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Viewing:

Neuro 2

front 1

During embryological development the CNS arises from a sheet of ectodermal cells that folds over to form the
A. Choroid plexus
B. Brain ventricles
C. Neural tube
D. Meninges

back 1

C. Neural tube

front 2

The fluid-filled cavities within the neural tube develop into which CSF-containing structures?
A. Ventricles
B. Dendrites
C. Cranial nerves
D. Meninges

back 2

A. Ventricles

front 3

During early development:

Hindbrain: ______

Midbrain: ______

Forebrain: ______

back 3

Rhombencephalon

Mesencephalon

Prosencephalon

front 4

A developmental anatomist labels the forebrain as “prosencephalon.” It subdivides into:
A. Metencephalon and myelencephalon
B. Telencephalon and diencephalon
C. Thalamus and hypothalamus
D. Pons and cerebellum

back 4

B. Telencephalon and diencephalon

front 5

A tumor localizes to the diencephalon and disrupts two major nuclei there. Which pair is most consistent?

back 5

Thalamus and hypothalamus

front 6

telencephalon becomes? ______

back 6

cerebrum

front 7

metencephalon becomes ____ and ____

myencephalon becomes ____ ____

back 7

pons and cerebelllum

medulla oblongata

front 8

A ventricular mass causes CSF overproduction by enlarging vascular tufts within ventricles. These tufts are the:
A. Choroid plexus
B. Arachnoid
C. Pia
D. Dura

back 8

A. Choroid plexus

front 9

Give me the path that the CSF flows:
A. Lateral to third to fourth
B. Third to fourth to lateral
C. Second to lateral to third
D. Third to fourth to fifth

back 9

A. Lateral to third to fourth

front 10

After leaving the ventricles, CSF percolates around the brain and spinal cord in which space?
A. Between dura and arachnoid
B. Between pia and brain
C. Between arachnoid and pia
D. Within the neural tube

back 10

C. Between arachnoid and pia

front 11

After circulating around the CNS surface, CSF is ultimately reabsorbed into the:
A. Venous system
B. Arterial system
C. Lymphatic vessels
D. Ventricular lumen

back 11

A. Venous system

front 12

Humans have an upright posture, producing a nearly 90° bend in the nervous system near the:
A. Lateral ventricle
B. Fourth ventricle
C. Midbrain–diencephalic junction
D. Rhombencephalon

back 12

C. Midbrain–diencephalic junction

front 13

What happens to the Ventral-Rostral-Caudal-Dorsal map above the midbrain
A. it ticks counterclock-wise once
B. it ticks counterclock-wise twice
C. it ticks counterclock-wise thrice
D. it ticks counterclock-wise never

back 13

A. it ticks counterclock-wise once

front 14

____ are the primary structures on a neuron that receive inputs from other neurons.
A. Axon
B. Nucleus
C. Ventricles
D. Dendrites

back 14

D. Dendrites

Dan is popular and gets invites from others

front 15

A demyelinating process preferentially slows propagation along the process carrying most neuronal outputs. Which process is this?
A. Axon
B. Dendrite
C. Glial process
D. Pia

back 15

A. Axon

front 16

In mammals, the most common neuronal morphology has several dendrites and an axon. This neuron is:
A. Unipolar
B. Bipolar
C. Multipolar
D. Pseudo-unipolar

back 16

C. Multipolar

front 17

What does bipolar mean?
A. One dendrite, one axon
B. Many dendrites, one axon
C. One dendrite, many axons
D. Many dendrites, many axons

back 17

A. One dendrite, one axon

front 18

A patient has a disorder affecting sensory pathways used for vision or olfaction. The implicated neurons are often:
A. Multipolar
B. Bipolar
C. Unipolar
D. Glial

back 18

B. Bipolar

front 19

Sensory neurons in the peripheral nervous system (PNS) with a single, T-shaped bifurcating axon (one branch to the periphery, one to the spinal cord/brain) and no true dendrites:
A. Multipolar
B. Bipolar
C. Unipolar
D. Pseudo-unipolar

back 19

D. Pseudo-unipolar

front 20

Cell bodies in which structure are classic examples of pseudo-unipolar sensory neurons?
A. Dorsal root ganglion
B. Choroid plexus
C. Lateral ventricle
D. Dura

back 20

A. Dorsal root ganglion

front 21

A lab records millisecond postsynaptic voltage changes that can depolarize or hyperpolarize a neuron. These are best classified as:
A. Neuromodulatory responses
B. Action potentials
C. Ventricular rhythms
D. EPSPs and IPSPs

back 21

D. EPSPs and IPSPs

front 22

A transmitter effect unfolds over seconds to minutes, altering circuit responsiveness rather than producing discrete fast potentials. This function is:
A. Neuromodulation
B. IPSP generation
C. EPSP generation
D. Saltatory conduction

back 22

A. Neuromodulation

front 23

In the CNS, the most common excitatory neurotransmitter is:

back 23

Glutamate

front 24

In the CNS, the most common inhibitory neurotransmitter is:

back 24

GABA

front 25

At the neuromuscular junction in the PNS, the main transmitter is

back 25

Acetylcholine

front 26

Short exposed axonal segments with high concentrations of voltage-gated ion channels are:
A. Synaptic clefts
B. Axon hillocks
C. Nodes of Ranvier
D. Neural foramina

