Print Options

Card layout: ?

← Back to notecard set|Easy Notecards home page

Instructions for Side by Side Printing
  1. Print the notecards
  2. Fold each page in half along the solid vertical line
  3. Cut out the notecards by cutting along each horizontal dotted line
  4. Optional: Glue, tape or staple the ends of each notecard together
  1. Verify Front of pages is selected for Viewing and print the front of the notecards
  2. Select Back of pages for Viewing and print the back of the notecards
    NOTE: Since the back of the pages are printed in reverse order (last page is printed first), keep the pages in the same order as they were after Step 1. Also, be sure to feed the pages in the same direction as you did in Step 1.
  3. Cut out the notecards by cutting along each horizontal and vertical dotted line
To print: Ctrl+PPrint as a list

164 notecards = 41 pages (4 cards per page)

Viewing:

Phys 75

front 1

What are peptides secreted by cells into the extracellular fluid and can function as autocrines, paracrines, or endocrine hormones?
A. Steroid hormone
B. Tyrosine derivative
C. Cytokine
D. Thyroid hormone

back 1

C. Cytokine

front 2

A lymphocyte secretes a factor that binds receptors on the same cell that released it. This signaling is:
A. Autocrine
B. Paracrine
C. Endocrine
D. Neurocrine

back 2

A. Autocrine

front 3

A hormone-like cytokine produced by adipocytes is most specifically termed a(n):
A. Lymphokine
B. Interleukin
C. Preprohormone
D. Adipokine

back 3

D. Adipokine

front 4

Which is NOT one of the three general hormone classes?
A. Steroids
B. Nucleic acids
C. Tyrosine derivatives
D. Proteins and polypeptides

back 4

B. Nucleic acids

front 5

Most hormones in the human body are:
A. Polypeptides and proteins
B. Steroids
C. Tyrosine derivatives
D. Nucleic acids

back 5

A. Polypeptides and proteins

front 6

A newly discovered pituitary hormone is a 110–amino acid polypeptide. By the usual size convention, it is a:
A. Peptide hormone
B. Tyrosine derivative
C. Steroid hormone
D. Protein hormone

back 6

D. Protein hormone

front 7

A 60–amino acid hormone secreted from endocrine cells is best termed a:
A. Protein hormone
B. Peptide hormone
C. Steroid hormone
D. Thyroid hormone

back 7

B. Peptide hormone

front 8

An endocrine cell making peptide hormones shows prominent ribosome-studded membranes. Protein/peptide hormones are synthesized on the:
A. Smooth ER
B. Nucleus
C. Rough ER
D. Mitochondria

back 8

C. Rough ER

front 9

A secreted hormone is translated initially as a larger, biologically inactive precursor. This larger precursor is a:
A. Preprohormone
B. Prohormone
C. Adipokine
D. Thyroglobulin

back 9

A. Preprohormone

front 10

In the rough ER, a preprohormone is cleaved to form a smaller intermediate. That intermediate is the:
A. Thyroid hormone
B. Thyroxine-binding globulin
C. Cytokine
D. Prohormone

back 10

D. Prohormone

front 11

After prohormone formation, it is transferred for packaging into secretory vesicles primarily by the:
A. Nucleolus
B. Golgi apparatus
C. Smooth ER
D. Mitochondrion

back 11

B. Golgi apparatus

front 12

In many endocrine cells, the immediate trigger for vesicle fusion and hormone exocytosis is increased cytosolic:
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Calcium
D. Chloride

back 12

C. Calcium

front 13

Compared with peptide hormones, steroid hormones are typically:
A. Stored in vesicles
B. Stored as preprohormones
C. Stored bound to proteins
D. Not stored significantly

back 13

D. Not stored significantly

front 14

A steroidogenic cell is stimulated to increase hormone synthesis. The cholesterol source for steroid production is primarily:
A. Plasma plus de novo synthesis
B. Golgi vesicle stores
C. Thyroglobulin breakdown
D. Amino acid cleavage

back 14

A. Plasma plus de novo synthesis

front 15

Two major hormone groups derived from tyrosine are:
A. Steroids and peptides
B. Cytokines and adipokines
C. Thyroid and adrenal medulla
D. Proteins and steroids

back 15

C. Thyroid and adrenal medulla

front 16

Thyroid hormones are synthesized and stored in the thyroid gland incorporated into macromolecules of:
A. Albumin
B. Thyroglobulin
C. Thyroxine-binding globulin
D. Prohormone

