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Biochem 21

1.

The major disaccharide in natural sweeteners, fruits, and vegetables is:

A. Lactose
B. Maltose
C. Sucrose
D. Trehalose

C. Sucrose

2.

Natural sweeteners, fruits, and vegetables also contain small amounts of:

A. Glucose and galactose
B. Fructose and mannose
C. Maltose and lactose
D. Ribose and xylose

A. Glucose and galactose

3.

Dietary fiber cannot be digested primarily because humans lack the necessary:

A. Transporters
B. Glycosidases
C. Lipases
D. Peptidases

B. Glycosidases

4.

The principal polymer for dietary fiber is:

A. Amylopectin
B. Cellulose
C. Glycogen
D. Lignin

D. Lignin

5.

Disaccharides are converted to monosaccharides by:

A. Isomerases
B. Glycosidases
C. Oxidases
D. Transferases

B. Glycosidases

6.

Glycosidases hydrolyze which bond type?

A. Peptide bonds
B. Ester bonds
C. Glycosidic bonds
D. Phosphodiester bonds

C. Glycosidic bonds

7.

Undigested carbohydrates that reach the colon are commonly:

A. Oxidized by hepatocytes
B. Fermented by bacteria
C. Excreted unchanged only
D. Absorbed by villi

B. Fermented by bacteria

8.

Alpha-amylase is best classified as an:

A. Exoglycosidase
B. Endoglycosidase
C. Transaminase
D. Isomerase

B. Endoglycosidase

9.

Alpha-amylase hydrolyzes which bonds within polysaccharides?

A. Beta-1,4 bonds
B. Alpha-1,6 bonds
C. Alpha-1,4 bonds
D. Beta-1,6 bonds

C. Alpha-1,4 bonds

10.

Alpha-amylase cleaves its target bonds at:

A. Terminal residues only
B. Random internal intervals
C. Branch points exclusively
D. Brush-border membranes only

B. Random internal intervals

11.

The shortened polysaccharide chains generated by alpha-amylase are termed:

A. Limit dextrins
B. Alpha-dextrins
C. Maltotetroses
D. Glycoproteins

A. Limit dextrins

12.

Pancreatic alpha-amylase continues hydrolysis of:

A. Lactose and sucrose
B. Glycogen and starch
C. Fiber and cellulose
D. Trehalose and lactose

B. Glycogen and starch

13.

Which product is formed by pancreatic alpha-amylase?

A. Free galactose
B. Maltose
C. Sucrose
D. Fructose

B. Maltose

14.

Which additional product is formed by pancreatic alpha-amylase?

A. Trimaltotriose
B. Lactulose
C. Cellobiose
D. Trehalose

A. Trimaltotriose

15.

The oligosaccharides formed by pancreatic alpha-amylase are also called:

A. Alpha-dextrins
B. Limit dextrins
C. Glycolipids
D. Proteoses

B. Limit dextrins

16.

Glucoamylase is best classified as an:

A. Endoglycosidase
B. Exoglycosidase
C. Oxidoreductase
D. Isomerase

B. Exoglycosidase

17.

Glucoamylase is specific for which bond?

A. Alpha-1,4
B. Alpha-1,6
C. Beta-1,4
D. Beta-1,6

A. Alpha-1,4

18.

Glucoamylase hydrolysis primarily releases:

A. Maltose
B. Galactose
C. Glucose
D. Fructose

C. Glucose

19.

Glucoamylase is found in the:

A. Stomach lumen
B. Brush border
C. Pancreatic acini
D. Colonic crypts

B. Brush border

20.

The sucrase-isomaltase complex provides almost all intestinal hydrolysis of:

A. Beta-1,4 bonds
B. Alpha-1,6 bonds
C. Alpha-1,2 bonds
D. Beta-1,6 bonds

B. Alpha-1,6 bonds

21.

Sucrase-isomaltase accounts for what share of intestinal sucrose hydrolysis?

A. About half
B. About two thirds
C. About 80%
D. Essentially all

D. Essentially all

22.

