What are peptides secreted by cells into the extracellular fluid and can function as autocrines, paracrines, or endocrine hormones?
A. Steroid hormone
B. Tyrosine derivative
C. Cytokine
D. Thyroid hormone

C. Cytokine

A lymphocyte secretes a factor that binds receptors on the same cell that released it. This signaling is:
A. Autocrine
B. Paracrine
C. Endocrine
D. Neurocrine

A. Autocrine

A hormone-like cytokine produced by adipocytes is most specifically termed a(n):
A. Lymphokine
B. Interleukin
C. Preprohormone
D. Adipokine

D. Adipokine

Which is NOT one of the three general hormone classes?
A. Steroids
B. Nucleic acids
C. Tyrosine derivatives
D. Proteins and polypeptides

B. Nucleic acids

Most hormones in the human body are:
A. Polypeptides and proteins
B. Steroids
C. Tyrosine derivatives
D. Nucleic acids

A. Polypeptides and proteins

A newly discovered pituitary hormone is a 110–amino acid polypeptide. By the usual size convention, it is a:
A. Peptide hormone
B. Tyrosine derivative
C. Steroid hormone
D. Protein hormone

D. Protein hormone

A 60–amino acid hormone secreted from endocrine cells is best termed a:
A. Protein hormone
B. Peptide hormone
C. Steroid hormone
D. Thyroid hormone

B. Peptide hormone

An endocrine cell making peptide hormones shows prominent ribosome-studded membranes. Protein/peptide hormones are synthesized on the:
A. Smooth ER
B. Nucleus
C. Rough ER
D. Mitochondria

C. Rough ER

A secreted hormone is translated initially as a larger, biologically inactive precursor. This larger precursor is a:
A. Preprohormone
B. Prohormone
C. Adipokine
D. Thyroglobulin

A. Preprohormone

In the rough ER, a preprohormone is cleaved to form a smaller intermediate. That intermediate is the:
A. Thyroid hormone
B. Thyroxine-binding globulin
C. Cytokine
D. Prohormone

D. Prohormone

After prohormone formation, it is transferred for packaging into secretory vesicles primarily by the:
A. Nucleolus
B. Golgi apparatus
C. Smooth ER
D. Mitochondrion

B. Golgi apparatus

In many endocrine cells, the immediate trigger for vesicle fusion and hormone exocytosis is increased cytosolic:
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Calcium
D. Chloride

C. Calcium

Compared with peptide hormones, steroid hormones are typically:
A. Stored in vesicles
B. Stored as preprohormones
C. Stored bound to proteins
D. Not stored significantly

D. Not stored significantly

A steroidogenic cell is stimulated to increase hormone synthesis. The cholesterol source for steroid production is primarily:
A. Plasma plus de novo synthesis
B. Golgi vesicle stores
C. Thyroglobulin breakdown
D. Amino acid cleavage

A. Plasma plus de novo synthesis

Two major hormone groups derived from tyrosine are:
A. Steroids and peptides
B. Cytokines and adipokines
C. Thyroid and adrenal medulla
D. Proteins and steroids

C. Thyroid and adrenal medulla

Thyroid hormones are synthesized and stored in the thyroid gland incorporated into macromolecules of:
A. Albumin
B. Thyroglobulin
C. Thyroxine-binding globulin
D. Prohormone

B. Thyroglobulin

Thyroid hormone secretion into blood occurs when:
A. Thyroglobulin is secreted intact
B. Steroids are exocytosed
C. TBG is cleaved in plasma
D. Amines split from thyroglobulin

D. Amines split from thyroglobulin

After entering the bloodstream, thyroid hormones bind especially to:
A. Thyroxine-binding globulin
B. Thyroglobulin
C. Secretory vesicles
D. Rough ER proteins

A. Thyroxine-binding globulin

In circulating blood, most thyroid hormone molecules are:
A. Vesicle-packaged
B. Protein-bound
C. Cytosolic
D. Membrane-anchored

B. Protein-bound

The adrenal medulla secretes approximately how much more epinephrine than norepinephrine?
A. 1×
B. 2×
C. 4×
D. 10×

