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Biochem 21

front 1

The major disaccharide in natural sweeteners, fruits, and vegetables is:

A. Lactose
B. Maltose
C. Sucrose
D. Trehalose

back 1

C. Sucrose

front 2

Natural sweeteners, fruits, and vegetables also contain small amounts of:

A. Glucose and galactose
B. Fructose and mannose
C. Maltose and lactose
D. Ribose and xylose

back 2

A. Glucose and galactose

front 3

Dietary fiber cannot be digested primarily because humans lack the necessary:

A. Transporters
B. Glycosidases
C. Lipases
D. Peptidases

back 3

B. Glycosidases

front 4

The principal polymer for dietary fiber is:

A. Amylopectin
B. Cellulose
C. Glycogen
D. Lignin

back 4

D. Lignin

front 5

Disaccharides are converted to monosaccharides by:

A. Isomerases
B. Glycosidases
C. Oxidases
D. Transferases

back 5

B. Glycosidases

front 6

Glycosidases hydrolyze which bond type?

A. Peptide bonds
B. Ester bonds
C. Glycosidic bonds
D. Phosphodiester bonds

back 6

C. Glycosidic bonds

front 7

Undigested carbohydrates that reach the colon are commonly:

A. Oxidized by hepatocytes
B. Fermented by bacteria
C. Excreted unchanged only
D. Absorbed by villi

back 7

B. Fermented by bacteria

front 8

Alpha-amylase is best classified as an:

A. Exoglycosidase
B. Endoglycosidase
C. Transaminase
D. Isomerase

back 8

B. Endoglycosidase

front 9

Alpha-amylase hydrolyzes which bonds within polysaccharides?

A. Beta-1,4 bonds
B. Alpha-1,6 bonds
C. Alpha-1,4 bonds
D. Beta-1,6 bonds

back 9

C. Alpha-1,4 bonds

front 10

Alpha-amylase cleaves its target bonds at:

A. Terminal residues only
B. Random internal intervals
C. Branch points exclusively
D. Brush-border membranes only

back 10

B. Random internal intervals

front 11

The shortened polysaccharide chains generated by alpha-amylase are termed:

A. Limit dextrins
B. Alpha-dextrins
C. Maltotetroses
D. Glycoproteins

back 11

A. Limit dextrins

front 12

Pancreatic alpha-amylase continues hydrolysis of:

A. Lactose and sucrose
B. Glycogen and starch
C. Fiber and cellulose
D. Trehalose and lactose

back 12

B. Glycogen and starch

front 13

Which product is formed by pancreatic alpha-amylase?

A. Free galactose
B. Maltose
C. Sucrose
D. Fructose

back 13

B. Maltose

front 14

Which additional product is formed by pancreatic alpha-amylase?

A. Trimaltotriose
B. Lactulose
C. Cellobiose
D. Trehalose

back 14

A. Trimaltotriose

front 15

The oligosaccharides formed by pancreatic alpha-amylase are also called:

A. Alpha-dextrins
B. Limit dextrins
C. Glycolipids
D. Proteoses

back 15

B. Limit dextrins

front 16

Glucoamylase is best classified as an:

A. Endoglycosidase
B. Exoglycosidase
C. Oxidoreductase
D. Isomerase

back 16

B. Exoglycosidase

front 17

Glucoamylase is specific for which bond?

A. Alpha-1,4
B. Alpha-1,6
C. Beta-1,4
D. Beta-1,6

back 17

A. Alpha-1,4

front 18

Glucoamylase hydrolysis primarily releases:

A. Maltose
B. Galactose
C. Glucose
D. Fructose

back 18

C. Glucose

front 19

Glucoamylase is found in the:

A. Stomach lumen
B. Brush border
C. Pancreatic acini
D. Colonic crypts

back 19

B. Brush border

front 20

The sucrase-isomaltase complex provides almost all intestinal hydrolysis of:

A. Beta-1,4 bonds
B. Alpha-1,6 bonds
C. Alpha-1,2 bonds
D. Beta-1,6 bonds

back 20

B. Alpha-1,6 bonds

front 21

Sucrase-isomaltase accounts for what share of intestinal sucrose hydrolysis?

