During embryological development the CNS arises from a sheet of ectodermal cells that folds over to form the
A. Choroid plexus
B. Brain ventricles
C. Neural tube
D. Meninges

C. Neural tube

The fluid-filled cavities within the neural tube develop into which CSF-containing structures?
A. Ventricles
B. Dendrites
C. Cranial nerves
D. Meninges

A. Ventricles

During early development:

Hindbrain: ______

Midbrain: ______

Forebrain: ______

Rhombencephalon

Mesencephalon

Prosencephalon

A developmental anatomist labels the forebrain as “prosencephalon.” It subdivides into:
A. Metencephalon and myelencephalon
B. Telencephalon and diencephalon
C. Thalamus and hypothalamus
D. Pons and cerebellum

B. Telencephalon and diencephalon

A tumor localizes to the diencephalon and disrupts two major nuclei there. Which pair is most consistent?

Thalamus and hypothalamus

telencephalon becomes? ______

cerebrum

metencephalon becomes ____ and ____

myencephalon becomes ____ ____

pons and cerebelllum

medulla oblongata

A ventricular mass causes CSF overproduction by enlarging vascular tufts within ventricles. These tufts are the:
A. Choroid plexus
B. Arachnoid
C. Pia
D. Dura

A. Choroid plexus

Give me the path that the CSF flows:
A. Lateral to third to fourth
B. Third to fourth to lateral
C. Second to lateral to third
D. Third to fourth to fifth

A. Lateral to third to fourth

After leaving the ventricles, CSF percolates around the brain and spinal cord in which space?
A. Between dura and arachnoid
B. Between pia and brain
C. Between arachnoid and pia
D. Within the neural tube

C. Between arachnoid and pia

After circulating around the CNS surface, CSF is ultimately reabsorbed into the:
A. Venous system
B. Arterial system
C. Lymphatic vessels
D. Ventricular lumen

A. Venous system

Humans have an upright posture, producing a nearly 90° bend in the nervous system near the:
A. Lateral ventricle
B. Fourth ventricle
C. Midbrain–diencephalic junction
D. Rhombencephalon

C. Midbrain–diencephalic junction

What happens to the Ventral-Rostral-Caudal-Dorsal map above the midbrain
A. it ticks counterclock-wise once
B. it ticks counterclock-wise twice
C. it ticks counterclock-wise thrice
D. it ticks counterclock-wise never

A. it ticks counterclock-wise once

____ are the primary structures on a neuron that receive inputs from other neurons.
A. Axon
B. Nucleus
C. Ventricles
D. Dendrites

D. Dendrites

Dan is popular and gets invites from others

A demyelinating process preferentially slows propagation along the process carrying most neuronal outputs. Which process is this?
A. Axon
B. Dendrite
C. Glial process
D. Pia

A. Axon

In mammals, the most common neuronal morphology has several dendrites and an axon. This neuron is:
A. Unipolar
B. Bipolar
C. Multipolar
D. Pseudo-unipolar

C. Multipolar

What does bipolar mean?
A. One dendrite, one axon
B. Many dendrites, one axon
C. One dendrite, many axons
D. Many dendrites, many axons

A. One dendrite, one axon

A patient has a disorder affecting sensory pathways used for vision or olfaction. The implicated neurons are often:
A. Multipolar
B. Bipolar
C. Unipolar
D. Glial

B. Bipolar

Sensory neurons in the peripheral nervous system (PNS) with a single, T-shaped bifurcating axon (one branch to the periphery, one to the spinal cord/brain) and no true dendrites:
A. Multipolar
B. Bipolar
C. Unipolar
D. Pseudo-unipolar

D. Pseudo-unipolar

Cell bodies in which structure are classic examples of pseudo-unipolar sensory neurons?
A. Dorsal root ganglion
B. Choroid plexus
C. Lateral ventricle
D. Dura

A. Dorsal root ganglion

A lab records millisecond postsynaptic voltage changes that can depolarize or hyperpolarize a neuron. These are best classified as:
A. Neuromodulatory responses
B. Action potentials
C. Ventricular rhythms
D. EPSPs and IPSPs

D. EPSPs and IPSPs

A transmitter effect unfolds over seconds to minutes, altering circuit responsiveness rather than producing discrete fast potentials. This function is:
A. Neuromodulation
B. IPSP generation
C. EPSP generation
D. Saltatory conduction

A. Neuromodulation

In the CNS, the most common excitatory neurotransmitter is:

Glutamate

In the CNS, the most common inhibitory neurotransmitter is:

GABA

At the neuromuscular junction in the PNS, the main transmitter is

Acetylcholine

Short exposed axonal segments with high concentrations of voltage-gated ion channels are:
A. Synaptic clefts
B. Axon hillocks
C. Nodes of Ranvier
D. Neural foramina