C. 4×

A patient with adrenal medullary hypersecretion has elevated catecholamines. The predominant secreted catecholamine is:
A. Epinephrine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Dopamine
D. Acetylcholine

A. Epinephrine

A hormone is synthesized from cholesterol and is not stored to any significant degree. It is most consistent with a:
A. Peptide hormone
B. Cytokine
C. Tyrosine derivative
D. Steroid hormone

D. Steroid hormone

In peptide-hormone synthesis, cleavage that generates smaller prohormones from preprohormones occurs in the:
A. Golgi apparatus
B. Secretory vesicle
C. Rough ER
D. Plasma membrane

C. Rough ER

A cytokine enters the bloodstream and acts on distant organs rather than local cells. This cytokine is acting as a(n):
A. Paracrine factor
B. Endocrine hormone
C. Autocrine signal
D. Intracrine mediator

B. Endocrine hormone

A patient’s hormone pulses shift predictably over 24 hours and with sleep. Release can be influenced by:
A. Meal timing and exercise
B. Diurnal cycle and sleep
C. Fever spikes and infection
D. Plasma pH and osmolality

B. Diurnal cycle and sleep

Hormone release can be influenced by:
A. Acute trauma and hemorrhage
B. Single receptor mutation
C. Season, development, aging stages
D. Random synaptic firing

C. Season, development, aging stages

Large amounts of hormone bound to plasma proteins mainly function as:
A. Reservoirs
B. Second messengers
C. Ion channels
D. Enzymes

A. Reservoirs

Two factors that determine hormone concentration in blood are:
A. Storage rate and diffusion
B. Binding rate and pH
C. Filtration and reabsorption
D. Secretion rate and removal rate

D. Secretion rate and removal rate

The rate of removal of a hormone from blood is the:
A. Plasma half-life
B. Metabolic clearance rate
C. Extraction fraction
D. Volume distribution constant

B. Metabolic clearance rate

A hormone is inactivated by enzymes within peripheral tissues. This represents clearance by:
A. Kidney excretion into urine
B. Metabolic destruction by tissues
C. Liver excretion into bile
D. Binding with tissues

B. Metabolic destruction by tissues

A conjugated hormone is secreted into bile after hepatic processing. This represents clearance by:
A. Liver excretion into bile
B. Binding with tissues
C. Metabolic destruction by tissues
D. Kidney excretion into urine

A. Liver excretion into bile

A water-soluble hormone is eliminated unchanged in urine. This represents clearance by:
A. Binding with tissues
B. Liver excretion into bile
C. Kidney excretion into urine
D. Metabolic destruction by tissues

C. Kidney excretion into urine

Typical half-life for adrenal steroids in circulation is:
A. 1–6 days
B. 2–5 minutes
C. 6–12 hours
D. 20–100 minutes

D. 20–100 minutes

Half-life of protein-bound thyroid hormones may be as long as:
A. 2–5 hours
B. 20–100 minutes
C. 1–6 days
D. 6–12 hours

C. 1–6 days

A receptor that loops in and out of membrane seven times is a:
A. Single-pass enzyme receptor
B. Nuclear receptor
C. Ligand-gated channel
D. GPCR

D. GPCR

Trimeric G proteins are named for binding:
A. Guanosine nucleotides
B. Calcium ions
C. Steroid hormones
D. Tyrosine residues

A. Guanosine nucleotides

In the resting state, the G protein α subunit binds:
A. GDP
B. GTP
C. cAMP
D. IP3

A. GDP

After GDP is exchanged for GTP, the immediate consequence is:
A. βγ subunits dissociate
B. Receptor internalizes
C. cAMP is produced
D. α subunit dissociates

D. α subunit dissociates

Enzyme-linked receptors typically pass through the membrane:
A. Seven times
B. Once
C. Zero times
D. Four times

B. Once

Which hormone uses receptor tyrosine kinase signaling?
A. Cortisol
B. Thyroxine
C. Insulin
D. Aldosterone

C. Insulin

Which hormone uses receptor tyrosine kinase signaling?
A. Oxytocin
B. Glucagon
C. Calcitonin
D. Insulin-like growth factor-1