A. About half
B. About two thirds
C. About 80%
D. Essentially all

back 21

D. Essentially all

front 22

Sucrase-isomaltase accounts for about what share of small-intestinal maltose hydrolysis?

A. 20%
B. 40%
C. 80%
D. 100%

back 22

C. 80%

front 23

Trehalase hydrolyzes glycosidic bonds in:

A. Lactose
B. Maltose
C. Sucrose
D. Trehalose

back 23

D. Trehalose

front 24

Trehalose is composed of:

A. Glucose plus galactose
B. Two glucosyl units
C. Glucose plus fructose
D. Galactose plus fructose

back 24

B. Two glucosyl units

front 25

The beta-glycosidase complex is also known as:

A. Sucrase-maltase
B. Lactase-glucosylceramidase
C. Glucoamylase-isomaltase
D. Maltase-phosphorylase

back 25

B. Lactase-glucosylceramidase

front 26

The beta-glycosidase complex hydrolyzes the bond between glucose and galactose in lactose. That bond is:

A. Alpha
B. Beta
C. Ester
D. Peptide

back 26

B. Beta

front 27

The beta-glycosidase complex hydrolyzes certain glycolipids containing glucose or galactose linked to:

A. Cholesterol
B. Ceramide
C. Bilirubin
D. Lecithin

back 27

B. Ceramide

front 28

The catalytic site responsible for that beta-glycosidase complex activity is called:

A. Enterokinase
B. Phlorizin hydrolase
C. Lactulose synthase
D. Sucrase core

back 28

B. Phlorizin hydrolase

front 29

Sucrase-isomaltase and beta-glycosidase activities are highest in the:

A. Duodenum
B. Jejunum
C. Ileum
D. Colon

back 29

B. Jejunum

front 30

Glucoamylase activity rises along the intestine and is highest in the:

A. Duodenum
B. Jejunum
C. Ileum
D. Cecum

back 30

C. Ileum

front 31

Congenital lactase deficiency follows which inheritance pattern?

A. Autosomal dominant
B. X-linked recessive
C. Mitochondrial
D. Autosomal recessive

back 31

D. Autosomal recessive

front 32

In congenital lactase deficiency, the deficient enzyme activity is:

A. Trehalase
B. Lactase
C. Sucrase
D. Glucoamylase

back 32

B. Lactase

front 33

An infant develops diarrhea, weight loss, and dehydration soon after breast-feeding begins. The best diagnosis is:

A. Secondary lactase deficiency
B. Congenital lactase deficiency
C. Sucrase-isomaltase deficiency
D. Glucose-galactose malabsorption

back 33

B. Congenital lactase deficiency

front 34

The best treatment for congenital lactase deficiency is:

A. High-sucrose diet
B. Gluten restriction
C. No lactose diet
D. High-fiber supplementation

back 34

C. No lactose diet

front 35

In adult hypolactasia, lactase levels are:

A. Completely absent
B. Increased markedly
C. Decreased less severely
D. Replaced by sucrase

back 35

C. Decreased less severely

front 36

Lactase deficiency caused by villous injury is termed:

A. Congenital deficiency
B. Primary deficiency
C. Secondary deficiency
D. Isolated deficiency

back 36

C. Secondary deficiency

front 37

Acute lactose intolerance developing after a GI infection most strongly suggests:

A. Congenital lactase loss
B. Secondary lactase deficiency
C. Trehalase excess
D. Fructose malabsorption

back 37

B. Secondary lactase deficiency

front 38

In mucosal injury, lactase activity is characteristically:

A. Last lost, first recovered
B. First lost, last recovered
C. Unchanged throughout
D. Permanently absent always

back 38

B. First lost, last recovered

front 39

Secondary lactase deficiency is expected to recover because lactase activity:

A. Never returns
B. Always increases permanently
C. Usually comes back
D. Converts to sucrase

back 39

C. Usually comes back

front 40

Dietary fiber is beneficial in diverticular disease because it helps:

A. Acidify stool
B. Harden stool
C. Soften stool
D. Sterilize stool

back 40

C. Soften stool

front 41

Colonic bacteria metabolizing soluble fiber generate gases and:

A. Long-chain fatty acids
B. Short-chain fatty acids
C. Ketone bodies
D. Bile acids

back 41

B. Short-chain fatty acids

front 42

The short-chain fatty acids formed in the colon are absorbed by:

A. Hepatocytes
B. Pancreatic ducts
C. Colonic epithelial cells
D. Gastric chief cells

back 42

C. Colonic epithelial cells

front 43

After absorption, these short-chain fatty acids are used primarily for:

A. Hemoglobin synthesis
B. Energy
C. Urea production
D. Ketogenesis only

back 43

B. Energy

front 44

Which soluble fibers reduce cholesterol levels?