Sucrase-isomaltase accounts for about what share of small-intestinal maltose hydrolysis?

A. 20%
B. 40%
C. 80%
D. 100%

C. 80%

23.

Trehalase hydrolyzes glycosidic bonds in:

A. Lactose
B. Maltose
C. Sucrose
D. Trehalose

D. Trehalose

24.

Trehalose is composed of:

A. Glucose plus galactose
B. Two glucosyl units
C. Glucose plus fructose
D. Galactose plus fructose

B. Two glucosyl units

25.

The beta-glycosidase complex is also known as:

A. Sucrase-maltase
B. Lactase-glucosylceramidase
C. Glucoamylase-isomaltase
D. Maltase-phosphorylase

B. Lactase-glucosylceramidase

26.

The beta-glycosidase complex hydrolyzes the bond between glucose and galactose in lactose. That bond is:

A. Alpha
B. Beta
C. Ester
D. Peptide

B. Beta

27.

The beta-glycosidase complex hydrolyzes certain glycolipids containing glucose or galactose linked to:

A. Cholesterol
B. Ceramide
C. Bilirubin
D. Lecithin

B. Ceramide

28.

The catalytic site responsible for that beta-glycosidase complex activity is called:

A. Enterokinase
B. Phlorizin hydrolase
C. Lactulose synthase
D. Sucrase core

B. Phlorizin hydrolase

29.

Sucrase-isomaltase and beta-glycosidase activities are highest in the:

A. Duodenum
B. Jejunum
C. Ileum
D. Colon

B. Jejunum

30.

Glucoamylase activity rises along the intestine and is highest in the:

A. Duodenum
B. Jejunum
C. Ileum
D. Cecum

C. Ileum

31.

Congenital lactase deficiency follows which inheritance pattern?

A. Autosomal dominant
B. X-linked recessive
C. Mitochondrial
D. Autosomal recessive

D. Autosomal recessive

32.

In congenital lactase deficiency, the deficient enzyme activity is:

A. Trehalase
B. Lactase
C. Sucrase
D. Glucoamylase

B. Lactase

33.

An infant develops diarrhea, weight loss, and dehydration soon after breast-feeding begins. The best diagnosis is:

A. Secondary lactase deficiency
B. Congenital lactase deficiency
C. Sucrase-isomaltase deficiency
D. Glucose-galactose malabsorption

B. Congenital lactase deficiency

34.

The best treatment for congenital lactase deficiency is:

A. High-sucrose diet
B. Gluten restriction
C. No lactose diet
D. High-fiber supplementation

C. No lactose diet

35.

In adult hypolactasia, lactase levels are:

A. Completely absent
B. Increased markedly
C. Decreased less severely
D. Replaced by sucrase

C. Decreased less severely

36.

Lactase deficiency caused by villous injury is termed:

A. Congenital deficiency
B. Primary deficiency
C. Secondary deficiency
D. Isolated deficiency

C. Secondary deficiency

37.

Acute lactose intolerance developing after a GI infection most strongly suggests:

A. Congenital lactase loss
B. Secondary lactase deficiency
C. Trehalase excess
D. Fructose malabsorption

B. Secondary lactase deficiency

38.

In mucosal injury, lactase activity is characteristically:

A. Last lost, first recovered
B. First lost, last recovered
C. Unchanged throughout
D. Permanently absent always

B. First lost, last recovered

39.

Secondary lactase deficiency is expected to recover because lactase activity:

A. Never returns
B. Always increases permanently
C. Usually comes back
D. Converts to sucrase

C. Usually comes back

40.

Dietary fiber is beneficial in diverticular disease because it helps:

A. Acidify stool
B. Harden stool
C. Soften stool
D. Sterilize stool

C. Soften stool

41.

Colonic bacteria metabolizing soluble fiber generate gases and:

A. Long-chain fatty acids
B. Short-chain fatty acids
C. Ketone bodies
D. Bile acids

B. Short-chain fatty acids

42.