C. Nodes of Ranvier

The structure primarily described as “vascular tufts within ventricles” is NOT responsible for which function?
A. CSF formation
B. Neurotransmitter release
C. Ventricular localization
D. Fluid production

B. Neurotransmitter release

Regions of the CNS composed mainly of myelinated axons are called:
A. Gray matter
B. White matter
C. Cerebral cortex
D. Ganglia

B. White matter

Regions composed mainly of neuronal cell bodies are called:
A. White matter
B. Commissures
C. Gray matter
D. Peripheral nerves

C. Gray matter

Most local synaptic communication between CNS neurons occurs primarily in:
A. White matter
B. Gray matter
C. Choroid plexus
D. Ventricles

B. Gray matter

Axons specialized for transmitting signals over greater distances are found primarily in:
A. White matter
B. Gray matter
C. Cerebral cortex
D. Ganglia

A. White matter

The unique mantle of gray matter covering the cerebral hemispheres is the:

A. Medulla
B. Pons
C. Cerebral cortex
D. Diencephalon

C. Cerebral cortex

Large clusters of gray matter cell bodies within the CNS are called:
A. Ganglia
B. Nerves
C. Nodes
D. Nuclei

D. Nuclei

In the cerebral hemispheres, the typical arrangement is:
A. White outside, gray inside
B. Gray outside, white inside
C. Gray only, no white
D. White only, no gray

B. Gray outside, white inside

In the spinal cord, the typical arrangement is:
A. Gray outside, white inside
B. White only, no gray
C. White outside, gray center
D. Gray outside, white center

C. White outside, gray center

In the brainstem, which statement best matches gross organization?
A. Only gray on surface
B. Only white on surface
C. Gray and white mixed
D. Gray absent entirely

C. Gray and white mixed

A tract connects right and left CNS structures across the midline. This white matter pathway is a:
A. Nucleus
B. Commissure
C. Ganglion
D. Cortex

B. Commissure

In the PNS, bundles of axons are called:
A. Nuclei
B. Commissures
C. Peripheral nerves
D. Ventricles

C. Peripheral nerves

In the PNS, clusters of neuronal cell bodies are called:
A. Ganglia
B. Nuclei
C. Commissures
D. Cortex

A. Ganglia

A lesion interrupts sensory information traveling from the periphery toward the CNS. The interrupted signal type is:
A. Efferent
B. Neuromodulatory
C. Commissural
D. Afferent

D. Afferent

A lesion interrupts motor commands traveling from the CNS to skeletal muscle. The interrupted signal type is:
A. Afferent
B. Commissural
C. Efferent
D. Neuromodulatory

C. Efferent

Each spinal cord segment gives rise to which pair of roots on each side?
A. Two sensory roots
B. Two motor roots
C. Sensory and motor roots
D. Commissural and association roots

C. Sensory and motor roots

A stabbing injury selectively damages dorsal nerve roots. The most direct deficit is loss of:
A. Afferent sensory signals
B. Efferent motor signals
C. CSF reabsorption
D. Cortical gray matter

A. Afferent sensory signals

A herniation compresses ventral nerve roots. The most direct deficit is loss of:
A. Afferent sensory signals
B. Efferent motor signals
C. Commissural signaling
D. Neuromodulation

B. Efferent motor signals

The adult spinal cord ends near:
A. T12 vertebra
B. L1 or L2 vertebrae
C. L4 or L5 vertebrae
D. S1 vertebra

B. L1 or L2 vertebrae

A synapse is pharmacologically silenced by preventing synaptic vesicles from releasing their contents. What communication is most directly impaired?
A. Chemical postsynaptic signaling
B. White matter conduction
C. Commissural crossing
D. Ganglionic clustering

A. Chemical postsynaptic signaling

After an L2 burst fracture, descending lumbar nerve roots in the canal are compressed. What structure is involved?
A. Cauda equina
B. Conus medullaris
C. Brachial plexus
D. Cervical enlargement

A. Cauda equina

Cervical and lumbosacral enlargements contain increased gray matter primarily because they have
A. More commissural fibers
B. More limb motor neurons
C. More CSF circulation
D. More cortical folding

B. More limb motor neurons

A patient has impaired peristalsis and gut secretion control from a plexus within the gut wall. Which division is this?
A. Sympathetic division
B. Enteric nervous system
C. Parasympathetic division
D. Peripheral nerves

B. Enteric nervous system

Deep crevices and infoldings of the cerebral cortex are called:
A. Sulci
B. Gyri
C. Nuclei
D. Ganglia

A. Sulci

The ridges of cortex between sulci are called:
A. Sulci
B. Gyri
C. Ganglia
D. Nuclei