D. Insulin-like growth factor-1

Which hormone uses receptor tyrosine kinase signaling?
A. Melatonin
B. Growth hormone
C. Estrogen
D. Aldosterone

B. Growth hormone

Which hormone uses receptor tyrosine kinase signaling?
A. TSH
B. ACTH
C. Prolactin
D. ADH

C. Prolactin

Which hormone uses receptor tyrosine kinase signaling?
A. Epinephrine
B. Cortisol
C. PTH
D. Leptin

D. Leptin

Which factor uses receptor tyrosine kinase signaling?
A. Histamine
B. Dopamine
C. Serotonin
D. Fibroblast growth factor

D. Fibroblast growth factor

Which factor uses receptor tyrosine kinase signaling?
A. Vascular endothelial growth factor
B. Thyroxine
C. Cortisol
D. Glucagon

A. Vascular endothelial growth factor

Which factor uses receptor tyrosine kinase signaling?
A. Hepatocyte growth factor
B. Bradykinin
C. Angiotensin II
D. Prostaglandin E2

A. Hepatocyte growth factor

A highly protein-bound hormone pool in plasma most directly:
A. Speeds renal filtration
B. Serves as hormone reservoir
C. Triggers second messenger synthesis
D. Forces receptor downregulation

B. Serves as hormone reservoir

Which set contains key second messengers?
A. ATP, ADP, Pi
B. DNA, RNA, histones
C. Cholesterol, bile salts
D. cAMP, Ca2+-calmodulin, phospholipid products

D. cAMP, Ca2+-calmodulin, phospholipid products

Phospholipase C breaks PIP2 into:
A. ATP and ADP
B. IP3 and DAG
C. cAMP and GMP
D. NADH and FADH2

B. IP3 and DAG

IP3 most directly causes:
A. Activates protein kinase C
B. Opens Na+ channels
C. Increases nuclear receptor binding
D. Releases Ca2+ from ER mitochondria

D. Releases Ca2+ from ER mitochondria

DAG most directly causes:
A. Mobilizes Ca2+ from ER
B. Activates adenylyl cyclase
C. Activates protein kinase C
D. Activates thyroid-binding globulin

C. Activates protein kinase C

After DAG activation, protein kinase C primarily leads to:
A. cAMP synthesis rises
B. DNA replication accelerates
C. Steroid storage increases
D. Increased protein phosphorylation

D. Increased protein phosphorylation

Calmodulin contains how many calcium-binding sites?
A. Four binding sites
B. Two binding sites
C. Three binding sites
D. Seven binding sites

A. Four binding sites

Calmodulin changes shape and initiates effects when:
A. Three of four bound
B. One of four bound
C. Two of four bound
D. Four of four bound

A. Three of four bound

Two factors that raise or lower blood hormone levels are:
A. Binding and diffusion rates
B. Secretion rate and clearance rate
C. Storage and vesicle size
D. Filtration and lymph flow

B. Secretion rate and clearance rate

A lab needs an extremely sensitive method to measure hormones, their precursors, and metabolic end products. Best method?
A. Western blot assay
B. ELISA
C. Radioimmunoassay
D. Mass spectrometry

C. Radioimmunoassay

In radioimmunoassay, the first key reagent generated is a:
A. Highly specific anti-hormone antibody
B. Enzyme-labeled detection antibody
C. Ligand-gated channel protein
D. Fluorescent reporter substrate

A. Highly specific anti-hormone antibody

Early in radioimmunoassay setup, the antibody is mixed with:
A. Bile plus urinary metabolites
B. Only purified standard hormone
C. Only animal sample fluid
D. Sample fluid plus standard hormone

D. Sample fluid plus standard hormone

In radioimmunoassay, antibody-hormone binding is allowed to reach:
A. Saturation only
B. Equilibrium
C. Zero binding
D. Random collision state

B. Equilibrium

After equilibrium in radioimmunoassay, the next required step is:
A. Separate complex and measure
B. Dissolve receptor in detergent
C. Add calmodulin and calcium
D. Pellet mitochondria by centrifuge