The short-chain fatty acids formed in the colon are absorbed by:

A. Hepatocytes
B. Pancreatic ducts
C. Colonic epithelial cells
D. Gastric chief cells

C. Colonic epithelial cells

43.

After absorption, these short-chain fatty acids are used primarily for:

A. Hemoglobin synthesis
B. Energy
C. Urea production
D. Ketogenesis only

B. Energy

44.

Which soluble fibers reduce cholesterol levels?

A. Cellulose and inulin
B. Pectins and beta-glucan
C. Lignin and glycogen
D. Lactose and trehalose

B. Pectins and beta-glucan

45.

The cholesterol-lowering effect of Pectins and beta-glucans acts at the level of:

A. Chylomicrons
B. Bile acids
C. GLUT transporters
D. Lactase activity

B. Bile acids

46.

Pectin can help in diabetes mainly by:

A. Increasing fructose uptake
B. Slowing simple sugar absorption
C. Blocking insulin release
D. Stimulating glucagon secretion

B. Slowing simple sugar absorption

47.

GLUT5 is located on the luminal side of intestinal epithelial cells and transports:

A. Glucose
B. Galactose
C. Fructose
D. Mannose

C. Fructose

48.

Which transporter is found in human erythrocytes and in the brain?

A. GLUT1
B. GLUT2
C. GLUT3
D. GLUT4

A. GLUT1

49.

GLUT1 is characterized by:

A. Low affinity
B. High capacity
C. High affinity
D. Insulin dependence

C. High affinity

50.

Which transporter is found in liver, kidney, pancreatic beta cells, and the serosal surface of intestinal mucosal cells?

A. GLUT1
B. GLUT2
C. GLUT3
D. GLUT5

B. GLUT2

51.

GLUT2 is best described as:

A. High affinity, low capacity
B. Insulin sensitive, high affinity
C. High capacity, low affinity
D. Neuron specific, high affinity

C. High capacity, low affinity

52.

Which transporter is found only in neurons?

A. GLUT1
B. GLUT2
C. GLUT3
D. GLUT4

C. GLUT3

53.

GLUT3 is characterized by:

A. High affinity
B. Low affinity
C. Low capacity
D. Insulin responsiveness

A. High affinity

54.

Which transporter is found in adipose tissue, skeletal muscle, and cardiac muscle?

A. GLUT1
B. GLUT2
C. GLUT4
D. GLUT5

C. GLUT4

55.

GLUT4 is best described as:

A. Fructose specific
B. Insulin sensitive
C. Neuron specific
D. Erythrocyte specific

B. Insulin sensitive

56.

In skeletal muscle, which additional stimulus increases GLUT4 numbers?

A. Fasting
B. Exercise
C. Glucagon
D. Lactose

B. Exercise

57.

GLUT4 has:

A. High affinity
B. Low affinity
C. No tissue specificity
D. No insulin response

A. High affinity

58.

Which transporter is found in intestinal epithelium and spermatozoa?

A. GLUT2
B. GLUT3
C. GLUT4
D. GLUT5

D. GLUT5

59.

The presence of GLUT5 in spermatozoa is linked to their use of:

A. Galactose
B. Fructose
C. Glycogen
D. Lactate

B. Fructose

60.

The hypoglycemic response results from decreased glucose supply to the:

A. Liver
B. Pancreas
C. Brain
D. Kidney

C. Brain

61.

The majority of dietary carbohydrate calories in many diets comes from which plant starch polysaccharides found in grains, tubers, and vegetables?

A. Lactose and trehalose
B. Amylopectin and amylose
C. Glycogen and cellulose
D. Sucrose and lactose

B. Amylopectin and amylose

62.

Amylose is best described as a polymer of glucosyl residues linked mainly by:

A. α-1,6 bonds
B. β-1,4 bonds
C. α-1,2 bonds
D. α-1,4 bonds

D. α-1,4 bonds

63.

Amylopectin contains a main chain of α-1,4 bonds with branches formed by:

A. β-1,6 bonds
B. α-1,6 bonds
C. β-1,4 bonds
D. α-1,2 bonds

B. α-1,6 bonds

64.