B. Gyri

The frontal lobe extends posteriorly to which landmark?
A. Calcarine fissure
B. Lateral fissure
C. Central sulcus
D. Parietooccipital sulcus

C. Central sulcus

During a pterional approach, the surgeon identifies the Sylvian fissure. What is its other common name?
A. Central sulcus
B. Calcarine fissure
C. Parietooccipital sulcus
D. Lateral fissure

D. Lateral fissure

A hemorrhage tracks along the deep Sylvian fissure. This fissure primarily separates which lobes laterally/inferiorly?
A. Parietal and occipital lobes
B. Frontal and temporal lobes
C. Left and right hemispheres
D. Temporal and occipital lobes

B. Frontal and temporal lobes

The parietal lobe is bounded anteriorly by the:
A. Lateral fissure
B. Parietooccipital sulcus
C. Central sulcus
D. Calcarine fissure

C. Central sulcus

On a medial view, which sulcus separates parietal from occipital lobes?
A. Calcarine fissure
B. Parietooccipital sulcus
C. Central sulcus
D. Lateral fissure

B. Parietooccipital sulcus

A focal seizure focus is “buried” deep within the Sylvian fissure. Which cortex is implicated?
A. Cingulate gyrus
B. Cuneus
C. Gyrus rectus
D. Insular cortex

D. Insular cortex

The anterior “lip” covering the insula is formed by which structure?
A. Parietal operculum
B. Supramarginal gyrus
C. Frontal operculum
D. Angular gyrus

C. Frontal operculum

The posterior “lip” covering the insula is formed by which structure?
A. Frontal operculum
B. Parietal operculum
C. Precentral gyrus
D. Postcentral gyrus

B. Parietal operculum

The two cerebral hemispheres are separated at midline by the:
A. Lateral fissure
B. Central sulcus
C. Interhemispheric fissure
D. Parietooccipital sulcus

C. Interhemispheric fissure

Another accepted name for the interhemispheric fissure is the:
A. Lateral fissure
B. Central sulcus
C. Calcarine fissure
D. Longitudinal fissure

D. Longitudinal fissure

In split-brain surgery, the surgeon transects a large C-shaped white matter band. What was cut?

Corpus callosum

Damage to this structure disrupts connections between both homologous and heterologous cortical areas. Which structure is described?
A. Central sulcus
B. Lateral fissure
C. Intraparietal sulcus
D. Corpus callosum

D. Corpus callosum

The superior, middle, and inferior frontal gyri are subdivided by which sulci?
A. Superior and inferior frontal sulci
B. Superior and middle temporal sulci
C. Intraparietal sulcus
D. Parietooccipital sulcus

A. Superior and inferior frontal sulci

The superior, middle, and inferior temporal gyri are divided by which sulci?
A. Superior and inferior frontal sulci
B. Intraparietal sulcus
C. Parietooccipital sulcus
D. Superior and inferior temporal sulci

D. Superior and inferior temporal sulci

Which sulcus divides the superior from inferior parietal lobule?
A. Intraparietal sulcus
B. Central sulcus
C. Calcarine fissure
D. Lateral fissure

A. Intraparietal sulcus

A left precentral gyrus infarct most likely causes:
A. Right leg weakness
B. Right facial weakness
C. Right visual loss
D. Right hearing loss

B. Right facial weakness

the MCA is often involved, supplied by lateral cortex.

A right postcentral gyrus lesion most likely causes:
A. Left leg numbness
B. Left arm numbness
C. Bilateral leg weakness
D. Left hearing loss

B. Left arm numbness

Primary visual cortex lies along the banks of the:
A. Central sulcus
B. Lateral fissure
C. Calcarine fissure
D. Intraparietal sulcus

C. Calcarine fissure

A right calcarine cortex stroke most likely impairs:
A. Right visual field
B. Left visual field
C. Bilateral auditory input
D. Ipsilateral limb strength

B. Left visual field

Primary auditory cortex is primarily composed of:
A. Angular gyrus
B. Transverse Heschl gyri
C. Cuneus cortex
D. Fusiform gyri

B. Transverse Heschl gyri

The transverse gyri of Heschl lie:
A. On calcarine banks
B. In Sylvian fissure
C. On interhemispheric fissure
D. In central sulcus

B. In Sylvian fissure

Tonotopic organization refers to mapping:
A. Retinal position
B. Body surface
C. Cochlear frequency
D. Thalamic nuclei

C. Cochlear frequency

Retinotopic organization refers to mapping:
A. Body surface
B. Retinal adjacency
C. Cochlear frequency
D. Spinal segments

B. Retinal adjacency

“Motor homunculus” most directly refers to:
A. Somatotopic cortical map
B. Retinotopic visual map
C. Tonotopic auditory map
D. Commissural white matter