back 26

C. Nodes of Ranvier

front 27

The structure primarily described as “vascular tufts within ventricles” is NOT responsible for which function?
A. CSF formation
B. Neurotransmitter release
C. Ventricular localization
D. Fluid production

back 27

B. Neurotransmitter release

front 28

Regions of the CNS composed mainly of myelinated axons are called:
A. Gray matter
B. White matter
C. Cerebral cortex
D. Ganglia

back 28

B. White matter

front 29

Regions composed mainly of neuronal cell bodies are called:
A. White matter
B. Commissures
C. Gray matter
D. Peripheral nerves

back 29

C. Gray matter

front 30

Most local synaptic communication between CNS neurons occurs primarily in:
A. White matter
B. Gray matter
C. Choroid plexus
D. Ventricles

back 30

B. Gray matter

front 31

Axons specialized for transmitting signals over greater distances are found primarily in:
A. White matter
B. Gray matter
C. Cerebral cortex
D. Ganglia

back 31

A. White matter

front 32

The unique mantle of gray matter covering the cerebral hemispheres is the:

A. Medulla
B. Pons
C. Cerebral cortex
D. Diencephalon

back 32

C. Cerebral cortex

front 33

Large clusters of gray matter cell bodies within the CNS are called:
A. Ganglia
B. Nerves
C. Nodes
D. Nuclei

back 33

D. Nuclei

front 34

In the cerebral hemispheres, the typical arrangement is:
A. White outside, gray inside
B. Gray outside, white inside
C. Gray only, no white
D. White only, no gray

back 34

B. Gray outside, white inside

front 35

In the spinal cord, the typical arrangement is:
A. Gray outside, white inside
B. White only, no gray
C. White outside, gray center
D. Gray outside, white center

back 35

C. White outside, gray center

front 36

In the brainstem, which statement best matches gross organization?
A. Only gray on surface
B. Only white on surface
C. Gray and white mixed
D. Gray absent entirely

back 36

C. Gray and white mixed

front 37

A tract connects right and left CNS structures across the midline. This white matter pathway is a:
A. Nucleus
B. Commissure
C. Ganglion
D. Cortex

back 37

B. Commissure

front 38

In the PNS, bundles of axons are called:
A. Nuclei
B. Commissures
C. Peripheral nerves
D. Ventricles

back 38

C. Peripheral nerves

front 39

In the PNS, clusters of neuronal cell bodies are called:
A. Ganglia
B. Nuclei
C. Commissures
D. Cortex

back 39

A. Ganglia

front 40

A lesion interrupts sensory information traveling from the periphery toward the CNS. The interrupted signal type is:
A. Efferent
B. Neuromodulatory
C. Commissural
D. Afferent

back 40

D. Afferent

front 41

A lesion interrupts motor commands traveling from the CNS to skeletal muscle. The interrupted signal type is:
A. Afferent
B. Commissural
C. Efferent
D. Neuromodulatory

back 41

C. Efferent

front 42

Each spinal cord segment gives rise to which pair of roots on each side?
A. Two sensory roots
B. Two motor roots
C. Sensory and motor roots
D. Commissural and association roots

back 42

C. Sensory and motor roots

front 43

A stabbing injury selectively damages dorsal nerve roots. The most direct deficit is loss of:
A. Afferent sensory signals
B. Efferent motor signals
C. CSF reabsorption
D. Cortical gray matter

back 43

A. Afferent sensory signals

front 44

A herniation compresses ventral nerve roots. The most direct deficit is loss of:
A. Afferent sensory signals
B. Efferent motor signals
C. Commissural signaling
D. Neuromodulation

back 44

B. Efferent motor signals

front 45

The adult spinal cord ends near:
A. T12 vertebra
B. L1 or L2 vertebrae
C. L4 or L5 vertebrae
D. S1 vertebra

back 45

B. L1 or L2 vertebrae

front 46

A synapse is pharmacologically silenced by preventing synaptic vesicles from releasing their contents. What communication is most directly impaired?
A. Chemical postsynaptic signaling
B. White matter conduction
C. Commissural crossing
D. Ganglionic clustering

back 46

A. Chemical postsynaptic signaling

front 47

After an L2 burst fracture, descending lumbar nerve roots in the canal are compressed. What structure is involved?
A. Cauda equina
B. Conus medullaris
C. Brachial plexus
D. Cervical enlargement

back 47

A. Cauda equina

front 48

Cervical and lumbosacral enlargements contain increased gray matter primarily because they have
A. More commissural fibers
B. More limb motor neurons
C. More CSF circulation
D. More cortical folding

back 48

B. More limb motor neurons

front 49

A patient has impaired peristalsis and gut secretion control from a plexus within the gut wall. Which division is this?
A. Sympathetic division
B. Enteric nervous system
C. Parasympathetic division
D. Peripheral nerves

back 49

B. Enteric nervous system

front 50

Deep crevices and infoldings of the cerebral cortex are called:
A. Sulci
B. Gyri
C. Nuclei
D. Ganglia

back 50

A. Sulci

front 51

The ridges of cortex between sulci are called:
A. Sulci
B. Gyri
C. Ganglia
D. Nuclei