A. Cellulose and inulin
B. Pectins and beta-glucan
C. Lignin and glycogen
D. Lactose and trehalose

back 44

B. Pectins and beta-glucan

front 45

The cholesterol-lowering effect of Pectins and beta-glucans acts at the level of:

A. Chylomicrons
B. Bile acids
C. GLUT transporters
D. Lactase activity

back 45

B. Bile acids

front 46

Pectin can help in diabetes mainly by:

A. Increasing fructose uptake
B. Slowing simple sugar absorption
C. Blocking insulin release
D. Stimulating glucagon secretion

back 46

B. Slowing simple sugar absorption

front 47

GLUT5 is located on the luminal side of intestinal epithelial cells and transports:

A. Glucose
B. Galactose
C. Fructose
D. Mannose

back 47

C. Fructose

front 48

Which transporter is found in human erythrocytes and in the brain?

A. GLUT1
B. GLUT2
C. GLUT3
D. GLUT4

back 48

A. GLUT1

front 49

GLUT1 is characterized by:

A. Low affinity
B. High capacity
C. High affinity
D. Insulin dependence

back 49

C. High affinity

front 50

Which transporter is found in liver, kidney, pancreatic beta cells, and the serosal surface of intestinal mucosal cells?

A. GLUT1
B. GLUT2
C. GLUT3
D. GLUT5

back 50

B. GLUT2

front 51

GLUT2 is best described as:

A. High affinity, low capacity
B. Insulin sensitive, high affinity
C. High capacity, low affinity
D. Neuron specific, high affinity

back 51

C. High capacity, low affinity

front 52

Which transporter is found only in neurons?

A. GLUT1
B. GLUT2
C. GLUT3
D. GLUT4

back 52

C. GLUT3

front 53

GLUT3 is characterized by:

A. High affinity
B. Low affinity
C. Low capacity
D. Insulin responsiveness

back 53

A. High affinity

front 54

Which transporter is found in adipose tissue, skeletal muscle, and cardiac muscle?

A. GLUT1
B. GLUT2
C. GLUT4
D. GLUT5

back 54

C. GLUT4

front 55

GLUT4 is best described as:

A. Fructose specific
B. Insulin sensitive
C. Neuron specific
D. Erythrocyte specific

back 55

B. Insulin sensitive

front 56

In skeletal muscle, which additional stimulus increases GLUT4 numbers?

A. Fasting
B. Exercise
C. Glucagon
D. Lactose

back 56

B. Exercise

front 57

GLUT4 has:

A. High affinity
B. Low affinity
C. No tissue specificity
D. No insulin response

back 57

A. High affinity

front 58

Which transporter is found in intestinal epithelium and spermatozoa?

A. GLUT2
B. GLUT3
C. GLUT4
D. GLUT5

back 58

D. GLUT5

front 59

The presence of GLUT5 in spermatozoa is linked to their use of:

A. Galactose
B. Fructose
C. Glycogen
D. Lactate

back 59

B. Fructose

front 60

The hypoglycemic response results from decreased glucose supply to the:

A. Liver
B. Pancreas
C. Brain
D. Kidney

back 60

C. Brain

front 61

The majority of dietary carbohydrate calories in many diets comes from which plant starch polysaccharides found in grains, tubers, and vegetables?