A. Separate complex and measure

In radioimmunoassay, if a large fraction is antibody-bound, the assayed fluid had:
A. Very high natural hormone
B. Moderate natural hormone
C. Variable natural hormone
D. Very low natural hormone

D. Very low natural hormone

To quantify unknowns in radioimmunoassay, the assay is also run with:
A. Standard radiolabeled antibody dilutions
B. Standard untagged hormone solutions
C. Standard enzyme substrate dilutions
D. Standard receptor-rich membrane extracts

B. Standard untagged hormone solutions

A clinician wants to measure “any protein,” including hormones, using antibody specificity plus enzyme readout. Best assay?
A. Northern blot
B. Patch clamp
C. ELISA
D. Autoradiography

C. ELISA

In ELISA, hormone amount in sample is proportional to:
A. Amount of product formed
B. Amount of antibody destroyed
C. Amount of receptor internalized
D. Amount of bile excreted

A. Amount of product formed

A patient has low TSH and low prolactin due to hypothalamic damage. Which missing hypothalamic hormone explains both?
A. Somatostatin
B. Dopamine
C. GnRH
D. TRH

D. TRH

TRH is released primarily by the:
A. Posterior pituitary
B. Thyroid gland
C. Hypothalamus
D. Anterior pituitary

C. Hypothalamus

A patient with hypothalamic inflammation cannot mount ACTH release. Which hypothalamic hormone is deficient?
A. TRH
B. CRH
C. GHRH
D. Dopamine

B. CRH

CRH is released primarily by the:
A. Adrenal cortex
B. Pineal gland
C. Anterior pituitary
D. Hypothalamus

D. Hypothalamus

A child has low growth hormone because the hypothalamus cannot stimulate somatotrophs. Which hormone is lacking?
A. GHRH
B. Somatostatin
C. CRH
D. GnRH

A. GHRH

GHRH is released primarily by the:
A. Thyroid follicular cells
B. Hypothalamus
C. Anterior pituitary
D. Adrenal medulla

B. Hypothalamus

A patient has abnormally suppressed growth hormone due to excess inhibitory hypothalamic input. Which hormone mediates this?
A. TRH
B. CRH
C. Somatostatin
D. GHRH

C. Somatostatin

Somatostatin is released primarily by the:
A. Hypothalamus
B. Anterior pituitary
C. Thyroid gland
D. Adrenal cortex

A. Hypothalamus

A prolactinoma patient’s prolactin falls sharply after a hypothalamic drug. Which hypothalamic signal inhibits prolactin?
A. TRH
B. CRH
C. Dopamine
D. GnRH

C. Dopamine

Dopamine (prolactin-inhibiting factor) is released primarily by the:
A. Posterior pituitary
B. Hypothalamus
C. Ovaries
D. Adrenal cortex

B. Hypothalamus

A patient with hypothalamic injury has low LH and low FSH. Which missing hormone best explains this?
A. Dopamine
B. TRH
C. Somatostatin
D. GnRH

D. GnRH

GnRH is released primarily by the:
A. Hypothalamus
B. Anterior pituitary
C. Placenta
D. Testes

A. Hypothalamus

A teen with pituitary failure has poor linear growth and low lean mass due to low hormone that normally drives protein synthesis and growth. Which hormone is missing?
A. TSH
B. Growth hormone
C. FSH
D. Prolactin

B. Growth hormone

Growth hormone is released primarily by the:
A. Thyroid gland
B. Parathyroid gland
C. Anterior pituitary
D. Posterior pituitary

C. Anterior pituitary

A patient with pituitary damage has low T4 and T3 despite normal thyroid tissue. Which pituitary hormone is deficient?
A. Growth hormone
B. ACTH
C. Prolactin
D. TSH

D. TSH

TSH is released primarily by the:
A. Hypothalamus
B. Anterior pituitary
C. Thyroid gland
D. Posterior pituitary

B. Anterior pituitary

A patient with hypocalcemia needs a hormone that raises serum Ca2+ by increasing gut/kidney absorption and mobilizing bone calcium. Which hormone does this?
A. Parathyroid hormone
B. Calcitonin
C. Aldosterone
D. TSH