back 51

B. Gyri

front 52

The frontal lobe extends posteriorly to which landmark?
A. Calcarine fissure
B. Lateral fissure
C. Central sulcus
D. Parietooccipital sulcus

back 52

C. Central sulcus

front 53

During a pterional approach, the surgeon identifies the Sylvian fissure. What is its other common name?
A. Central sulcus
B. Calcarine fissure
C. Parietooccipital sulcus
D. Lateral fissure

back 53

D. Lateral fissure

front 54

A hemorrhage tracks along the deep Sylvian fissure. This fissure primarily separates which lobes laterally/inferiorly?
A. Parietal and occipital lobes
B. Frontal and temporal lobes
C. Left and right hemispheres
D. Temporal and occipital lobes

back 54

B. Frontal and temporal lobes

front 55

The parietal lobe is bounded anteriorly by the:
A. Lateral fissure
B. Parietooccipital sulcus
C. Central sulcus
D. Calcarine fissure

back 55

C. Central sulcus

front 56

On a medial view, which sulcus separates parietal from occipital lobes?
A. Calcarine fissure
B. Parietooccipital sulcus
C. Central sulcus
D. Lateral fissure

back 56

B. Parietooccipital sulcus

front 57

A focal seizure focus is “buried” deep within the Sylvian fissure. Which cortex is implicated?
A. Cingulate gyrus
B. Cuneus
C. Gyrus rectus
D. Insular cortex

back 57

D. Insular cortex

front 58

The anterior “lip” covering the insula is formed by which structure?
A. Parietal operculum
B. Supramarginal gyrus
C. Frontal operculum
D. Angular gyrus

back 58

C. Frontal operculum

front 59

The posterior “lip” covering the insula is formed by which structure?
A. Frontal operculum
B. Parietal operculum
C. Precentral gyrus
D. Postcentral gyrus

back 59

B. Parietal operculum

front 60

The two cerebral hemispheres are separated at midline by the:
A. Lateral fissure
B. Central sulcus
C. Interhemispheric fissure
D. Parietooccipital sulcus

back 60

C. Interhemispheric fissure

front 61

Another accepted name for the interhemispheric fissure is the:
A. Lateral fissure
B. Central sulcus
C. Calcarine fissure
D. Longitudinal fissure

back 61

D. Longitudinal fissure

front 62

In split-brain surgery, the surgeon transects a large C-shaped white matter band. What was cut?

back 62

Corpus callosum

front 63

Damage to this structure disrupts connections between both homologous and heterologous cortical areas. Which structure is described?
A. Central sulcus
B. Lateral fissure
C. Intraparietal sulcus
D. Corpus callosum

back 63

D. Corpus callosum

front 64

The superior, middle, and inferior frontal gyri are subdivided by which sulci?
A. Superior and inferior frontal sulci
B. Superior and middle temporal sulci
C. Intraparietal sulcus
D. Parietooccipital sulcus

back 64

A. Superior and inferior frontal sulci

front 65

The superior, middle, and inferior temporal gyri are divided by which sulci?
A. Superior and inferior frontal sulci
B. Intraparietal sulcus
C. Parietooccipital sulcus
D. Superior and inferior temporal sulci

back 65

D. Superior and inferior temporal sulci

front 66

Which sulcus divides the superior from inferior parietal lobule?
A. Intraparietal sulcus
B. Central sulcus
C. Calcarine fissure
D. Lateral fissure

back 66

A. Intraparietal sulcus

front 67

A left precentral gyrus infarct most likely causes:
A. Right leg weakness
B. Right facial weakness
C. Right visual loss
D. Right hearing loss

back 67

B. Right facial weakness

the MCA is often involved, supplied by lateral cortex.

front 68

A right postcentral gyrus lesion most likely causes:
A. Left leg numbness
B. Left arm numbness
C. Bilateral leg weakness
D. Left hearing loss

back 68

B. Left arm numbness

front 69

Primary visual cortex lies along the banks of the:
A. Central sulcus
B. Lateral fissure
C. Calcarine fissure
D. Intraparietal sulcus

back 69

C. Calcarine fissure

front 70

A right calcarine cortex stroke most likely impairs:
A. Right visual field
B. Left visual field
C. Bilateral auditory input
D. Ipsilateral limb strength

back 70

B. Left visual field

front 71

Primary auditory cortex is primarily composed of:
A. Angular gyrus
B. Transverse Heschl gyri
C. Cuneus cortex
D. Fusiform gyri

back 71

B. Transverse Heschl gyri

front 72

The transverse gyri of Heschl lie:
A. On calcarine banks
B. In Sylvian fissure
C. On interhemispheric fissure
D. In central sulcus

back 72

B. In Sylvian fissure

front 73

Tonotopic organization refers to mapping:
A. Retinal position
B. Body surface
C. Cochlear frequency
D. Thalamic nuclei

back 73

C. Cochlear frequency

front 74

Retinotopic organization refers to mapping:
A. Body surface
B. Retinal adjacency
C. Cochlear frequency
D. Spinal segments

back 74

B. Retinal adjacency

front 75

“Motor homunculus” most directly refers to:
A. Somatotopic cortical map
B. Retinotopic visual map
C. Tonotopic auditory map
D. Commissural white matter