back 16

B. Thyroglobulin

front 17

Thyroid hormone secretion into blood occurs when:
A. Thyroglobulin is secreted intact
B. Steroids are exocytosed
C. TBG is cleaved in plasma
D. Amines split from thyroglobulin

back 17

D. Amines split from thyroglobulin

front 18

After entering the bloodstream, thyroid hormones bind especially to:
A. Thyroxine-binding globulin
B. Thyroglobulin
C. Secretory vesicles
D. Rough ER proteins

back 18

A. Thyroxine-binding globulin

front 19

In circulating blood, most thyroid hormone molecules are:
A. Vesicle-packaged
B. Protein-bound
C. Cytosolic
D. Membrane-anchored

back 19

B. Protein-bound

front 20

The adrenal medulla secretes approximately how much more epinephrine than norepinephrine?
A. 1×
B. 2×
C. 4×
D. 10×

back 20

C. 4×

front 21

A patient with adrenal medullary hypersecretion has elevated catecholamines. The predominant secreted catecholamine is:
A. Epinephrine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Dopamine
D. Acetylcholine

back 21

A. Epinephrine

front 22

A hormone is synthesized from cholesterol and is not stored to any significant degree. It is most consistent with a:
A. Peptide hormone
B. Cytokine
C. Tyrosine derivative
D. Steroid hormone

back 22

D. Steroid hormone

front 23

In peptide-hormone synthesis, cleavage that generates smaller prohormones from preprohormones occurs in the:
A. Golgi apparatus
B. Secretory vesicle
C. Rough ER
D. Plasma membrane

back 23

C. Rough ER

front 24

A cytokine enters the bloodstream and acts on distant organs rather than local cells. This cytokine is acting as a(n):
A. Paracrine factor
B. Endocrine hormone
C. Autocrine signal
D. Intracrine mediator

back 24

B. Endocrine hormone

front 25

A patient’s hormone pulses shift predictably over 24 hours and with sleep. Release can be influenced by:
A. Meal timing and exercise
B. Diurnal cycle and sleep
C. Fever spikes and infection
D. Plasma pH and osmolality

back 25

B. Diurnal cycle and sleep

front 26

Hormone release can be influenced by:
A. Acute trauma and hemorrhage
B. Single receptor mutation
C. Season, development, aging stages
D. Random synaptic firing

back 26

C. Season, development, aging stages

front 27

Large amounts of hormone bound to plasma proteins mainly function as:
A. Reservoirs
B. Second messengers
C. Ion channels
D. Enzymes

back 27

A. Reservoirs

front 28

Two factors that determine hormone concentration in blood are:
A. Storage rate and diffusion
B. Binding rate and pH
C. Filtration and reabsorption
D. Secretion rate and removal rate

back 28

D. Secretion rate and removal rate

front 29

The rate of removal of a hormone from blood is the:
A. Plasma half-life
B. Metabolic clearance rate
C. Extraction fraction
D. Volume distribution constant

back 29

B. Metabolic clearance rate

front 30

A hormone is inactivated by enzymes within peripheral tissues. This represents clearance by:
A. Kidney excretion into urine
B. Metabolic destruction by tissues
C. Liver excretion into bile
D. Binding with tissues

back 30

B. Metabolic destruction by tissues

front 31

A conjugated hormone is secreted into bile after hepatic processing. This represents clearance by:
A. Liver excretion into bile
B. Binding with tissues
C. Metabolic destruction by tissues
D. Kidney excretion into urine

back 31

A. Liver excretion into bile

front 32

A water-soluble hormone is eliminated unchanged in urine. This represents clearance by:
A. Binding with tissues
B. Liver excretion into bile
C. Kidney excretion into urine
D. Metabolic destruction by tissues

back 32

C. Kidney excretion into urine

front 33

Typical half-life for adrenal steroids in circulation is:
A. 1–6 days
B. 2–5 minutes
C. 6–12 hours
D. 20–100 minutes

back 33

D. 20–100 minutes

front 34

Half-life of protein-bound thyroid hormones may be as long as:
A. 2–5 hours
B. 20–100 minutes
C. 1–6 days
D. 6–12 hours

back 34

C. 1–6 days

front 35

A receptor that loops in and out of membrane seven times is a:
A. Single-pass enzyme receptor
B. Nuclear receptor
C. Ligand-gated channel
D. GPCR