A. Somatotopic cortical map

Compared with vision, auditory cortex input is:
A. Strictly contralateral
B. Strictly ipsilateral
C. Strongly lateralized
D. Mixed from both ears

D. Mixed from both ears

A unilateral primary auditory cortex lesion typically causes:
A. Profound unilateral deafness
B. Subtle localization deficits
C. Complete contralateral deafness
D. Complete ipsilateral deafness

B. Subtle localization deficits

Most cerebral cortex is:
A. Archicortex
B. Paleocortex
C. Neocortex
D. Allocortex

C. Neocortex

Neocortex has how many layers?
A. Four layers
B. Five layers
C. Six layers
D. Eight layers

C. Six layers

Neocortical layers are numbered I–VI:
A. Deep to superficial
B. Surface to deep
C. Medial to lateral
D. Posterior to anterior

B. Surface to deep

Layer I contains mainly:
A. Thalamic relay neurons
B. Dendrites and axons
C. Corticospinal cell bodies
D. Brainstem motor nuclei

B. Dendrites and axons

Layers II and III primarily project to:
A. Thalamus
B. Spinal cord
C. Other cortex
D. Peripheral ganglia

C. Other cortex

Layer IV primarily receives input from the:
A. Cerebellum
B. Thalamus
C. Basal ganglia
D. Spinal cord

B. Thalamus

Layer V neurons project mostly to:
A. Thalamus
B. Other cortex
C. Subcortical targets
D. Ventricular system

C. Subcortical targets

Layer VI primarily projects to the:
A. Thalamus
B. Brainstem
C. Spinal cord
D. Cerebellum

A. Thalamus

Primary motor cortex characteristically has:
A. Thick layer IV
B. Thin layer V
C. Thick layer V
D. Absent layer VI

C. Thick layer V

Primary visual cortex characteristically has:
A. Thick layer V
B. Thin layer IV
C. Thick layer IV
D. Absent layer I

C. Thick layer IV

The most important human motor pathway is the:
A. Spinothalamic tract
B. Dorsal column pathway
C. Corticospinal tract
D. Vestibulospinal tract

C. Corticospinal tract

Corticospinal tract neurons arise mainly from:
A. Postcentral gyrus
B. Primary motor cortex
C. Primary visual cortex
D. Primary auditory cortex

B. Primary motor cortex

“Pyramidal tract” is another name for:
A. Corticospinal tract
B. Spinocerebellar tract
C. Dorsal column tract
D. Reticulospinal tract

A. Corticospinal tract

“Pyramidal” refers to the tract’s shape in the:
A. Midbrain
B. Pons
C. Medulla
D. Cerebellum

C. Medulla

About what fraction of corticospinal fibers cross?
A. About 15%
B. About 50%
C. About 85%
D. About 100%

C. About 85%

Pyramidal decussation occurs at the:
A. Pons–midbrain junction
B. Medulla–spinal junction
C. Thalamus–cortex junction
D. Cervical–thoracic junction

B. Medulla–spinal junction

A lesion above pyramidal decussation causes weakness that is:
A. Ipsilateral to lesion
B. Contralateral to lesion
C. Bilateral and symmetric
D. Segmental only

B. Contralateral to lesion

A lesion below pyramidal decussation causes weakness that is:
A. Contralateral to lesion
B. Bilateral and symmetric
C. Ipsilateral to lesion
D. Only cranial nerve

C. Ipsilateral to lesion

Upper motor neurons are best defined as neurons that:
A. Innervate skeletal muscle directly
B. Project cortex to cord
C. Reside in dorsal root ganglia
D. Form peripheral nerve plexuses

B. Project cortex to cord

Lower motor neurons are located in:
A. Posterior horn gray matter
B. Anterior horn gray matter
C. Cerebral white matter
D. Thalamic relay nuclei

B. Anterior horn gray matter

Lower motor neurons may also reside in:
A. Visual cortex layer IV
B. Brainstem motor nuclei
C. Corpus callosum fibers
D. Cerebellar Purkinje layer

B. Brainstem motor nuclei

UMNs synapse most directly onto:
A. Schwann cells
B. Oligodendrocytes
C. Lower motor neurons
D. Thalamic relay neurons

C. Lower motor neurons

A spinal cord anterior horn lesion primarily damages:
A. Upper motor neurons
B. Lower motor neurons
C. Visual association cortex
D. Auditory association cortex

B. Lower motor neurons

A patient loses pain/temperature but preserves strength. Which cortical area is least implicated?
A. Postcentral gyrus
B. Precentral gyrus
C. Thalamic input layer
D. Somatosensory cortex

B. Precentral gyrus

LMN axons normally exit the CNS via:
A. Dorsal spinal roots
B. Anterior spinal roots
C. Posterior columns
D. Thalamic radiations