back 75

A. Somatotopic cortical map

front 76

Compared with vision, auditory cortex input is:
A. Strictly contralateral
B. Strictly ipsilateral
C. Strongly lateralized
D. Mixed from both ears

back 76

D. Mixed from both ears

front 77

A unilateral primary auditory cortex lesion typically causes:
A. Profound unilateral deafness
B. Subtle localization deficits
C. Complete contralateral deafness
D. Complete ipsilateral deafness

back 77

B. Subtle localization deficits

front 78

Most cerebral cortex is:
A. Archicortex
B. Paleocortex
C. Neocortex
D. Allocortex

back 78

C. Neocortex

front 79

Neocortex has how many layers?
A. Four layers
B. Five layers
C. Six layers
D. Eight layers

back 79

C. Six layers

front 80

Neocortical layers are numbered I–VI:
A. Deep to superficial
B. Surface to deep
C. Medial to lateral
D. Posterior to anterior

back 80

B. Surface to deep

front 81

Layer I contains mainly:
A. Thalamic relay neurons
B. Dendrites and axons
C. Corticospinal cell bodies
D. Brainstem motor nuclei

back 81

B. Dendrites and axons

front 82

Layers II and III primarily project to:
A. Thalamus
B. Spinal cord
C. Other cortex
D. Peripheral ganglia

back 82

C. Other cortex

front 83

Layer IV primarily receives input from the:
A. Cerebellum
B. Thalamus
C. Basal ganglia
D. Spinal cord

back 83

B. Thalamus

front 84

Layer V neurons project mostly to:
A. Thalamus
B. Other cortex
C. Subcortical targets
D. Ventricular system

back 84

C. Subcortical targets

front 85

Layer VI primarily projects to the:
A. Thalamus
B. Brainstem
C. Spinal cord
D. Cerebellum

back 85

A. Thalamus

front 86

Primary motor cortex characteristically has:
A. Thick layer IV
B. Thin layer V
C. Thick layer V
D. Absent layer VI

back 86

C. Thick layer V

front 87

Primary visual cortex characteristically has:
A. Thick layer V
B. Thin layer IV
C. Thick layer IV
D. Absent layer I

back 87

C. Thick layer IV

front 88

The most important human motor pathway is the:
A. Spinothalamic tract
B. Dorsal column pathway
C. Corticospinal tract
D. Vestibulospinal tract

back 88

C. Corticospinal tract

front 89

Corticospinal tract neurons arise mainly from:
A. Postcentral gyrus
B. Primary motor cortex
C. Primary visual cortex
D. Primary auditory cortex

back 89

B. Primary motor cortex

front 90

“Pyramidal tract” is another name for:
A. Corticospinal tract
B. Spinocerebellar tract
C. Dorsal column tract
D. Reticulospinal tract

back 90

A. Corticospinal tract

front 91

“Pyramidal” refers to the tract’s shape in the:
A. Midbrain
B. Pons
C. Medulla
D. Cerebellum

back 91

C. Medulla

front 92

About what fraction of corticospinal fibers cross?
A. About 15%
B. About 50%
C. About 85%
D. About 100%

back 92

C. About 85%

front 93

Pyramidal decussation occurs at the:
A. Pons–midbrain junction
B. Medulla–spinal junction
C. Thalamus–cortex junction
D. Cervical–thoracic junction

back 93

B. Medulla–spinal junction

front 94

A lesion above pyramidal decussation causes weakness that is:
A. Ipsilateral to lesion
B. Contralateral to lesion
C. Bilateral and symmetric
D. Segmental only

back 94

B. Contralateral to lesion

front 95

A lesion below pyramidal decussation causes weakness that is:
A. Contralateral to lesion
B. Bilateral and symmetric
C. Ipsilateral to lesion
D. Only cranial nerve

back 95

C. Ipsilateral to lesion

front 96

Upper motor neurons are best defined as neurons that:
A. Innervate skeletal muscle directly
B. Project cortex to cord
C. Reside in dorsal root ganglia
D. Form peripheral nerve plexuses

back 96

B. Project cortex to cord

front 97

Lower motor neurons are located in:
A. Posterior horn gray matter
B. Anterior horn gray matter
C. Cerebral white matter
D. Thalamic relay nuclei

back 97

B. Anterior horn gray matter

front 98

Lower motor neurons may also reside in:
A. Visual cortex layer IV
B. Brainstem motor nuclei
C. Corpus callosum fibers
D. Cerebellar Purkinje layer

back 98

B. Brainstem motor nuclei

front 99

UMNs synapse most directly onto:
A. Schwann cells
B. Oligodendrocytes
C. Lower motor neurons
D. Thalamic relay neurons

back 99

C. Lower motor neurons

front 100

A spinal cord anterior horn lesion primarily damages:
A. Upper motor neurons
B. Lower motor neurons
C. Visual association cortex
D. Auditory association cortex

back 100

B. Lower motor neurons

front 101

A patient loses pain/temperature but preserves strength. Which cortical area is least implicated?
A. Postcentral gyrus
B. Precentral gyrus
C. Thalamic input layer
D. Somatosensory cortex