back 35

D. GPCR

front 36

Trimeric G proteins are named for binding:
A. Guanosine nucleotides
B. Calcium ions
C. Steroid hormones
D. Tyrosine residues

back 36

A. Guanosine nucleotides

front 37

In the resting state, the G protein α subunit binds:
A. GDP
B. GTP
C. cAMP
D. IP3

back 37

A. GDP

front 38

After GDP is exchanged for GTP, the immediate consequence is:
A. βγ subunits dissociate
B. Receptor internalizes
C. cAMP is produced
D. α subunit dissociates

back 38

D. α subunit dissociates

front 39

Enzyme-linked receptors typically pass through the membrane:
A. Seven times
B. Once
C. Zero times
D. Four times

back 39

B. Once

front 40

Which hormone uses receptor tyrosine kinase signaling?
A. Cortisol
B. Thyroxine
C. Insulin
D. Aldosterone

back 40

C. Insulin

front 41

Which hormone uses receptor tyrosine kinase signaling?
A. Oxytocin
B. Glucagon
C. Calcitonin
D. Insulin-like growth factor-1

back 41

D. Insulin-like growth factor-1

front 42

Which hormone uses receptor tyrosine kinase signaling?
A. Melatonin
B. Growth hormone
C. Estrogen
D. Aldosterone

back 42

B. Growth hormone

front 43

Which hormone uses receptor tyrosine kinase signaling?
A. TSH
B. ACTH
C. Prolactin
D. ADH

back 43

C. Prolactin

front 44

Which hormone uses receptor tyrosine kinase signaling?
A. Epinephrine
B. Cortisol
C. PTH
D. Leptin

back 44

D. Leptin

front 45

Which factor uses receptor tyrosine kinase signaling?
A. Histamine
B. Dopamine
C. Serotonin
D. Fibroblast growth factor

back 45

D. Fibroblast growth factor

front 46

Which factor uses receptor tyrosine kinase signaling?
A. Vascular endothelial growth factor
B. Thyroxine
C. Cortisol
D. Glucagon

back 46

A. Vascular endothelial growth factor

front 47

Which factor uses receptor tyrosine kinase signaling?
A. Hepatocyte growth factor
B. Bradykinin
C. Angiotensin II
D. Prostaglandin E2

back 47

A. Hepatocyte growth factor

front 48

A highly protein-bound hormone pool in plasma most directly:
A. Speeds renal filtration
B. Serves as hormone reservoir
C. Triggers second messenger synthesis
D. Forces receptor downregulation

back 48

B. Serves as hormone reservoir

front 49

Which set contains key second messengers?
A. ATP, ADP, Pi
B. DNA, RNA, histones
C. Cholesterol, bile salts
D. cAMP, Ca2+-calmodulin, phospholipid products

back 49

D. cAMP, Ca2+-calmodulin, phospholipid products

front 50

Phospholipase C breaks PIP2 into:
A. ATP and ADP
B. IP3 and DAG
C. cAMP and GMP
D. NADH and FADH2

back 50

B. IP3 and DAG

front 51

IP3 most directly causes:
A. Activates protein kinase C
B. Opens Na+ channels
C. Increases nuclear receptor binding
D. Releases Ca2+ from ER mitochondria

back 51

D. Releases Ca2+ from ER mitochondria

front 52

DAG most directly causes:
A. Mobilizes Ca2+ from ER
B. Activates adenylyl cyclase
C. Activates protein kinase C
D. Activates thyroid-binding globulin

back 52

C. Activates protein kinase C

front 53

After DAG activation, protein kinase C primarily leads to:
A. cAMP synthesis rises
B. DNA replication accelerates
C. Steroid storage increases
D. Increased protein phosphorylation

back 53

D. Increased protein phosphorylation

front 54

Calmodulin contains how many calcium-binding sites?
A. Four binding sites
B. Two binding sites
C. Three binding sites
D. Seven binding sites

back 54

A. Four binding sites

front 55

Calmodulin changes shape and initiates effects when:
A. Three of four bound
B. One of four bound
C. Two of four bound
D. Four of four bound

back 55

A. Three of four bound

front 56

Two factors that raise or lower blood hormone levels are:
A. Binding and diffusion rates
B. Secretion rate and clearance rate
C. Storage and vesicle size
D. Filtration and lymph flow