B. Anterior spinal roots

A brainstem motor nucleus LMN ultimately reaches skeletal muscle via:
A. Anterior spinal roots
B. Dorsal spinal roots
C. Posterior columns
D. Cranial nerves

D. Cranial nerves

To refine movement output, major feedback loops prominently include:
A. Cerebellum and basal ganglia
B. Thalamus and epithalamus
C. Dorsal roots and ganglia
D. Sulci and gyri

A. Cerebellum and basal ganglia

Cerebellar and basal ganglia feedback reaches motor cortex chiefly through the:
A. Spinal cord gray matter
B. Posterior column nuclei
C. Thalamus
D. Dorsal root ganglia

C. Thalamus

A patient has wide-based gait and dysmetria. The lesion most likely involves the:
A. Cerebellum
B. Basal ganglia
C. Thalamus
D. Epithalamus

A. Cerebellum

A patient has slow, rigid movements. The most consistent lesion site is:
A. Cerebellum
B. Thalamus
C. Motor cortex
D. Basal ganglia

D. Basal ganglia

A patient has dance-like, involuntary movements. The most consistent lesion site is:
A. Cerebellum
B. Basal ganglia
C. Thalamus
D. Postcentral gyrus

B. Basal ganglia

The major relay center for diverse signals to cortex is the:
A. Epithalamus
B. Brainstem
C. Thalamus
D. Cerebellum

C. Thalamus

Which sensory modality is the classic exception to thalamic relay?
A. Taste
B. Vision
C. Hearing
D. Olfaction

D. Olfaction

Thalami are best described as:
A. Gray matter structures
B. White matter commissures
C. Peripheral ganglia
D. Cortical sulci

A. Gray matter structures

Thalami are located deep within cerebral white matter, just:
A. Below the basal ganglia
B. In front of the brainstem
C. Above the brainstem
D. Within the cerebellum

C. Above the brainstem

Relative to the basal ganglia, the thalami lie:
A. Anterior
B. Behind
C. Lateral
D. Inferior

B. Behind

Virtually all cortical regions send strong projections back to thalamic input areas via layer:
A. VI
B. IV
C. II
D. I

A. VI

Which structure is part of the epithalamus?
A. Caudate nucleus
B. Lentiform nucleus
C. Internal capsule
D. Pineal body

D. Pineal body

The epithalamus encompasses small nuclei including:
A. Putamen and globus pallidus
B. Superior colliculus and pons
C. Habenula and pretectum
D. Dorsal horn and ventral horn

C. Habenula and pretectum

Proprioception, vibration, and fine touch ascend primarily via:
A. Anterolateral pathways
B. Posterior column pathways
C. Corticospinal tract
D. Cranial nerve nuclei

B. Posterior column pathways

Pain, temperature, and crude touch ascend primarily via:
A. Posterior columns
B. Corticospinal tract
C. Cerebellar circuits
D. Anterolateral pathways

D. Anterolateral pathways

Primary somatic sensory neuron cell bodies are located in the:
A. Dorsal root ganglia
B. Anterior horn
C. Posterior column nuclei
D. Thalamus

A. Dorsal root ganglia

Primary sensory neurons described here characteristically have:
A. Single short dendrites
B. No peripheral processes
C. Bifurcating axons
D. Purely motor axons

C. Bifurcating axons

In the posterior column pathway, primary axons ascend in the ipsilateral:
A. Spinal gray matter
B. Dorsal columns
C. Spinothalamic tract
D. Cerebellar cortex

B. Dorsal columns

Posterior column primary axons synapse first in the medulla at:
A. Posterior dorsal column nuclei
B. Ventral horn interneurons
C. Thalamic relay nuclei
D. Basal ganglia nuclei

A. Posterior dorsal column nuclei

In the posterior column pathway, the second-order axons cross in the:
A. Spinal cord
B. Thalamus
C. Cerebral cortex
D. Medulla

D. Medulla

After crossing, posterior column second-order axons ascend to the:
A. Cerebellum
B. Spinal cord gray matter
C. Thalamus
D. Posterior columns

C. Thalamus

In the anterolateral pathway, primary sensory axons synapse first in spinal:
A. White matter dorsal columns
B. Gray matter
C. Medullary nuclei
D. Thalamic nuclei

B. Gray matter

In the anterolateral pathway, second-order axons cross in the:
A. Medulla
B. Thalamus
C. Cerebral cortex
D. Spinal cord

D. Spinal cord

After crossing, anterolateral fibers ascend in the:
A. Spinothalamic tract
B. Posterior columns
C. Corticospinal tract
D. Corpus callosum

A. Spinothalamic tract

Both posterior column and anterolateral pathways relay in the:
A. Cerebellum
B. Thalamus
C. Basal ganglia
D. Epithalamus