back 101

B. Precentral gyrus

front 102

LMN axons normally exit the CNS via:
A. Dorsal spinal roots
B. Anterior spinal roots
C. Posterior columns
D. Thalamic radiations

back 102

B. Anterior spinal roots

front 103

A brainstem motor nucleus LMN ultimately reaches skeletal muscle via:
A. Anterior spinal roots
B. Dorsal spinal roots
C. Posterior columns
D. Cranial nerves

back 103

D. Cranial nerves

front 104

To refine movement output, major feedback loops prominently include:
A. Cerebellum and basal ganglia
B. Thalamus and epithalamus
C. Dorsal roots and ganglia
D. Sulci and gyri

back 104

A. Cerebellum and basal ganglia

front 105

Cerebellar and basal ganglia feedback reaches motor cortex chiefly through the:
A. Spinal cord gray matter
B. Posterior column nuclei
C. Thalamus
D. Dorsal root ganglia

back 105

C. Thalamus

front 106

A patient has wide-based gait and dysmetria. The lesion most likely involves the:
A. Cerebellum
B. Basal ganglia
C. Thalamus
D. Epithalamus

back 106

A. Cerebellum

front 107

A patient has slow, rigid movements. The most consistent lesion site is:
A. Cerebellum
B. Thalamus
C. Motor cortex
D. Basal ganglia

back 107

D. Basal ganglia

front 108

A patient has dance-like, involuntary movements. The most consistent lesion site is:
A. Cerebellum
B. Basal ganglia
C. Thalamus
D. Postcentral gyrus

back 108

B. Basal ganglia

front 109

The major relay center for diverse signals to cortex is the:
A. Epithalamus
B. Brainstem
C. Thalamus
D. Cerebellum

back 109

C. Thalamus

front 110

Which sensory modality is the classic exception to thalamic relay?
A. Taste
B. Vision
C. Hearing
D. Olfaction

back 110

D. Olfaction

front 111

Thalami are best described as:
A. Gray matter structures
B. White matter commissures
C. Peripheral ganglia
D. Cortical sulci

back 111

A. Gray matter structures

front 112

Thalami are located deep within cerebral white matter, just:
A. Below the basal ganglia
B. In front of the brainstem
C. Above the brainstem
D. Within the cerebellum

back 112

C. Above the brainstem

front 113

Relative to the basal ganglia, the thalami lie:
A. Anterior
B. Behind
C. Lateral
D. Inferior

back 113

B. Behind

front 114

Virtually all cortical regions send strong projections back to thalamic input areas via layer:
A. VI
B. IV
C. II
D. I

back 114

A. VI

front 115

Which structure is part of the epithalamus?
A. Caudate nucleus
B. Lentiform nucleus
C. Internal capsule
D. Pineal body

back 115

D. Pineal body

front 116

The epithalamus encompasses small nuclei including:
A. Putamen and globus pallidus
B. Superior colliculus and pons
C. Habenula and pretectum
D. Dorsal horn and ventral horn

back 116

C. Habenula and pretectum

front 117

Proprioception, vibration, and fine touch ascend primarily via:
A. Anterolateral pathways
B. Posterior column pathways
C. Corticospinal tract
D. Cranial nerve nuclei

back 117

B. Posterior column pathways

front 118

Pain, temperature, and crude touch ascend primarily via:
A. Posterior columns
B. Corticospinal tract
C. Cerebellar circuits
D. Anterolateral pathways

back 118

D. Anterolateral pathways

front 119

Primary somatic sensory neuron cell bodies are located in the:
A. Dorsal root ganglia
B. Anterior horn
C. Posterior column nuclei
D. Thalamus

back 119

A. Dorsal root ganglia

front 120

Primary sensory neurons described here characteristically have:
A. Single short dendrites
B. No peripheral processes
C. Bifurcating axons
D. Purely motor axons

back 120

C. Bifurcating axons

front 121

In the posterior column pathway, primary axons ascend in the ipsilateral:
A. Spinal gray matter
B. Dorsal columns
C. Spinothalamic tract
D. Cerebellar cortex

back 121

B. Dorsal columns

front 122

Posterior column primary axons synapse first in the medulla at:
A. Posterior dorsal column nuclei
B. Ventral horn interneurons
C. Thalamic relay nuclei
D. Basal ganglia nuclei

back 122

A. Posterior dorsal column nuclei

front 123

In the posterior column pathway, the second-order axons cross in the:
A. Spinal cord
B. Thalamus
C. Cerebral cortex
D. Medulla

back 123

D. Medulla

front 124

After crossing, posterior column second-order axons ascend to the:
A. Cerebellum
B. Spinal cord gray matter
C. Thalamus
D. Posterior columns

back 124

C. Thalamus

front 125

In the anterolateral pathway, primary sensory axons synapse first in spinal:
A. White matter dorsal columns
B. Gray matter
C. Medullary nuclei
D. Thalamic nuclei

back 125

B. Gray matter

front 126

In the anterolateral pathway, second-order axons cross in the:
A. Medulla
B. Thalamus
C. Cerebral cortex
D. Spinal cord

back 126

D. Spinal cord

front 127

After crossing, anterolateral fibers ascend in the:
A. Spinothalamic tract
B. Posterior columns
C. Corticospinal tract
D. Corpus callosum