back 56

B. Secretion rate and clearance rate

front 57

A lab needs an extremely sensitive method to measure hormones, their precursors, and metabolic end products. Best method?
A. Western blot assay
B. ELISA
C. Radioimmunoassay
D. Mass spectrometry

back 57

C. Radioimmunoassay

front 58

In radioimmunoassay, the first key reagent generated is a:
A. Highly specific anti-hormone antibody
B. Enzyme-labeled detection antibody
C. Ligand-gated channel protein
D. Fluorescent reporter substrate

back 58

A. Highly specific anti-hormone antibody

front 59

Early in radioimmunoassay setup, the antibody is mixed with:
A. Bile plus urinary metabolites
B. Only purified standard hormone
C. Only animal sample fluid
D. Sample fluid plus standard hormone

back 59

D. Sample fluid plus standard hormone

front 60

In radioimmunoassay, antibody-hormone binding is allowed to reach:
A. Saturation only
B. Equilibrium
C. Zero binding
D. Random collision state

back 60

B. Equilibrium

front 61

After equilibrium in radioimmunoassay, the next required step is:
A. Separate complex and measure
B. Dissolve receptor in detergent
C. Add calmodulin and calcium
D. Pellet mitochondria by centrifuge

back 61

A. Separate complex and measure

front 62

In radioimmunoassay, if a large fraction is antibody-bound, the assayed fluid had:
A. Very high natural hormone
B. Moderate natural hormone
C. Variable natural hormone
D. Very low natural hormone

back 62

D. Very low natural hormone

front 63

To quantify unknowns in radioimmunoassay, the assay is also run with:
A. Standard radiolabeled antibody dilutions
B. Standard untagged hormone solutions
C. Standard enzyme substrate dilutions
D. Standard receptor-rich membrane extracts

back 63

B. Standard untagged hormone solutions

front 64

A clinician wants to measure “any protein,” including hormones, using antibody specificity plus enzyme readout. Best assay?
A. Northern blot
B. Patch clamp
C. ELISA
D. Autoradiography

back 64

C. ELISA

front 65

In ELISA, hormone amount in sample is proportional to:
A. Amount of product formed
B. Amount of antibody destroyed
C. Amount of receptor internalized
D. Amount of bile excreted

back 65

A. Amount of product formed

front 66

A patient has low TSH and low prolactin due to hypothalamic damage. Which missing hypothalamic hormone explains both?
A. Somatostatin
B. Dopamine
C. GnRH
D. TRH

back 66

D. TRH

front 67

TRH is released primarily by the:
A. Posterior pituitary
B. Thyroid gland
C. Hypothalamus
D. Anterior pituitary

back 67

C. Hypothalamus

front 68

A patient with hypothalamic inflammation cannot mount ACTH release. Which hypothalamic hormone is deficient?
A. TRH
B. CRH
C. GHRH
D. Dopamine

back 68

B. CRH

front 69

CRH is released primarily by the:
A. Adrenal cortex
B. Pineal gland
C. Anterior pituitary
D. Hypothalamus

back 69

D. Hypothalamus

front 70

A child has low growth hormone because the hypothalamus cannot stimulate somatotrophs. Which hormone is lacking?
A. GHRH
B. Somatostatin
C. CRH
D. GnRH

back 70

A. GHRH

front 71

GHRH is released primarily by the:
A. Thyroid follicular cells
B. Hypothalamus
C. Anterior pituitary
D. Adrenal medulla

back 71

B. Hypothalamus

front 72

A patient has abnormally suppressed growth hormone due to excess inhibitory hypothalamic input. Which hormone mediates this?
A. TRH
B. CRH
C. Somatostatin
D. GHRH

back 72

C. Somatostatin

front 73

Somatostatin is released primarily by the:
A. Hypothalamus
B. Anterior pituitary
C. Thyroid gland
D. Adrenal cortex

back 73

A. Hypothalamus

front 74

A prolactinoma patient’s prolactin falls sharply after a hypothalamic drug. Which hypothalamic signal inhibits prolactin?
A. TRH
B. CRH
C. Dopamine
D. GnRH

back 74

C. Dopamine

front 75

Dopamine (prolactin-inhibiting factor) is released primarily by the:
A. Posterior pituitary
B. Hypothalamus
C. Ovaries
D. Adrenal cortex