Sucrose is a disaccharide composed of:

A. Glucose and galactose
B. Glucose and fructose
C. Fructose and galactose
D. Two glucose units

B. Glucose and fructose

65.

The glycosidic linkage in sucrose is:

A. β-1,4
B. α-1,6
C. α-1,2
D. β-1,2

C. α-1,2

66.

Lactose is the major animal carbohydrate and is composed of:

A. Glucose and fructose
B. Glucose and galactose
C. Fructose and galactose
D. Two glucoses

B. Glucose and galactose

67.

The glycosidic linkage in lactose is:

A. β-1,4
B. α-1,2
C. α-1,4
D. α-1,6

A. β-1,4

68.

α-Amylase hydrolyzes which bonds?

A. Internal α-1,4 bonds
B. Terminal α-1,6 bonds
C. Internal β-1,4 bonds
D. Terminal β-1,6 bonds

A. Internal α-1,4 bonds

69.

Salivary amylase is:

A. Digested by pepsin only
B. Inactivated by stomach acid
C. Blocked by bile salts
D. Removed by enterocytes

B. Inactivated by stomach acid

70.

Which statement about amylase substrate specificity is correct?

A. It hydrolyzes α-1,4 and α-1,6
B. It hydrolyzes only α-1,4-linked glucose polymers
C. It hydrolyzes all glucose polymers
D. It hydrolyzes β-1,4 cellulose bonds

B. It hydrolyzes only α-1,4-linked glucose polymers

71.

Acarbose lowers postprandial glucose primarily by inhibiting pancreatic α-amylase and:

A. Lactose transporters
B. Brush-border α-glucosidases
C. Hepatic glycogenolysis
D. Colonic fermentation

B. Brush-border α-glucosidases

72.

Acarbose is used mainly in patients with:

A. Type 1 diabetes
B. Celiac disease
C. Type 2 diabetes
D. Hereditary fructose intolerance

C. Type 2 diabetes

73.

Acarbose is not used often mainly because it commonly causes:

A. Constipation and nausea
B. Flatulence and diarrhea
C. Hemolysis and rash
D. Bradycardia and edema

B. Flatulence and diarrhea

74.

Brush-border glycosidases are collectively referred to as:

A. Small-intestinal disaccharidases
B. Pancreatic oligosaccharidases
C. Gastric exoglycosidases
D. Hepatic glucanases

A. Small-intestinal disaccharidases

75.

Which of the following is one of the four brush-border glycosidases discussed?

A. Enterokinase
B. Glucoamylase
C. Ptyalin
D. Hexokinase

B. Glucoamylase

76.

Which listed enzyme is another brush-border glycosidase from this set?

A. Sucrase-isomaltase complex
B. Pepsin
C. Glycogen phosphorylase
D. Trypsin

A. Sucrase-isomaltase complex

77.

Which listed enzyme is another brush-border glycosidase from this set?

A. Trehalase
B. Pepsin
C. Glycogen phosphorylase
D. Trypsin

A. Trehalase

78.

Which listed enzyme is another brush-border glycosidase from this set?

A. B-glucosidase complex
B. Pepsin
C. Glycogen phosphorylase
D. Trypsin

A. B-glucosidase complex

79.

Glucoamylase is a long polypeptide chain that forms:

A. One catalytic barrel
B. Two globular domains
C. Three transmembrane subunits
D. Four proteolytic chains

B. Two globular domains

80.

Each glucoamylase globular domain contains:

A. A lipid anchor
B. A catalytic site
C. An ATPase core
D. A bile-binding loop

B. A catalytic site

81.

Glucoamylase is protected from digestion because it is heavily:

A. Sulfated
B. Phosphorylated
C. Glycosylated
D. Ubiquitinated

C. Glycosylated

82.

Glucoamylase is an exoglycosidase specific for:

A. α-1,6 bonds
B. β-1,4 bonds
C. α-1,2 bonds
D. α-1,4 bonds

D. α-1,4 bonds

83.