A. Lactose and trehalose
B. Amylopectin and amylose
C. Glycogen and cellulose
D. Sucrose and lactose

back 61

B. Amylopectin and amylose

front 62

Amylose is best described as a polymer of glucosyl residues linked mainly by:

A. α-1,6 bonds
B. β-1,4 bonds
C. α-1,2 bonds
D. α-1,4 bonds

back 62

D. α-1,4 bonds

front 63

Amylopectin contains a main chain of α-1,4 bonds with branches formed by:

A. β-1,6 bonds
B. α-1,6 bonds
C. β-1,4 bonds
D. α-1,2 bonds

back 63

B. α-1,6 bonds

front 64

Sucrose is a disaccharide composed of:

A. Glucose and galactose
B. Glucose and fructose
C. Fructose and galactose
D. Two glucose units

back 64

B. Glucose and fructose

front 65

The glycosidic linkage in sucrose is:

A. β-1,4
B. α-1,6
C. α-1,2
D. β-1,2

back 65

C. α-1,2

front 66

Lactose is the major animal carbohydrate and is composed of:

A. Glucose and fructose
B. Glucose and galactose
C. Fructose and galactose
D. Two glucoses

back 66

B. Glucose and galactose

front 67

The glycosidic linkage in lactose is:

A. β-1,4
B. α-1,2
C. α-1,4
D. α-1,6

back 67

A. β-1,4

front 68

α-Amylase hydrolyzes which bonds?

A. Internal α-1,4 bonds
B. Terminal α-1,6 bonds
C. Internal β-1,4 bonds
D. Terminal β-1,6 bonds

back 68

A. Internal α-1,4 bonds

front 69

Salivary amylase is:

A. Digested by pepsin only
B. Inactivated by stomach acid
C. Blocked by bile salts
D. Removed by enterocytes

back 69

B. Inactivated by stomach acid

front 70

Which statement about amylase substrate specificity is correct?

A. It hydrolyzes α-1,4 and α-1,6
B. It hydrolyzes only α-1,4-linked glucose polymers
C. It hydrolyzes all glucose polymers
D. It hydrolyzes β-1,4 cellulose bonds

back 70

B. It hydrolyzes only α-1,4-linked glucose polymers

front 71

Acarbose lowers postprandial glucose primarily by inhibiting pancreatic α-amylase and:

A. Lactose transporters
B. Brush-border α-glucosidases
C. Hepatic glycogenolysis
D. Colonic fermentation

back 71

B. Brush-border α-glucosidases

front 72

Acarbose is used mainly in patients with:

A. Type 1 diabetes
B. Celiac disease
C. Type 2 diabetes
D. Hereditary fructose intolerance

back 72

C. Type 2 diabetes

front 73

Acarbose is not used often mainly because it commonly causes:

A. Constipation and nausea
B. Flatulence and diarrhea
C. Hemolysis and rash
D. Bradycardia and edema

back 73

B. Flatulence and diarrhea

front 74

Brush-border glycosidases are collectively referred to as:

A. Small-intestinal disaccharidases
B. Pancreatic oligosaccharidases
C. Gastric exoglycosidases
D. Hepatic glucanases

back 74

A. Small-intestinal disaccharidases

front 75

Which of the following is one of the four brush-border glycosidases discussed?

A. Enterokinase
B. Glucoamylase
C. Ptyalin
D. Hexokinase

back 75

B. Glucoamylase

front 76

Which listed enzyme is another brush-border glycosidase from this set?

A. Sucrase-isomaltase complex
B. Pepsin
C. Glycogen phosphorylase
D. Trypsin

back 76

A. Sucrase-isomaltase complex

front 77

Which listed enzyme is another brush-border glycosidase from this set?

A. Trehalase
B. Pepsin
C. Glycogen phosphorylase
D. Trypsin

back 77

A. Trehalase

front 78

Which listed enzyme is another brush-border glycosidase from this set?

A. B-glucosidase complex
B. Pepsin
C. Glycogen phosphorylase
D. Trypsin

back 78

A. B-glucosidase complex

front 79

Glucoamylase is a long polypeptide chain that forms:

A. One catalytic barrel
B. Two globular domains
C. Three transmembrane subunits
D. Four proteolytic chains

back 79

B. Two globular domains

front 80

Each glucoamylase globular domain contains:

A. A lipid anchor
B. A catalytic site
C. An ATPase core
D. A bile-binding loop

back 80

B. A catalytic site

front 81

Glucoamylase is protected from digestion because it is heavily:

A. Sulfated
B. Phosphorylated
C. Glycosylated
D. Ubiquitinated

back 81

C. Glycosylated

front 82

Glucoamylase is an exoglycosidase specific for:

A. α-1,6 bonds
B. β-1,4 bonds
C. α-1,2 bonds
D. α-1,4 bonds

back 82

D. α-1,4 bonds

front 83

Glucoamylase begins digestion from the:

A. Reducing end
B. Nonreducing end
C. Branch point only
D. Middle of chain

back 83

B. Nonreducing end

front 84

The sucrase-isomaltase complex protrudes into the lumen and is clipped into two subunits by an:

A. Hepatic enzyme
B. Intestinal protease
C. Pancreatic lipase
D. Salivary esterase

back 84

B. Intestinal protease

front 85

After cleavage, the two sucrase-isomaltase subunits remain attached through:

A. Disulfide bonds only
B. Noncovalent interactions
C. Peptide crosslinks
D. Tight junctions

back 85

B. Noncovalent interactions

front 86

Both subunits of the sucrase-isomaltase complex contain:

A. A catalytic site
B. A transporter pore
C. A chloride channel
D. A kinase domain

back 86

A. A catalytic site

front 87

The isomaltase-maltase site accounts for almost all intestinal hydrolysis of:

A. β-1,4 bonds
B. α-1,6 bonds
C. α-1,2 bonds
D. β-1,6 bonds

back 87

B. α-1,6 bonds

front 88

A brush-border enzyme sequentially removes glucose from linear starch fragments but cannot cleave branch points. Which bond does it hydrolyze?

A. β-1,4 bond
B. α-1,4 bond
C. β-1,6 bond
D. α-1,6 bond

back 88

B. α-1,4 bond

front 89

An oligosaccharide branch point persists until acted on by isomaltase. Which linkage required isomaltase?

A. α-1,2 linkage
B. β-1,4 linkage
C. α-1,4 linkage
D. α-1,6 linkage

back 89

D. α-1,6 linkage

front 90

After debranching, a remaining linear glucan bond can be hydrolyzed by either glucoamylase or isomaltase. Which bond is this?

A. α-1,4 linkage
B. α-1,1 linkage
C. β-1,4 linkage
D. β-1,6 linkage

back 90

A. α-1,4 linkage

front 91

Trehalose is best described as a disaccharide composed of:

A. Glucose and fructose
B. Glucose and galactose
C. Two glucose molecules
D. Two galactose molecules

back 91

C. Two glucose molecules

front 92

Trehalase hydrolyzes which bond in trehalose?

A. α-1,1 linkage
B. α-1,4 linkage
C. β-1,4 linkage
D. α-1,6 linkage

back 92

A. α-1,1 linkage

front 93

Trehalase is notable for having:

A. Two catalytic domains
B. No membrane anchor
C. Three active sites
D. One catalytic site

back 93

D. One catalytic site

front 94

Which large brush-border glycoprotein has two catalytic sites and also functions as lactase?

A. Trehalase
B. β-glucosidase complex
C. Glucoamylase
D. Sucrase-isomaltase

back 94

B. β-glucosidase complex

front 95

The β-glucosidase complex is attached to the membrane through its carboxyl end by a:

A. Sulfate bridge
B. Cholesterol anchor
C. Peptide tether
D. Phosphatidylglycan anchor

back 95

D. Phosphatidylglycan anchor

front 96

The lactase site of the β-glucosidase complex hydrolyzes which bond in lactose?

A. α-1,4 bond
B. β-1,4 bond
C. α-1,2 bond
D. α-1,6 bond

back 96

B. β-1,4 bond

front 97

The second catalytic site of the β-glucosidase complex hydrolyzes a bond between a sugar and:

A. Ceramide
B. Cholesterol
C. Glycerol
D. Sphingomyelin

back 97

A. Ceramide

front 98

Phlorizin hydrolase activity refers to cleavage of a β-glycosidic bond in:

A. Sucrose
B. Trehalose
C. Glycolipids
D. Amylopectin

back 98

C. Glycolipids

front 99

In the small intestine, sucrase-isomaltase activity is highest in the:

A. Jejunum
B. Duodenum
C. Ileum
D. Colon

back 99

A. Jejunum

front 100

Overall brush-border glycosidase activity is highest in the:

A. Ileum
B. Jejunum
C. Colon
D. Stomach

back 100

B. Jejunum

front 101

Glucoamylase activity reaches its highest level in the:

A. Duodenum
B. Jejunum
C. Cecum
D. Ileum

back 101

B. Jejunum

front 102

Along the small intestine, glucoamylase activity generally increases toward the:

A. Ileum
B. Duodenum
C. Stomach
D. Pylorus

back 102

A. Ileum

front 103

Which carbohydrate is more resistant to digestion because it is less well hydrated?