back 75

B. Hypothalamus

front 76

A patient with hypothalamic injury has low LH and low FSH. Which missing hormone best explains this?
A. Dopamine
B. TRH
C. Somatostatin
D. GnRH

back 76

D. GnRH

front 77

GnRH is released primarily by the:
A. Hypothalamus
B. Anterior pituitary
C. Placenta
D. Testes

back 77

A. Hypothalamus

front 78

A teen with pituitary failure has poor linear growth and low lean mass due to low hormone that normally drives protein synthesis and growth. Which hormone is missing?
A. TSH
B. Growth hormone
C. FSH
D. Prolactin

back 78

B. Growth hormone

front 79

Growth hormone is released primarily by the:
A. Thyroid gland
B. Parathyroid gland
C. Anterior pituitary
D. Posterior pituitary

back 79

C. Anterior pituitary

front 80

A patient with pituitary damage has low T4 and T3 despite normal thyroid tissue. Which pituitary hormone is deficient?
A. Growth hormone
B. ACTH
C. Prolactin
D. TSH

back 80

D. TSH

front 81

TSH is released primarily by the:
A. Hypothalamus
B. Anterior pituitary
C. Thyroid gland
D. Posterior pituitary

back 81

B. Anterior pituitary

front 82

A patient with hypocalcemia needs a hormone that raises serum Ca2+ by increasing gut/kidney absorption and mobilizing bone calcium. Which hormone does this?
A. Parathyroid hormone
B. Calcitonin
C. Aldosterone
D. TSH

back 82

A. Parathyroid hormone

front 83

Parathyroid hormone is released primarily by the:
A. Thyroid gland
B. Anterior pituitary
C. Hypothalamus
D. Parathyroid gland

back 83

D. Parathyroid gland

front 84

Which pairing is incorrect?
A. FSH—anterior pituitary
B. hCG—placenta
C. Progesterone—posterior pituitary
D. Testosterone—testes

back 84

C. Progesterone—posterior pituitary

front 85

After pituitary infarct, adrenal cortex output of cortisol/androgens/aldosterone drops. Which pituitary hormone normally drives this?
A. TSH
B. ACTH
C. Prolactin
D. FSH

back 85

B. ACTH

front 86

ACTH is released primarily by the:
A. Hypothalamus
B. Adrenal cortex
C. Placenta
D. Anterior pituitary

back 86

D. Anterior pituitary

front 87

A postpartum patient cannot lactate and has underdeveloped breast secretory function due to low milk-promoting hormone. Which hormone is missing?
A. Prolactin
B. TSH
C. ACTH
D. FSH

back 87

A. Prolactin

front 88

Prolactin is released primarily by the:
A. Ovaries
B. Placenta
C. Anterior pituitary
D. Posterior pituitary

back 88

C. Anterior pituitary

front 89

A man has impaired spermatogenesis due to reduced Sertoli support. Which anterior pituitary hormone most directly affects Sertoli-mediated sperm maturation?
A. LH
B. TSH
C. ACTH
D. FSH

back 89

D. FSH

front 90

FSH is released primarily by the:
A. Hypothalamus
B. Anterior pituitary
C. Testes
D. Placenta

back 90

B. Anterior pituitary

front 91

A patient has absent male secondary sex characteristics due to low androgen from gonads. Primary source of testosterone?
A. Ovaries
B. Placenta
C. Testes
D. Anterior pituitary

back 91

C. Testes

front 92

A pregnant patient has low estrogen leading to impaired development of female reproductive tissues and breasts. Major source listed is:
A. Ovaries and placenta
B. Posterior pituitary
C. Parathyroid gland
D. Anterior pituitary

back 92

A. Ovaries and placenta

front 93

A luteal-phase defect causes poor “uterine milk” secretion and inadequate breast secretory apparatus. Which hormone is deficient?
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Prolactin
D. hCG

back 93

B. Progesterone

front 94

Progesterone is produced primarily by:
A. Hypothalamus only
B. Anterior pituitary only
C. Parathyroid gland
D. Ovaries and placenta

back 94

D. Ovaries and placenta

front 95

Early pregnancy fails because corpus luteum is not maintained and estrogen/progesterone production falls. Which hormone normally prevents this?
A. hCG
B. FSH
C. TSH
D. GH

back 95

A. hCG

front 96

hCG is produced primarily by the:
A. Anterior pituitary
B. Ovaries
C. Placenta
D. Testes