B. Thalamus

A right posterior column lesion in the spinal cord most directly impairs:
A. Left pain and temperature
B. Right crude touch
C. Right vibration and proprioception
D. Bilateral motor output

C. Right vibration and proprioception

A left anterolateral tract lesion in the spinal cord most directly impairs:
A. Right pain and temperature
B. Right vibration and proprioception
C. Left fine touch
D. Bilateral auditory input

A. Right pain and temperature

The posterior column pathway is sometimes summarized as “crosses in the”:
A. Cervical cord
B. Thoracic cord
C. Lumbar cord
D. Medulla

D. Medulla

The anterolateral pathway is sometimes summarized as “crosses in the”:
A. Thalamus
B. Spinal cord
C. Medulla
D. Cortex

B. Spinal cord

The monosynaptic stretch reflex begins with receptors called:
A. Golgi tendon organs
B. Pacinian corpuscles
C. Muscle spindles
D. Merkel discs

C. Muscle spindles

Muscle spindles detect the amount and rate of:
A. Stretch
B. Pain
C. Temperature
D. Crude touch

A. Stretch

Stretch-reflex afferents enter spinal gray matter via:
A. Ventral roots
B. Anterior columns
C. Cranial nerves
D. Dorsal roots

D. Dorsal roots

the strech reflex is technically sensory, that is why this is dorsal roots

Stretch-reflex afferents synapse onto LMNs located in the:
A. Posterior horn
B. Anterior horn
C. Lateral horn
D. Thalamic nuclei

B. Anterior horn

In the stretch reflex, LMN axons exit back to muscle via:
A. Ventral roots
B. Dorsal roots
C. Posterior columns
D. Medullary nuclei

A. Ventral roots

Damage anywhere in this stretch-reflex arc most directly causes reflexes to be:
A. Hyperactive and brisk
B. Unchanged and normal
C. Diminished or absent
D. Painful but present

C. Diminished or absent

Beyond the monosynaptic arc, afferents also synapse onto spinal:
A. Pyramidal neurons
B. Purkinje cells
C. Thalamic relays
D. Interneurons

D. Interneurons

Most cranial nerves arise primarily from the:
A. Brainstem
B. Cerebellar cortex
C. Basal ganglia
D. Epithalamus

A. Brainstem

The reticular formation extends through central brainstem from:
A. Thalamus to cortex
B. Medulla to midbrain
C. Pons to cerebellum
D. Spinal cord to thalamus

B. Medulla to midbrain

Caudal reticular formation (medulla/lower pons) is mainly involved in:
A. Vision and eye movements
B. Language and praxis
C. Hearing and balance
D. Motor and autonomic functions

D. Motor and autonomic functions

Rostral reticular formation (upper pons/midbrain) is crucial for regulating:
A. Pain and temperature
B. Proprioception and vibration
C. Level of consciousness
D. Fine discriminative touch

C. Level of consciousness

A dorsal root ganglion lesion most directly disrupts primary sensory neuron:
A. Motor outputs
B. Thalamic relays
C. Cell bodies outside CNS
D. Cerebellar feedback

C. Cell bodies outside CNS

Posterior column primary axons enter the spinal cord through:
A. Ventral roots
B. Anterior columns
C. Cranial nerves
D. Dorsal roots

D. Dorsal roots

In the posterior column pathway, crossing occurs after synapse onto:
A. Secondary sensory neurons
B. Lower motor neurons
C. Thalamic relay neurons
D. Corticospinal neurons

A. Secondary sensory neurons

Lesions that cause lethargy and coma are located where?
A. Pontomesencephalic reticular formation
B. Posterior column nuclei
C. Primary motor cortex
D. Anterolateral tract

A. Pontomesencephalic reticular formation

A comatose patient has bilateral lesions in a deep gray relay structure above the brainstem. Which site best explains impaired consciousness?
A. Thalami
B. Basal ganglia
C. Cerebellar hemispheres
D. Hippocampal formation

A. Thalami

A massive unilateral hemispheric hemorrhage causes impaired consciousness despite intact brainstem reflexes. The best explanation is involvement of:
A. One temporal operculum
B. Cerebral hemispheres
C. Posterior columns
D. Cranial nerve nuclei

B. Cerebral hemispheres

Which lesion pattern most strongly threatens level of consciousness?
A. Unilateral thalamic infarct
B. Bilateral thalamic infarcts
C. Unilateral occipital infarct
D. Unilateral cerebellar infarct

B. Bilateral thalamic infarcts

Limbic structures are located near which cortical region?
A. Lateral convexity
B. Medial cortical fringe
C. Cerebellar vermis
D. Brainstem tegmentum