A. Trehalose
B. Lactose
C. Glycogen
D. Amylose-rich starch

back 103

D. Amylose-rich starch

front 104

In the colon, undigested sugars are rapidly metabolized by bacteria to gases, lactate, and:

A. Ketone bodies
B. Bile acids
C. Short-chain fatty acids
D. Amino acids

back 104

C. Short-chain fatty acids

front 105

Which set lists the major gases formed by colonic bacterial sugar metabolism?

A. Oxygen, nitrogen, helium
B. H2, CO2, CH4
C. CO, O2, H2S
D. NH3, CO2, N2

back 105

B. H2, CO2, CH4

cause flatulence

front 106

Incomplete sugar digestion causes diarrhea primarily by increasing:

A. Gastric motility
B. Colonic water retention
C. Pancreatic secretion
D. Bile acid synthesis

back 106

B. Colonic water retention

front 107

In lactose intolerance, unabsorbed lactose is converted by colonic bacteria to gas and:

A. Ethanol
B. Acetone
C. Lactic acid
D. Urea

back 107

C. Lactic acid

front 108

Lactase activity normally peaks at about:

A. One month after birth
B. One year after birth
C. Birth
D. Puberty

back 108

A. One month after birth

front 109

Lactase activity usually declines to adult levels by approximately:

A. 1 to 2 years
B. 3 to 4 years
C. 10 to 12 years
D. 5 to 7 years

back 109

D. 5 to 7 years

front 110

Adult hypolactasia is associated with which phenotype?

A. Persistence phenotype
B. Malabsorption phenotype
C. Nonpersistence phenotype
D. Hypersecretion phenotype

back 110

C. Nonpersistence phenotype

front 111

In lactose intolerance, diarrhea reflects the osmotic effects of lactose and:

A. Lactic acid
B. Histamine
C. Bicarbonate
D. Uric acid

back 111

A. Lactic acid

front 112

Which set contains only insoluble dietary fibers?

A. Pectins, gums, mucilages
B. Cellulose, hemicellulose, lignins
C. Mucilages, cellulose, gums
D. Lignins, pectins, gums

back 112

B. Cellulose, hemicellulose, lignins

front 113

Which set contains only soluble dietary fibers?

A. Lignins, cellulose, gums
B. Cellulose, mucilages, lignins
C. Pectins, mucilages, gums
D. Hemicellulose, pectins, lignins

back 113

C. Pectins, mucilages, gums

front 114

Which fiber type is most readily digested by colonic bacteria to produce gas and short-chain fatty acids?

A. Soluble fiber
B. Insoluble lignin
C. Resistant ceramide
D. Brush-border starch

back 114

A. Soluble fiber

front 115

Which set lists the major short-chain fatty acids formed by colonic bacterial sugar metabolism?

A. Lactic, pyruvic, citric
B. Acetic, succinic, fumaric
C. Butyric, oxaloacetic, lactic
D. Acetic, propionic, butyric

back 115

D. Acetic, propionic, butyric

front 116

Flatulence from carbohydrate malabsorption is caused mainly by bacterial generation of:

A. Bile salts
B. H2, CO2, CH4
C. Lactase and trehalase
D. Acetylcholine and gastrin

back 116

B. H2, CO2, CH4

front 117

A patient with chronic constipation is advised to increase soluble fiber that can also lower serum cholesterol by binding bile acids. Which fiber is this?

A. Cellulose
B. Pectins
C. Lignins
D. Hemicellulose

back 117

B. Pectins

front 118

The glycemic index of a food refers to:

A. Intestinal glucose uptake capacity
B. Amount of carbohydrate absorbed
C. Postprandial insulin secretion
D. Rate blood glucose rises

back 118

D. Rate blood glucose rises

front 119

Which carbohydrate has one of the highest glycemic indices?

A. Glucose
B. Fructose
C. Lactose
D. Pectin

back 119

A. Glucose

front 120

Which additional sugar has one of the highest glycemic indices?