Glucoamylase begins digestion from the:

A. Reducing end
B. Nonreducing end
C. Branch point only
D. Middle of chain

B. Nonreducing end

84.

The sucrase-isomaltase complex protrudes into the lumen and is clipped into two subunits by an:

A. Hepatic enzyme
B. Intestinal protease
C. Pancreatic lipase
D. Salivary esterase

B. Intestinal protease

85.

After cleavage, the two sucrase-isomaltase subunits remain attached through:

A. Disulfide bonds only
B. Noncovalent interactions
C. Peptide crosslinks
D. Tight junctions

B. Noncovalent interactions

86.

Both subunits of the sucrase-isomaltase complex contain:

A. A catalytic site
B. A transporter pore
C. A chloride channel
D. A kinase domain

A. A catalytic site

87.

The isomaltase-maltase site accounts for almost all intestinal hydrolysis of:

A. β-1,4 bonds
B. α-1,6 bonds
C. α-1,2 bonds
D. β-1,6 bonds

B. α-1,6 bonds

88.

A brush-border enzyme sequentially removes glucose from linear starch fragments but cannot cleave branch points. Which bond does it hydrolyze?

A. β-1,4 bond
B. α-1,4 bond
C. β-1,6 bond
D. α-1,6 bond

B. α-1,4 bond

89.

An oligosaccharide branch point persists until acted on by isomaltase. Which linkage required isomaltase?

A. α-1,2 linkage
B. β-1,4 linkage
C. α-1,4 linkage
D. α-1,6 linkage

D. α-1,6 linkage

90.

After debranching, a remaining linear glucan bond can be hydrolyzed by either glucoamylase or isomaltase. Which bond is this?

A. α-1,4 linkage
B. α-1,1 linkage
C. β-1,4 linkage
D. β-1,6 linkage

A. α-1,4 linkage

91.

Trehalose is best described as a disaccharide composed of:

A. Glucose and fructose
B. Glucose and galactose
C. Two glucose molecules
D. Two galactose molecules

C. Two glucose molecules

92.

Trehalase hydrolyzes which bond in trehalose?

A. α-1,1 linkage
B. α-1,4 linkage
C. β-1,4 linkage
D. α-1,6 linkage

A. α-1,1 linkage

93.

Trehalase is notable for having:

A. Two catalytic domains
B. No membrane anchor
C. Three active sites
D. One catalytic site

D. One catalytic site

94.

Which large brush-border glycoprotein has two catalytic sites and also functions as lactase?

A. Trehalase
B. β-glucosidase complex
C. Glucoamylase
D. Sucrase-isomaltase

B. β-glucosidase complex

95.

The β-glucosidase complex is attached to the membrane through its carboxyl end by a:

A. Sulfate bridge
B. Cholesterol anchor
C. Peptide tether
D. Phosphatidylglycan anchor

D. Phosphatidylglycan anchor

96.

The lactase site of the β-glucosidase complex hydrolyzes which bond in lactose?

A. α-1,4 bond
B. β-1,4 bond
C. α-1,2 bond
D. α-1,6 bond

B. β-1,4 bond

97.

The second catalytic site of the β-glucosidase complex hydrolyzes a bond between a sugar and:

A. Ceramide
B. Cholesterol
C. Glycerol
D. Sphingomyelin

A. Ceramide

98.

Phlorizin hydrolase activity refers to cleavage of a β-glycosidic bond in:

A. Sucrose
B. Trehalose
C. Glycolipids
D. Amylopectin

C. Glycolipids

99.

In the small intestine, sucrase-isomaltase activity is highest in the:

A. Jejunum
B. Duodenum
C. Ileum
D. Colon

A. Jejunum

100.

Overall brush-border glycosidase activity is highest in the:

A. Ileum
B. Jejunum
C. Colon
D. Stomach

B. Jejunum

101.

Glucoamylase activity reaches its highest level in the:

A. Duodenum
B. Jejunum
C. Cecum
D. Ileum

B. Jejunum

102.

