressure mainly by:

A. Increasing vessel compliance
B. Reinforcing wall strength
C. Lowering shear stress
D. Dilating the lumen widely

B. Reinforcing wall strength

120.

Which vein is commonly harvested for coronary artery bypass grafting?

A. Basilic vein
B. Saphenous vein
C. Femoral vein
D. Cephalic vein

B. Saphenous vein

121.

A direct connection between a large artery and a large vein that bypasses resistance vessels and capillaries is called a:

A. Sinusoid
B. Collateral loop
C. Anastomotic plexus
D. Fistula

C. Anastomotic plexus

122.

On the arterial side of an arteriovenous fistula, the expected vascular response is:

A. Outward remodeling
B. Inward remodeling
C. Hypertrophic constriction
D. Capillary rarefaction

A. Outward remodeling

123.

On the venous side of an arteriovenous fistula, the expected remodeling pattern is:

A. Inward eutrophic remodeling
B. Outward hypertrophic remodeling
C. Pure vasoconstrictive remodeling
D. No remodeling occurs

B. Outward hypertrophic remodeling

124.

Between epinephrine and norepinephrine, which is the more potent vasoconstrictor?

A. Epinephrine
B. They are equal
C. Norepinephrine
D. Depends on calcium only

C. Norepinephrine

125.

Which statement about epinephrine’s vascular effect is most accurate?

A. It is always stronger than NE
B. It may cause slight vasodilation
C. It only constricts veins
D. It blocks alpha receptors

B. It may cause slight vasodilation

126.

A patient with severe hypotension develops a hormone-mediated rise in total peripheral resistance along with decreased renal sodium and water excretion. Which mediator best fits?

A. Bradykinin
B. Histamine
C. Angiotensin II
D. Kallidin

C. Angiotensin II

127.

The direct vascular effect of angiotensin II is primarily:

A. Small-arteriole venodilation
B. Small-arteriole vasoconstriction
C. Capillary leak
D. Endothelial NO release

B. Small-arteriole vasoconstriction

128.

Which mediator is most associated with arteriolar dilation and increased capillary permeability that may produce edema?

A. Angiotensin II
B. Bradykinin
C. Vasopressin
D. Endothelin

B. Bradykinin

129.

Regulation of blood flow in skin, salivary glands, and GI glands is especially associated with:

A. Bradykinin
B. Angiotensin II
C. Vasopressin
D. Norepinephrine

A. Bradykinin

130.

In inflamed tissue, kinins mainly regulate:

A. Conduction velocity and capillary leakage
B. Blood flow and capillary leakage
C. Platelet count and capillary leakage
D. Hemoglobin affinity and capillary leakage

B. Blood flow and capillary leakage

131.

Which acid-base state is most associated with arteriolar vasoconstriction?

A. Acidosis
B. Alkalosis
C. Hypercapnia
D. Lacticemia

B. Alkalosis

132.

Which group contains anions specifically noted to cause vasodilation?

A. Sulfate and phosphate
B. Bicarbonate and chloride
C. Acetate and citrate
D. Lactate and pyruvate

D. Lactate and pyruvate