back 127

A. Spinothalamic tract

front 128

Both posterior column and anterolateral pathways relay in the:
A. Cerebellum
B. Thalamus
C. Basal ganglia
D. Epithalamus

back 128

B. Thalamus

front 129

A right posterior column lesion in the spinal cord most directly impairs:
A. Left pain and temperature
B. Right crude touch
C. Right vibration and proprioception
D. Bilateral motor output

back 129

C. Right vibration and proprioception

front 130

A left anterolateral tract lesion in the spinal cord most directly impairs:
A. Right pain and temperature
B. Right vibration and proprioception
C. Left fine touch
D. Bilateral auditory input

back 130

A. Right pain and temperature

front 131

The posterior column pathway is sometimes summarized as “crosses in the”:
A. Cervical cord
B. Thoracic cord
C. Lumbar cord
D. Medulla

back 131

D. Medulla

front 132

The anterolateral pathway is sometimes summarized as “crosses in the”:
A. Thalamus
B. Spinal cord
C. Medulla
D. Cortex

back 132

B. Spinal cord

front 133

The monosynaptic stretch reflex begins with receptors called:
A. Golgi tendon organs
B. Pacinian corpuscles
C. Muscle spindles
D. Merkel discs

back 133

C. Muscle spindles

front 134

Muscle spindles detect the amount and rate of:
A. Stretch
B. Pain
C. Temperature
D. Crude touch

back 134

A. Stretch

front 135

Stretch-reflex afferents enter spinal gray matter via:
A. Ventral roots
B. Anterior columns
C. Cranial nerves
D. Dorsal roots

back 135

D. Dorsal roots

the strech reflex is technically sensory, that is why this is dorsal roots

front 136

Stretch-reflex afferents synapse onto LMNs located in the:
A. Posterior horn
B. Anterior horn
C. Lateral horn
D. Thalamic nuclei

back 136

B. Anterior horn

front 137

In the stretch reflex, LMN axons exit back to muscle via:
A. Ventral roots
B. Dorsal roots
C. Posterior columns
D. Medullary nuclei

back 137

A. Ventral roots

front 138

Damage anywhere in this stretch-reflex arc most directly causes reflexes to be:
A. Hyperactive and brisk
B. Unchanged and normal
C. Diminished or absent
D. Painful but present

back 138

C. Diminished or absent

front 139

Beyond the monosynaptic arc, afferents also synapse onto spinal:
A. Pyramidal neurons
B. Purkinje cells
C. Thalamic relays
D. Interneurons

back 139

D. Interneurons

front 140

Most cranial nerves arise primarily from the:
A. Brainstem
B. Cerebellar cortex
C. Basal ganglia
D. Epithalamus

back 140

A. Brainstem

front 141

The reticular formation extends through central brainstem from:
A. Thalamus to cortex
B. Medulla to midbrain
C. Pons to cerebellum
D. Spinal cord to thalamus

back 141

B. Medulla to midbrain

front 142

Caudal reticular formation (medulla/lower pons) is mainly involved in:
A. Vision and eye movements
B. Language and praxis
C. Hearing and balance
D. Motor and autonomic functions

back 142

D. Motor and autonomic functions

front 143

Rostral reticular formation (upper pons/midbrain) is crucial for regulating:
A. Pain and temperature
B. Proprioception and vibration
C. Level of consciousness
D. Fine discriminative touch

back 143

C. Level of consciousness

front 144

A dorsal root ganglion lesion most directly disrupts primary sensory neuron:
A. Motor outputs
B. Thalamic relays
C. Cell bodies outside CNS
D. Cerebellar feedback

back 144

C. Cell bodies outside CNS

front 145

Posterior column primary axons enter the spinal cord through:
A. Ventral roots
B. Anterior columns
C. Cranial nerves
D. Dorsal roots

back 145

D. Dorsal roots

front 146

In the posterior column pathway, crossing occurs after synapse onto:
A. Secondary sensory neurons
B. Lower motor neurons
C. Thalamic relay neurons
D. Corticospinal neurons

back 146

A. Secondary sensory neurons

front 147

Lesions that cause lethargy and coma are located where?
A. Pontomesencephalic reticular formation
B. Posterior column nuclei
C. Primary motor cortex
D. Anterolateral tract

back 147

A. Pontomesencephalic reticular formation

front 148

A comatose patient has bilateral lesions in a deep gray relay structure above the brainstem. Which site best explains impaired consciousness?
A. Thalami
B. Basal ganglia
C. Cerebellar hemispheres
D. Hippocampal formation

back 148

A. Thalami

front 149

A massive unilateral hemispheric hemorrhage causes impaired consciousness despite intact brainstem reflexes. The best explanation is involvement of:
A. One temporal operculum
B. Cerebral hemispheres
C. Posterior columns
D. Cranial nerve nuclei

back 149

B. Cerebral hemispheres

front 150

Which lesion pattern most strongly threatens level of consciousness?
A. Unilateral thalamic infarct
B. Bilateral thalamic infarcts
C. Unilateral occipital infarct
D. Unilateral cerebellar infarct

back 150

B. Bilateral thalamic infarcts

front 151

Limbic structures are located near which cortical region?
A. Lateral convexity
B. Medial cortical fringe
C. Cerebellar vermis
D. Brainstem tegmentum