A. Sucrose
B. Fructose
C. Maltose
D. Galactose

back 120

C. Maltose

front 121

On the luminal side of enterocytes, glucose is absorbed primarily by:

A. Na-dependent transporters
B. Facilitated diffusion only
C. Passive paracellular flow
D. H+-coupled cotransport

back 121

A. Na-dependent transporters

front 122

The low intracellular sodium concentration that drives luminal glucose uptake is maintained by the:

A. Na/H exchanger
B. Na-K ATPase
C. Ca ATPase
D. H/K ATPase

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B. Na-K ATPase

front 123

Glucose exits enterocytes across the serosal membrane primarily by:

A. Na-coupled cotransport
B. Secondary active transport
C. Endocytosis
D. Facilitative transporters

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D. Facilitative transporters

front 124

Glucose movement from enterocyte to blood normally requires:

A. ATP hydrolysis directly
B. Luminal sodium entry
C. No direct energy use
D. Brush-border peptidases

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C. No direct energy use

front 125

Which structural feature is shared by all GLUT transporters?

A. Two catalytic subunits
B. Six membrane domains
C. Twelve membrane domains
D. An ATP-binding site

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C. Twelve membrane domains

front 126

Galactose absorption from lumen into enterocytes occurs by the same mechanism as:

A. Glucose
B. Fructose
C. Mannose
D. Lactate

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A. Glucose

front 127

Galactose exits enterocytes into blood primarily by:

A. Na-dependent cotransport
B. Facilitative transporters
C. Endocytic vesicles
D. Chloride exchange

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B. Facilitative transporters

front 128

Fructose enters enterocytes from the lumen by:

A. Na-dependent uptake
B. Secondary active transport
C. Endocytosis
D. Facilitated diffusion

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D. Facilitated diffusion

front 129

In most cells, glucose uptake is usually not the rate-limiting step because GLUTs generally have:

A. Low Km or high abundance
B. High Km only
C. ATPase activity
D. Sodium coupling only

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A. Low Km or high abundance

front 130

Glucose crossing from blood into extracellular CSF at the blood-brain barrier primarily uses:

A. GLUT2
B. GLUT4
C. GLUT5
D. GLUT1

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D. GLUT1

front 131

Transport of glucose from blood into brain tissue is primarily mediated by:

A. GLUT1
B. GLUT2
C. GLUT3
D. GLUT4

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C. GLUT3

front 132

A lactose-intolerant patient avoiding dairy should pay particular attention to replacing:

A. Calcium
B. Iron
C. Potassium
D. Phosphate

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A. Calcium

front 133

A diabetic is advised to eat oatmeal, beans, and apples because gel-forming fibers can:

A. Delay gastric emptying
B. Stimulate insulin release
C. Raise glycemic index
D. Block fructose uptake

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A. Delay gastric emptying

front 134

The same gel-forming fibers also help by:

A. Increasing starch hydrolysis
B. Enhancing bile secretion
C. Slowing sugar absorption
D. Accelerating gastric emptying

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C. Slowing sugar absorption

front 135

A patient suspected of carbohydrate malabsorption should undergo which test after a sugar load?

A. D-xylose test
B. Hydrogen breath test
C. Schilling test
D. Secretin stimulation test

back 135

B. Hydrogen breath test

front 136

In cholera, the organism first:

A. Invades enterocytes deeply
B. Destroys villi directly
C. Attaches to brush border
D. Blocks lactase synthesis

back 136

C. Attaches to brush border

front 137

Cholera toxin binds irreversibly to which cell-surface receptor?

A. GLUT5
B. GM1 ganglioside
C. SGLT1
D. CFTR

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D. CFTR

front 138

Cholera toxin then catalyzes:

A. Protein dephosphorylation
B. DNA strand cleavage
C. Glycolipid hydrolysis
D. ADP-ribosylation

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D. ADP-ribosylation

front 139

Increased enterocyte cAMP in cholera most directly decreases intestinal:

A. Glucose transport
B. Peptide hydrolysis
C. Potassium secretion
D. Na/anion/water absorption

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D. Na/anion/water absorption

front 140

Cholera toxin also directly stimulates intestinal:

A. Calcium absorption
B. Bicarbonate loss
C. Chloride secretion
D. Lactase synthesis

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C. Chloride secretion