A. Parathyroid hormone

Parathyroid hormone is released primarily by the:
A. Thyroid gland
B. Anterior pituitary
C. Hypothalamus
D. Parathyroid gland

D. Parathyroid gland

Which pairing is incorrect?
A. FSH—anterior pituitary
B. hCG—placenta
C. Progesterone—posterior pituitary
D. Testosterone—testes

C. Progesterone—posterior pituitary

After pituitary infarct, adrenal cortex output of cortisol/androgens/aldosterone drops. Which pituitary hormone normally drives this?
A. TSH
B. ACTH
C. Prolactin
D. FSH

B. ACTH

ACTH is released primarily by the:
A. Hypothalamus
B. Adrenal cortex
C. Placenta
D. Anterior pituitary

D. Anterior pituitary

A postpartum patient cannot lactate and has underdeveloped breast secretory function due to low milk-promoting hormone. Which hormone is missing?
A. Prolactin
B. TSH
C. ACTH
D. FSH

A. Prolactin

Prolactin is released primarily by the:
A. Ovaries
B. Placenta
C. Anterior pituitary
D. Posterior pituitary

C. Anterior pituitary

A man has impaired spermatogenesis due to reduced Sertoli support. Which anterior pituitary hormone most directly affects Sertoli-mediated sperm maturation?
A. LH
B. TSH
C. ACTH
D. FSH

D. FSH

FSH is released primarily by the:
A. Hypothalamus
B. Anterior pituitary
C. Testes
D. Placenta

B. Anterior pituitary

A patient has absent male secondary sex characteristics due to low androgen from gonads. Primary source of testosterone?
A. Ovaries
B. Placenta
C. Testes
D. Anterior pituitary

C. Testes

A pregnant patient has low estrogen leading to impaired development of female reproductive tissues and breasts. Major source listed is:
A. Ovaries and placenta
B. Posterior pituitary
C. Parathyroid gland
D. Anterior pituitary

A. Ovaries and placenta

A luteal-phase defect causes poor “uterine milk” secretion and inadequate breast secretory apparatus. Which hormone is deficient?
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Prolactin
D. hCG

B. Progesterone

Progesterone is produced primarily by:
A. Hypothalamus only
B. Anterior pituitary only
C. Parathyroid gland
D. Ovaries and placenta

D. Ovaries and placenta

Early pregnancy fails because corpus luteum is not maintained and estrogen/progesterone production falls. Which hormone normally prevents this?
A. hCG
B. FSH
C. TSH
D. GH

A. hCG

hCG is produced primarily by the:
A. Anterior pituitary
B. Ovaries
C. Placenta
D. Testes

C. Placenta

A pregnant patient has low placental hormone that supports fetal tissue growth and maternal breast development. Which hormone is deficient?
A. Human somatomammotropin
B. TRH
C. Dopamine
D. PTH

A. Human somatomammotropin

Human somatomammotropin is produced primarily by the:
A. Ovaries
B. Hypothalamus
C. Anterior pituitary
D. Placenta

D. Placenta

“Prolactin-inhibiting factor” is best identified as:
A. Somatostatin
B. TRH
C. Dopamine
D. GnRH

C. Dopamine

ELISA combines antibody specificity with the sensitivity of:
A. Patch-clamp recordings
B. Simple enzyme assays
C. Radiographic contrast studies
D. Tissue culture bioassays

B. Simple enzyme assays

A patient with chronic kidney disease develops normocytic anemia from reduced stimulation of RBC production. Which hormone is deficient?
A. Renin
B. Calcitriol
C. Erythropoietin
D. Atrial natriuretic peptide

C. Erythropoietin

A man has low testosterone from impaired Leydig stimulation; his partner also has anovulation with absent corpus luteum. Which hormone is low?
A. Luteinizing hormone
B. Follicle-stimulating hormone
C. Prolactin
D. Thyroid-stimulating hormone

A. Luteinizing hormone

A patient has central diabetes insipidus with dilute urine; they also lose vasoconstrictor tone and become hypotensive. Which hormone is missing?
A. Renin
B. Atrial natriuretic peptide
C. Oxytocin
D. Antidiuretic hormone