back 151

B. Medial cortical fringe

front 152

Which cortical lobes contain key limbic cortical areas?
A. Medial and anterior temporal lobes
B. Medial and inferior temporal lobes
C. Medial and anterior frontal lobes
D. Medial and inferior frontal lobes

back 152

A. Medial and anterior temporal lobes

front 153

The hippocampal formation and amygdala are located within the:
A. Medial temporal lobe
B. Lateral parietal lobe
C. Occipital pole
D. Dorsal pons

back 153

A. Medial temporal lobe

front 154

A paired arch-shaped white matter tract connects the hippocampus to hypothalamus and septal nuclei. This is the:
A. Corpus callosum
B. Fornix
C. Internal capsule
D. Spinothalamic tract

back 154

B. Fornix

front 155

After a limbic system lesion, a patient most likely shows:
A. Lost old memories primarily
B. Preserved new learning
C. Impaired new memory formation
D. Loss of primary sensation

back 155

C. Impaired new memory formation

front 156

A patient cannot form new episodic memories but recalls childhood events normally. The most likely lesion involves the:
A. Limbic system
B. Primary visual cortex
C. Primary motor cortex
D. Cerebellum

back 156

A. Limbic system

front 157

Focal seizures begin with fear, déjà vu, and olfactory hallucinations. The most common origin is the:
A. Lateral frontal lobe
B. Medial temporal lobe
C. Primary somatosensory cortex
D. Parietooccipital sulcus

back 157

B. Medial temporal lobe

front 158

Higher-order processing beyond primary sensation is mediated by:
A. Somatosensory association cortex
B. Posterior column nuclei
C. Primary auditory cortex
D. Corticospinal tract

back 158

A. Somatosensory association cortex

front 159

A cortex region processes mainly a single modality at a higher level. This is:
A. Heteromodal association cortex
B. Unimodal association cortex
C. Primary motor cortex
D. Limbic cortex

back 159

B. Unimodal association cortex

front 160

A cortex region integrates multiple sensory and motor modalities. This is:
A. Primary cortex
B. Unimodal association cortex
C. Heteromodal association cortex
D. Brainstem reticular formation

back 160

C. Heteromodal association cortex

front 161

When listening to speech, language is typically first perceived by primary auditory cortex in the:
A. Superior temporal lobe
B. Inferior temporal lobe
C. Inferior Occipital lobe
D. Superior Occipital lobe

back 161

A. Superior temporal lobe

front 162

When reading words, language is typically first perceived by primary visual cortex in the:
A. Temporal lobes
B. Occipital lobes
C. Parietal lobes
D. Frontal lobes

back 162

B. Occipital lobes

front 163

A fluent patient speaks with difficulty. What area is damaged?
A. Broca’s area
B. Wernicke’s area
C. Primary motor cortex
D. Pontine reticular formation

back 163

A. Broca’s area

front 164

A patient has receptive aphasia. The lesion site is:
A. Wernicke’s area
B. Broca’s area
C. Precentral gyrus
D. Postcentral gyrus

back 164

A. Wernicke’s area

front 165

brodmann area for Wernicke’s Area?

back 165

22

front 166

brodmann area for broca's?

back 166

44/45

front 167

Broca’s area is adjacent to primary motor regions controlling:
A. Trunk and legs
B. Eyes and eyelids
C. Face and larynx
D. Hearing and vision

back 167

C. Face and larynx

front 168

Left inferior parietal lobule lesion (specifically angular gyrus) produces dyscalculia, finger agnosia, right–left confusion, and agraphia. This syndrome is:
A. Balint syndrome
B. Gerstmann syndrome
C. Broca aphasia
D. Wernicke aphasia

back 168

B. Gerstmann syndrome

front 169

Gerstmann syndrome is classically associated with lesions of the:
A. Right superior parietal lobule
B. Left inferior parietal lobule
C. Left occipital lobe
D. Right frontal operculum

back 169

B. Left inferior parietal lobule

front 170

A patient has difficulty planning and executing learned motor acts despite intact strength. This is:
A. Ataxia
B. Apraxia
C. Aphasia
D. Hemineglect

back 170

B. Apraxia

front 171

Apraxia may result from diffuse cortical lesions or focal lesions involving:
A. Occipital cortex only
B. Frontal or left parietal
C. Cerebellar hemispheres
D. Thalamus only

back 171

B. Frontal or left parietal

front 172

A patient ignores objects on the left unless strongly cued, after a right parietal lesion. This is:
A. Alexia
B. Hemineglect
C. Broca aphasia
D. Parkinsonism

back 172

B. Hemineglect

front 173

Right parietal lobe lesions most often cause neglect of the:
A. Ipsilateral side
B. Contralateral side
C. Both sides equally
D. Visual fields only

back 173

B. Contralateral side

front 174

Unawareness of one’s neurologic deficit is:
A. Extinction
B. Apraxia
C. Anosognosia
D. Ataxia

back 174

C. Anosognosia

front 175

The patient can detect a stimulus on the contralesional side when it’s presented alone, but “misses” it when both sides are stimulated at the same time:
A. Hemianopia
B. Extinction
C. Aphasia
D. Dysmetria