B. Medial cortical fringe

Which cortical lobes contain key limbic cortical areas?
A. Medial and anterior temporal lobes
B. Medial and inferior temporal lobes
C. Medial and anterior frontal lobes
D. Medial and inferior frontal lobes

A. Medial and anterior temporal lobes

The hippocampal formation and amygdala are located within the:
A. Medial temporal lobe
B. Lateral parietal lobe
C. Occipital pole
D. Dorsal pons

A. Medial temporal lobe

A paired arch-shaped white matter tract connects the hippocampus to hypothalamus and septal nuclei. This is the:
A. Corpus callosum
B. Fornix
C. Internal capsule
D. Spinothalamic tract

B. Fornix

After a limbic system lesion, a patient most likely shows:
A. Lost old memories primarily
B. Preserved new learning
C. Impaired new memory formation
D. Loss of primary sensation

C. Impaired new memory formation

A patient cannot form new episodic memories but recalls childhood events normally. The most likely lesion involves the:
A. Limbic system
B. Primary visual cortex
C. Primary motor cortex
D. Cerebellum

A. Limbic system

Focal seizures begin with fear, déjà vu, and olfactory hallucinations. The most common origin is the:
A. Lateral frontal lobe
B. Medial temporal lobe
C. Primary somatosensory cortex
D. Parietooccipital sulcus

B. Medial temporal lobe

Higher-order processing beyond primary sensation is mediated by:
A. Somatosensory association cortex
B. Posterior column nuclei
C. Primary auditory cortex
D. Corticospinal tract

A. Somatosensory association cortex

A cortex region processes mainly a single modality at a higher level. This is:
A. Heteromodal association cortex
B. Unimodal association cortex
C. Primary motor cortex
D. Limbic cortex

B. Unimodal association cortex

A cortex region integrates multiple sensory and motor modalities. This is:
A. Primary cortex
B. Unimodal association cortex
C. Heteromodal association cortex
D. Brainstem reticular formation

C. Heteromodal association cortex

When listening to speech, language is typically first perceived by primary auditory cortex in the:
A. Superior temporal lobe
B. Inferior temporal lobe
C. Inferior Occipital lobe
D. Superior Occipital lobe

A. Superior temporal lobe

When reading words, language is typically first perceived by primary visual cortex in the:
A. Temporal lobes
B. Occipital lobes
C. Parietal lobes
D. Frontal lobes

B. Occipital lobes

A fluent patient speaks with difficulty. What area is damaged?
A. Broca’s area
B. Wernicke’s area
C. Primary motor cortex
D. Pontine reticular formation

A. Broca’s area

A patient has receptive aphasia. The lesion site is:
A. Wernicke’s area
B. Broca’s area
C. Precentral gyrus
D. Postcentral gyrus

A. Wernicke’s area

brodmann area for Wernicke’s Area?

22

brodmann area for broca's?

44/45

Broca’s area is adjacent to primary motor regions controlling:
A. Trunk and legs
B. Eyes and eyelids
C. Face and larynx
D. Hearing and vision

C. Face and larynx

Left inferior parietal lobule lesion (specifically angular gyrus) produces dyscalculia, finger agnosia, right–left confusion, and agraphia. This syndrome is:
A. Balint syndrome
B. Gerstmann syndrome
C. Broca aphasia
D. Wernicke aphasia

B. Gerstmann syndrome

Gerstmann syndrome is classically associated with lesions of the:
A. Right superior parietal lobule
B. Left inferior parietal lobule
C. Left occipital lobe
D. Right frontal operculum

B. Left inferior parietal lobule

A patient has difficulty planning and executing learned motor acts despite intact strength. This is:
A. Ataxia
B. Apraxia
C. Aphasia
D. Hemineglect

B. Apraxia

Apraxia may result from diffuse cortical lesions or focal lesions involving:
A. Occipital cortex only
B. Frontal or left parietal
C. Cerebellar hemispheres
D. Thalamus only

B. Frontal or left parietal

A patient ignores objects on the left unless strongly cued, after a right parietal lesion. This is:
A. Alexia
B. Hemineglect
C. Broca aphasia
D. Parkinsonism

B. Hemineglect

Right parietal lobe lesions most often cause neglect of the:
A. Ipsilateral side
B. Contralateral side
C. Both sides equally
D. Visual fields only

B. Contralateral side

Unawareness of one’s neurologic deficit is:
A. Extinction
B. Apraxia
C. Anosognosia
D. Ataxia

C. Anosognosia

The patient can detect a stimulus on the contralesional side when it’s presented alone, but “misses” it when both sides are stimulated at the same time:
A. Hemianopia
B. Extinction
C. Aphasia
D. Dysmetria