D. Antidiuretic hormone

During breastfeeding, milk is produced but not expelled; uterine tone is also reduced postpartum. Which hormone is deficient?
A. Prolactin
B. Oxytocin
C. LH
D. ADH

B. Oxytocin

A patient’s angiotensin I levels fail to rise despite normal angiotensinogen. Which enzyme-hormone is deficient?
A. Renin
B. Aldosterone
C. Cortisol
D. ANP

A. Renin

After nephrectomy, a patient develops decreased intestinal calcium absorption and impaired bone mineralization. Which hormone is reduced?
A. Calcitonin
B. PTH
C. Calcitriol
D. Aldosterone

C. Calcitriol

A patient with volume overload has a hormone surge causing natriuresis and lower blood pressure. Which hormone mediates this?
A. ADH
B. Atrial natriuretic peptide
C. Aldosterone
D. Renin

B. Atrial natriuretic peptide

A duodenal hormone increases pancreatic secretion of bicarbonate and water to neutralize acid. Which hormone is it?
A. Gastrin
B. CCK
C. Secretin
D. ANP

C. Secretin

After a fatty meal, a patient fails to contract the gallbladder and has reduced pancreatic enzyme release. Which hormone is deficient?
A. Cholecystokinin
B. Secretin
C. Gastrin
D. Leptin

A. Cholecystokinin

A patient has hyperphagia and low thermogenesis due to loss of an adipocyte signal. Which hormone is missing?
A. Cortisol
B. Leptin
C. Calcitonin
D. ADH

B. Leptin

A patient has cold intolerance and slowed cellular chemical reactions due to reduced thyroid output. Which hormones are low?
A. Cortisol and aldosterone
B. Epinephrine and norepinephrine
C. Calcitriol and calcitonin
D. T3 and T4

D. T3 and T4

A hormone lowers extracellular Ca2+ by promoting calcium deposition in bone. Which hormone is it?
A. Calcitonin
B. Parathyroid hormone
C. Calcitriol
D. ANP

A. Calcitonin

A patient on long-term steroids shows impaired immune responses; which endogenous hormone normally has anti-inflammatory effects and regulates macronutrient metabolism?
A. Aldosterone
B. Calcitonin
C. Cortisol
D. T3 and T4

C. Cortisol

A patient has hyperkalemia and metabolic acidosis with decreased renal Na+ reabsorption. Which hormone is deficient?
A. ANP
B. Cortisol
C. ADH
D. Aldosterone

D. Aldosterone

A patient with episodic palpitations, diaphoresis, and tremor has excess hormone producing sympathetic-like effects. Which hormones are elevated?
A. Cortisol and aldosterone
B. Epinephrine and norepinephrine
C. T3 and T4
D. Gastrin and secretin

B. Epinephrine and norepinephrine

Luteinizing hormone (LH) is released by the::
A. Posterior pituitary
B. Thyroid
C. Adrenal cortex
D. Anterior pituitary

D. Anterior pituitary

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH, vasopressin) is released by the:
A. Posterior pituitary
B. Anterior pituitary
C. Heart
D. Kidneys

A. Posterior pituitary

Renin is released by the:
A. Stomach
B. Thyroid
C. Kidneys
D. Adipocytes

C. Kidneys

Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is released by the:
A. Adrenal medulla
B. Heart
C. Posterior pituitary
D. Anterior pituitary

B. Heart

Gastrin is released by the:
A. Stomach
B. Small intestine
C. Kidneys
D. Thyroid

A. Stomach

Secretin is released by the:
A. Adrenal cortex
B. Heart
C. Posterior pituitary
D. Small intestine

D. Small intestine

Leptin is released by:
A. Thyroid
B. Adipocytes
C. Kidneys
D. Anterior pituitary

B. Adipocytes

Thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3) are released by the:
A. Heart
B. Adrenal cortex
C. Thyroid
D. Posterior pituitary

C. Thyroid

A patient with new-onset type 1 diabetes has impaired glucose entry into muscle and adipose. Which hormone is deficient?
A. Glucagon
B. Insulin
C. Cortisol
D. Epinephrine