back 175

B. Extinction

front 176

Extinction most specifically reflects neglect of stimuli on the side:
A. Ipsilateral to lesion
B. Contralateral to lesion
C. Bilateral and symmetric
D. Midline only

back 176

B. Contralateral to lesion

front 177

Primitive reflexes reappear in an adult with frontal lobe damage. These are:
A. Motor homunculus signs
B. Frontal release signs
C. Retinotopic signs
D. Tonotopic signs

back 177

B. Frontal release signs

front 178

Which is a frontal release sign?
A. Grasp reflex
B. Babinski sign
C. Pupillary reflex
D. Patellar reflex

back 178

A. Grasp reflex

front 179

A patient exhibits grasp, rooting, and snout reflexes after a new cortical lesion. The likely location is:
A. Occipital lobe
B. Frontal lobe
C. Medulla
D. Cerebellum

back 179

B. Frontal lobe

front 180

A man with a left frontal infarct repeatedly claps after being told “stop.” This behavior is best termed:
A. Extinction
B. Apraxia
C. Perseveration
D. Anosognosia

back 180

C. Perseveration

front 181

An older adult has shuffling “feet stuck” walking plus urinary incontinence after frontal damage. This gait is:
A. Magnetic gait
B. Ataxic gait
C. Spastic gait
D. Steppage gait

back 181

A. Magnetic gait

front 182

A patient can describe objects but cannot recognize familiar people by sight after inferior temporal damage. This deficit is:
A. Achromatopsia
B. Palinopsia
C. Alexia
D. Prosopagnosia

back 182

D. Prosopagnosia

front 183

A patient with parieto-occipital association injury cannot identify traffic-light hues. This is:
A. Prosopagnosia
B. Achromatopsia
C. Palinopsia
D. Hemianopia

back 183

B. Achromatopsia

front 184

After occipitotemporal association injury, a patient reports “afterimages” that reappear minutes later. This is:
A. Palinopsia
B. Prosopagnosia
C. Hemineglect
D. Achromatopsia

back 184

A. Palinopsia

front 185

Visual association cortex lesions causing prosopagnosia most impair recognition of:
A. Letters
B. Sounds
C. Faces
D. Smells

back 185

C. Faces

front 186

The main anterior arterial supply to cerebral hemispheres arises from:
A. Basilar artery
B. Internal carotid arteries
C. Posterior spinal arteries
D. Internal jugular veins

back 186

B. Internal carotid arteries

front 187

The internal carotid arteries form the anterior blood supply, and the vertebral arteries, which join together to form:
A. Middle cerebral arteries
B. Anterior cerebral arteries
C. Posterior cerebral arteries
D. Basilar artery

back 187

D. Basilar artery

front 188

The anastomotic ring linking anterior and posterior circulations is the:
A. Internal capsule
B. Falx cerebri
C. Circle of Willis
D. Corpus callosum

back 188

C. Circle of Willis

front 189

The anterior and middle cerebral arteries derive their main supply from the:
A. Posterior cerebral arteries
B. Basilar artery
C. Vertebral arteries
D. Internal carotid arteries

back 189

D. Internal carotid arteries

front 190

The posterior cerebral arteries derive their main supply from the:
A. Internal carotid arteries
B. Vertebrobasilar system
C. Internal jugular veins
D. Anterior spinal artery

back 190

B. Vertebrobasilar system

front 191

Which cerebellar artery is most posterior (front→back ordering)?
A. PICA
B. AICA
C. SCA
D. ACA

back 191

A. PICA

front 192

In the cervical spinal cord, anterior/posterior spinal arteries mainly arise from branches of:
A. Aorta
B. Internal carotid
C. Vertebral arteries
D. Basilar artery

back 192

C. Vertebral arteries

front 193

In thoracic/lumbar cord, anterior/posterior spinal arteries are reinforced by radicular arteries from:
A. Vertebral arteries
B. Basilar artery
C. Internal carotids
D. Aorta

back 193

D. Aorta

front 194

Which corpus callosum region is most posterior?
A. Splenium
B. Genu
C. Rostrum
D. Body

back 194

A. Splenium

front 195

The central sulcus does not extend medially; the surrounding medial region is called the:
A. Precuneus
B. Paracentral lobule
C. Cingulate gyrus
D. Angular gyrus

back 195

B. Paracentral lobule

front 196

The medial parietal lobe region is the:
A. Precuneus
B. Cuneus
C. Lingula
D. Insula

back 196

A. Precuneus

front 197

Sympathetic postganglionic neurons typically release:
A. GABA
B. Glutamate
C. Acetylcholine
D. Norepinephrine

back 197

D. Norepinephrine

front 198

Parasympathetic postganglionic neurons typically release:
A. Norepinephrine
B. Acetylcholine
C. Dopamine
D. Serotonin

back 198

B. Acetylcholine

front 199

Both posterior column and anterolateral pathways synapse in the thalamic:
A. Medial geniculate nucleus
B. Lateral geniculate nucleus
C. Ventral anterior nucleus
D. Ventrolateral posterior nucleus

back 199

D. Ventrolateral posterior nucleus

front 200

Action potentials “jump” between nodes due to:
A. Temporal summation
B. Axoplasmic flow
C. Saltatory conduction
D. Volume conduction

back 200

C. Saltatory conduction