Along the small intestine, glucoamylase activity generally increases toward the:

A. Ileum
B. Duodenum
C. Stomach
D. Pylorus

A. Ileum

103.

Which carbohydrate is more resistant to digestion because it is less well hydrated?

A. Trehalose
B. Lactose
C. Glycogen
D. Amylose-rich starch

D. Amylose-rich starch

104.

In the colon, undigested sugars are rapidly metabolized by bacteria to gases, lactate, and:

A. Ketone bodies
B. Bile acids
C. Short-chain fatty acids
D. Amino acids

C. Short-chain fatty acids

105.

Which set lists the major gases formed by colonic bacterial sugar metabolism?

A. Oxygen, nitrogen, helium
B. H2, CO2, CH4
C. CO, O2, H2S
D. NH3, CO2, N2

B. H2, CO2, CH4

cause flatulence

106.

Incomplete sugar digestion causes diarrhea primarily by increasing:

A. Gastric motility
B. Colonic water retention
C. Pancreatic secretion
D. Bile acid synthesis

B. Colonic water retention

107.

In lactose intolerance, unabsorbed lactose is converted by colonic bacteria to gas and:

A. Ethanol
B. Acetone
C. Lactic acid
D. Urea

C. Lactic acid

108.

Lactase activity normally peaks at about:

A. One month after birth
B. One year after birth
C. Birth
D. Puberty

A. One month after birth

109.

Lactase activity usually declines to adult levels by approximately:

A. 1 to 2 years
B. 3 to 4 years
C. 10 to 12 years
D. 5 to 7 years

D. 5 to 7 years

110.

Adult hypolactasia is associated with which phenotype?

A. Persistence phenotype
B. Malabsorption phenotype
C. Nonpersistence phenotype
D. Hypersecretion phenotype

C. Nonpersistence phenotype

111.

In lactose intolerance, diarrhea reflects the osmotic effects of lactose and:

A. Lactic acid
B. Histamine
C. Bicarbonate
D. Uric acid

A. Lactic acid

112.

Which set contains only insoluble dietary fibers?

A. Pectins, gums, mucilages
B. Cellulose, hemicellulose, lignins
C. Mucilages, cellulose, gums
D. Lignins, pectins, gums

B. Cellulose, hemicellulose, lignins

113.

Which set contains only soluble dietary fibers?

A. Lignins, cellulose, gums
B. Cellulose, mucilages, lignins
C. Pectins, mucilages, gums
D. Hemicellulose, pectins, lignins

C. Pectins, mucilages, gums

114.

Which fiber type is most readily digested by colonic bacteria to produce gas and short-chain fatty acids?

A. Soluble fiber
B. Insoluble lignin
C. Resistant ceramide
D. Brush-border starch

A. Soluble fiber

115.

Which set lists the major short-chain fatty acids formed by colonic bacterial sugar metabolism?

A. Lactic, pyruvic, citric
B. Acetic, succinic, fumaric
C. Butyric, oxaloacetic, lactic
D. Acetic, propionic, butyric

D. Acetic, propionic, butyric

116.

Flatulence from carbohydrate malabsorption is caused mainly by bacterial generation of:

A. Bile salts
B. H2, CO2, CH4
C. Lactase and trehalase
D. Acetylcholine and gastrin

B. H2, CO2, CH4

117.

A patient with chronic constipation is advised to increase soluble fiber that can also lower serum cholesterol by binding bile acids. Which fiber is this?

A. Cellulose
B. Pectins
C. Lignins
D. Hemicellulose

B. Pectins

118.

The glycemic index of a food refers to:

A. Intestinal glucose uptake capacity
B. Amount of carbohydrate absorbed
C. Postprandial insulin secretion
D. Rate blood glucose rises

D. Rate blood glucose rises

119.

Which carbohydrate has one of the highest glycemic indices?

A. Glucose
B. Fructose
C. Lactose
D. Pectin

A. Glucose

120.

Which additional sugar has one of the highest glycemic indices?

A. Sucrose
B. Fructose
C. Maltose
D. Galactose

C. Maltose

121.