B. Insulin

During prolonged fasting, a hormone increases hepatic glucose release into body fluids. Which hormone is this?
A. Insulin
B. Thyroxine
C. Growth hormone
D. Glucagon

D. Glucagon

The smallest protein/polypeptide hormone listed is:
A. Thyrotropin-releasing hormone
B. Prolactin
C. Growth hormone
D. Insulin

A. Thyrotropin-releasing hormone

The largest protein/polypeptide hormones listed are:
A. TRH and glucagon
B. Insulin and PTH
C. Growth hormone and prolactin
D. T3 and T4

C. Growth hormone and prolactin

Protein/peptide hormones are initially synthesized as:
A. Mature hormones directly
B. Steroid precursors
C. Tyrosine derivatives
D. Large preprohormones

D. Large preprohormones

Protein/peptide hormones are stored mainly in:
A. Nucleus
B. Smooth ER
C. Secretory vesicles
D. Plasma proteins

C. Secretory vesicles

Which tissue set secretes protein/polypeptide hormones?
A. Pituitary, pancreas, parathyroid
B. Adrenal cortex, ovaries, testes
C. Thyroid, adrenal medulla, heart
D. Placenta, kidney, stomach

A. Pituitary, pancreas, parathyroid

Protein/peptide hormones are secreted primarily via:
A. Simple diffusion
B. Transporter-mediated efflux
C. Nuclear pore export
D. Exocytosis

D. Exocytosis

A pancreatic β-cell depolarizes after glucose uptake. What triggers insulin vesicle fusion most directly?
A. Decreased cytosolic calcium
B. Increased cytosolic sodium
C. Increased cytosolic calcium
D. Increased nuclear transcription

C. Increased cytosolic calcium

A hormone binds a surface receptor, raising cAMP. Secretion is promoted by activation of:
A. Ion channels only
B. Protein kinases
C. Ribosomal peptidases
D. DNA polymerase

B. Protein kinases

Which site produces steroid hormones?
A. Adrenal medulla
B. Adrenal cortex
C. Posterior pituitary
D. Parathyroid gland

B. Adrenal cortex

Amine hormones are derived from the amino acid:
A. Glycine
B. Glutamate
C. Tryptophan
D. Tyrosine

D. Tyrosine

A patient has a sudden “fight-or-flight” surge with effects developing within seconds. Which hormones fit best?
A. T3 and T4
B. Epinephrine and norepinephrine
C. Growth hormone and prolactin
D. Cortisol and aldosterone

B. Epinephrine and norepinephrine

Which hormone(s) may require months for full effect?
A. Epinephrine and norepinephrine
B. Insulin and glucagon
C. ACTH and TSH
D. Thyroxine and growth hormone

D. Thyroxine and growth hormone

Which hormone shows positive feedback?
A. Cortisol
B. Prolactin
C. Luteinizing hormone
D. Glucagon

C. Luteinizing hormone

A child’s hormone secretion varies with age and development in cyclic patterns. Which hormone best matches?
A. Thyroxine
B. Growth hormone
C. Aldosterone
D. Calcitonin

B. Growth hormone

Which are water-soluble hormone classes?
A. Peptides and catecholamines
B. Steroids and thyroid hormones
C. Steroids and catecholamines
D. Thyroid and peptide hormones

A. Peptides and catecholamines

A water-soluble hormone travels to targets mainly by:
A. Binding TBG tightly
B. Albumin-only transport
C. Dissolving freely in plasma
D. Lipoprotein packaging

C. Dissolving freely in plasma

Water-soluble hormones reach targets by first:
A. Entering nucleus directly
B. Crossing membranes via diffusion
C. Binding intracellular receptors
D. Diffusing into interstitial fluid

D. Diffusing into interstitial fluid

Which hormones circulate bound to plasma proteins?
A. Insulin and glucagon
B. Steroids and thyroid hormones
C. Catecholamines and peptides
D. Renin and angiotensin II

B. Steroids and thyroid hormones

Metabolic clearance rate (mL/min) equals:
A. Disappearance rate / [hormone]
B. [Hormone] / disappearance rate
C. Secretion rate × [hormone]
D. Half-life × concentration