B. Extinction

Extinction most specifically reflects neglect of stimuli on the side:
A. Ipsilateral to lesion
B. Contralateral to lesion
C. Bilateral and symmetric
D. Midline only

B. Contralateral to lesion

Primitive reflexes reappear in an adult with frontal lobe damage. These are:
A. Motor homunculus signs
B. Frontal release signs
C. Retinotopic signs
D. Tonotopic signs

B. Frontal release signs

Which is a frontal release sign?
A. Grasp reflex
B. Babinski sign
C. Pupillary reflex
D. Patellar reflex

A. Grasp reflex

A patient exhibits grasp, rooting, and snout reflexes after a new cortical lesion. The likely location is:
A. Occipital lobe
B. Frontal lobe
C. Medulla
D. Cerebellum

B. Frontal lobe

A man with a left frontal infarct repeatedly claps after being told “stop.” This behavior is best termed:
A. Extinction
B. Apraxia
C. Perseveration
D. Anosognosia

C. Perseveration

An older adult has shuffling “feet stuck” walking plus urinary incontinence after frontal damage. This gait is:
A. Magnetic gait
B. Ataxic gait
C. Spastic gait
D. Steppage gait

A. Magnetic gait

A patient can describe objects but cannot recognize familiar people by sight after inferior temporal damage. This deficit is:
A. Achromatopsia
B. Palinopsia
C. Alexia
D. Prosopagnosia

D. Prosopagnosia

A patient with parieto-occipital association injury cannot identify traffic-light hues. This is:
A. Prosopagnosia
B. Achromatopsia
C. Palinopsia
D. Hemianopia

B. Achromatopsia

After occipitotemporal association injury, a patient reports “afterimages” that reappear minutes later. This is:
A. Palinopsia
B. Prosopagnosia
C. Hemineglect
D. Achromatopsia

A. Palinopsia

Visual association cortex lesions causing prosopagnosia most impair recognition of:
A. Letters
B. Sounds
C. Faces
D. Smells

C. Faces

The main anterior arterial supply to cerebral hemispheres arises from:
A. Basilar artery
B. Internal carotid arteries
C. Posterior spinal arteries
D. Internal jugular veins

B. Internal carotid arteries

The internal carotid arteries form the anterior blood supply, and the vertebral arteries, which join together to form:
A. Middle cerebral arteries
B. Anterior cerebral arteries
C. Posterior cerebral arteries
D. Basilar artery

D. Basilar artery

The anastomotic ring linking anterior and posterior circulations is the:
A. Internal capsule
B. Falx cerebri
C. Circle of Willis
D. Corpus callosum

C. Circle of Willis

The anterior and middle cerebral arteries derive their main supply from the:
A. Posterior cerebral arteries
B. Basilar artery
C. Vertebral arteries
D. Internal carotid arteries

D. Internal carotid arteries

The posterior cerebral arteries derive their main supply from the:
A. Internal carotid arteries
B. Vertebrobasilar system
C. Internal jugular veins
D. Anterior spinal artery

B. Vertebrobasilar system

Which cerebellar artery is most posterior (front→back ordering)?
A. PICA
B. AICA
C. SCA
D. ACA

A. PICA

In the cervical spinal cord, anterior/posterior spinal arteries mainly arise from branches of:
A. Aorta
B. Internal carotid
C. Vertebral arteries
D. Basilar artery

C. Vertebral arteries

In thoracic/lumbar cord, anterior/posterior spinal arteries are reinforced by radicular arteries from:
A. Vertebral arteries
B. Basilar artery
C. Internal carotids
D. Aorta

D. Aorta

Which corpus callosum region is most posterior?
A. Splenium
B. Genu
C. Rostrum
D. Body

A. Splenium

The central sulcus does not extend medially; the surrounding medial region is called the:
A. Precuneus
B. Paracentral lobule
C. Cingulate gyrus
D. Angular gyrus

B. Paracentral lobule

The medial parietal lobe region is the:
A. Precuneus
B. Cuneus
C. Lingula
D. Insula

A. Precuneus

Sympathetic postganglionic neurons typically release:
A. GABA
B. Glutamate
C. Acetylcholine
D. Norepinephrine

D. Norepinephrine

Parasympathetic postganglionic neurons typically release:
A. Norepinephrine
B. Acetylcholine
C. Dopamine
D. Serotonin

B. Acetylcholine

Both posterior column and anterolateral pathways synapse in the thalamic:
A. Medial geniculate nucleus
B. Lateral geniculate nucleus
C. Ventral anterior nucleus
D. Ventrolateral posterior nucleus

D. Ventrolateral posterior nucleus

Action potentials “jump” between nodes due to:
A. Temporal summation
B. Axoplasmic flow
C. Saltatory conduction
D. Volume conduction

C. Saltatory conduction