On the luminal side of enterocytes, glucose is absorbed primarily by:

A. Na-dependent transporters
B. Facilitated diffusion only
C. Passive paracellular flow
D. H+-coupled cotransport

A. Na-dependent transporters

122.

The low intracellular sodium concentration that drives luminal glucose uptake is maintained by the:

A. Na/H exchanger
B. Na-K ATPase
C. Ca ATPase
D. H/K ATPase

B. Na-K ATPase

123.

Glucose exits enterocytes across the serosal membrane primarily by:

A. Na-coupled cotransport
B. Secondary active transport
C. Endocytosis
D. Facilitative transporters

D. Facilitative transporters

124.

Glucose movement from enterocyte to blood normally requires:

A. ATP hydrolysis directly
B. Luminal sodium entry
C. No direct energy use
D. Brush-border peptidases

C. No direct energy use

125.

Which structural feature is shared by all GLUT transporters?

A. Two catalytic subunits
B. Six membrane domains
C. Twelve membrane domains
D. An ATP-binding site

C. Twelve membrane domains

126.

Galactose absorption from lumen into enterocytes occurs by the same mechanism as:

A. Glucose
B. Fructose
C. Mannose
D. Lactate

A. Glucose

127.

Galactose exits enterocytes into blood primarily by:

A. Na-dependent cotransport
B. Facilitative transporters
C. Endocytic vesicles
D. Chloride exchange

B. Facilitative transporters

128.

Fructose enters enterocytes from the lumen by:

A. Na-dependent uptake
B. Secondary active transport
C. Endocytosis
D. Facilitated diffusion

D. Facilitated diffusion

129.

In most cells, glucose uptake is usually not the rate-limiting step because GLUTs generally have:

A. Low Km or high abundance
B. High Km only
C. ATPase activity
D. Sodium coupling only

A. Low Km or high abundance

130.

Glucose crossing from blood into extracellular CSF at the blood-brain barrier primarily uses:

A. GLUT2
B. GLUT4
C. GLUT5
D. GLUT1

D. GLUT1

131.

Transport of glucose from blood into brain tissue is primarily mediated by:

A. GLUT1
B. GLUT2
C. GLUT3
D. GLUT4

C. GLUT3

132.

A lactose-intolerant patient avoiding dairy should pay particular attention to replacing:

A. Calcium
B. Iron
C. Potassium
D. Phosphate

A. Calcium

133.

A diabetic is advised to eat oatmeal, beans, and apples because gel-forming fibers can:

A. Delay gastric emptying
B. Stimulate insulin release
C. Raise glycemic index
D. Block fructose uptake

A. Delay gastric emptying

134.

The same gel-forming fibers also help by:

A. Increasing starch hydrolysis
B. Enhancing bile secretion
C. Slowing sugar absorption
D. Accelerating gastric emptying

C. Slowing sugar absorption

135.

A patient suspected of carbohydrate malabsorption should undergo which test after a sugar load?

A. D-xylose test
B. Hydrogen breath test
C. Schilling test
D. Secretin stimulation test

B. Hydrogen breath test

136.

In cholera, the organism first:

A. Invades enterocytes deeply
B. Destroys villi directly
C. Attaches to brush border
D. Blocks lactase synthesis

C. Attaches to brush border

137.

Cholera toxin binds irreversibly to which cell-surface receptor?

A. GLUT5
B. GM1 ganglioside
C. SGLT1
D. CFTR

D. CFTR

138.

Cholera toxin then catalyzes:

A. Protein dephosphorylation
B. DNA strand cleavage
C. Glycolipid hydrolysis
D. ADP-ribosylation

D. ADP-ribosylation

139.

Increased enterocyte cAMP in cholera most directly decreases intestinal:

A. Glucose transport
B. Peptide hydrolysis
C. Potassium secretion
D. Na/anion/water absorption

D. Na/anion/water absorption

140.

Cholera toxin also directly stimulates intestinal:

A. Calcium absorption
B. Bicarbonate loss
C. Chloride secretion
D. Lactase synthesis

C. Chloride secretion