A. Disappearance rate / [hormone]

"Hormone clearance” includes which mechanism?
A. Ribosomal translation
B. Golgi packaging
C. Liver excretion into bile
D. Membrane depolarization

C. Liver excretion into bile

Among angiotensin II, steroids, thyroid hormones, the longest half-life is:
A. Angiotensin II
B. Steroid hormones
C. Catecholamines
D. Thyroid hormones

D. Thyroid hormones

Thyroid hormones have long half-life largely because they:
A. Bind plasma proteins extensively
B. Are excreted unchanged in urine
C. Are stored in vesicles
D. Are rapidly degraded in tissues

A. Bind plasma proteins extensively

A clinician notes a hormone clears quickly because it circulates freely and is filtered readily. Best example?
A. Thyroxine
B. Cortisol
C. Angiotensin II
D. Testosterone

C. Angiotensin II

Pancreatic insulin and glucagon are best classified as:
A. Steroid hormones
B. Thyroid hormones
C. Tyrosine derivatives
D. Peptide hormones

D. Peptide hormones

Which hormone classes have receptors in/on cell membrane?
A. Steroid hormones
B. Thyroid hormones
C. Protein, peptide, catecholamine hormones
D. Steroid and thyroid hormones

C. Protein, peptide, catecholamine hormones

Steroid hormones most typically bind receptors in the:
A. Cell cytoplasm
B. Cell nucleus
C. Cell membrane
D. Rough ER

A. Cell cytoplasm

Thyroid hormones most typically bind receptors in the:
A. Cell cytoplasm
B. Cell membrane
C. Secretory vesicles
D. Cell nucleus

D. Cell nucleus

ACh/NE bind receptors that open/close channels. Receptor type?
A. Nuclear receptors
B. Ion-channel linked receptors
C. Receptor tyrosine kinases
D. Enzyme-linked receptors

B. Ion-channel linked receptors

Hormones regulate enzymes/channels indirectly via trimeric G proteins. Receptor type?
A. Ion-channel linked receptor
B. Enzyme-linked receptor
C. G-protein hormone receptor
D. Nuclear hormone receptor

C. G-protein hormone receptor

G-protein signaling is terminated mainly by:
A. IP3 dephosphorylation
B. cAMP breakdown only
C. Receptor internalization
D. GTP autohydrolysis to GDP

D. GTP autohydrolysis to GDP

Which hormone increases intracellular cGMP?
A. Atrial natriuretic peptide
B. Epinephrine
C. Aldosterone
D. Insulin

A. Atrial natriuretic peptide

Calcium-calmodulin signaling activates:
A. Protein kinase A
B. Myosin light chain kinase
C. Adenylyl cyclase
D. Tyrosine kinase receptor

B. Myosin light chain kinase

Myosin light chain kinase activation causes:
A. Increased gene transcription
B. Reduced cAMP formation
C. Thyroid hormone release
D. Smooth muscle contraction

D. Smooth muscle contraction

Which hormone class increases protein synthesis?
A. Catecholamines
B. Peptide hormones
C. Steroid hormones
D. Cytokines

C. Steroid hormones

Thyroid hormones act on genetic machinery by:
A. Nuclear gene transcription
B. Opening ion channels
C. Activating PLC only
D. Increasing cAMP only

A. Nuclear gene transcription

Aldosterone’s key effect is:
A. Na+ secretion, K+ loss
B. Na+ reabsorption, K+ secretion
C. Na+ reabsorption, K+ reabsorption
D. Na+ loss, K+ retention

B. Na+ reabsorption, K+ secretion

Key ELISA feature vs radioimmunoassay:
A. Competitive radioligand binding
B. Uses receptor membrane prep
C. Uses excess antibody to capture
D. Requires radioactive labeling

C. Uses excess antibody to capture

Using excess antibodies in ELISA ensures:
A. Partial hormone capture
B. Only standards captured
C. Only metabolites captured
D. All hormone captured in complexes

D. All hormone captured in complexes

The ELISA readout described is the:
A. Bound complex radioactivity
B. Enzyme product amount
C. Tissue binding fraction
D. Plasma half-life length

B. Enzyme product amount