back 96

C. Placenta

front 97

A pregnant patient has low placental hormone that supports fetal tissue growth and maternal breast development. Which hormone is deficient?
A. Human somatomammotropin
B. TRH
C. Dopamine
D. PTH

back 97

A. Human somatomammotropin

front 98

Human somatomammotropin is produced primarily by the:
A. Ovaries
B. Hypothalamus
C. Anterior pituitary
D. Placenta

back 98

D. Placenta

front 99

“Prolactin-inhibiting factor” is best identified as:
A. Somatostatin
B. TRH
C. Dopamine
D. GnRH

back 99

C. Dopamine

front 100

ELISA combines antibody specificity with the sensitivity of:
A. Patch-clamp recordings
B. Simple enzyme assays
C. Radiographic contrast studies
D. Tissue culture bioassays

back 100

B. Simple enzyme assays

front 101

A patient with chronic kidney disease develops normocytic anemia from reduced stimulation of RBC production. Which hormone is deficient?
A. Renin
B. Calcitriol
C. Erythropoietin
D. Atrial natriuretic peptide

back 101

C. Erythropoietin

front 102

A man has low testosterone from impaired Leydig stimulation; his partner also has anovulation with absent corpus luteum. Which hormone is low?
A. Luteinizing hormone
B. Follicle-stimulating hormone
C. Prolactin
D. Thyroid-stimulating hormone

back 102

A. Luteinizing hormone

front 103

A patient has central diabetes insipidus with dilute urine; they also lose vasoconstrictor tone and become hypotensive. Which hormone is missing?
A. Renin
B. Atrial natriuretic peptide
C. Oxytocin
D. Antidiuretic hormone

back 103

D. Antidiuretic hormone

front 104

During breastfeeding, milk is produced but not expelled; uterine tone is also reduced postpartum. Which hormone is deficient?
A. Prolactin
B. Oxytocin
C. LH
D. ADH

back 104

B. Oxytocin

front 105

A patient’s angiotensin I levels fail to rise despite normal angiotensinogen. Which enzyme-hormone is deficient?
A. Renin
B. Aldosterone
C. Cortisol
D. ANP

back 105

A. Renin

front 106

After nephrectomy, a patient develops decreased intestinal calcium absorption and impaired bone mineralization. Which hormone is reduced?
A. Calcitonin
B. PTH
C. Calcitriol
D. Aldosterone

back 106

C. Calcitriol

front 107

A patient with volume overload has a hormone surge causing natriuresis and lower blood pressure. Which hormone mediates this?
A. ADH
B. Atrial natriuretic peptide
C. Aldosterone
D. Renin

back 107

B. Atrial natriuretic peptide

front 108

A duodenal hormone increases pancreatic secretion of bicarbonate and water to neutralize acid. Which hormone is it?
A. Gastrin
B. CCK
C. Secretin
D. ANP

back 108

C. Secretin

front 109

After a fatty meal, a patient fails to contract the gallbladder and has reduced pancreatic enzyme release. Which hormone is deficient?
A. Cholecystokinin
B. Secretin
C. Gastrin
D. Leptin

back 109

A. Cholecystokinin

front 110

A patient has hyperphagia and low thermogenesis due to loss of an adipocyte signal. Which hormone is missing?
A. Cortisol
B. Leptin
C. Calcitonin
D. ADH

back 110

B. Leptin

front 111

A patient has cold intolerance and slowed cellular chemical reactions due to reduced thyroid output. Which hormones are low?
A. Cortisol and aldosterone
B. Epinephrine and norepinephrine
C. Calcitriol and calcitonin
D. T3 and T4

back 111

D. T3 and T4

front 112

A hormone lowers extracellular Ca2+ by promoting calcium deposition in bone. Which hormone is it?
A. Calcitonin
B. Parathyroid hormone
C. Calcitriol
D. ANP

back 112

A. Calcitonin

front 113

A patient on long-term steroids shows impaired immune responses; which endogenous hormone normally has anti-inflammatory effects and regulates macronutrient metabolism?
A. Aldosterone
B. Calcitonin
C. Cortisol
D. T3 and T4

back 113

C. Cortisol

front 114

A patient has hyperkalemia and metabolic acidosis with decreased renal Na+ reabsorption. Which hormone is deficient?
A. ANP
B. Cortisol
C. ADH
D. Aldosterone

back 114

D. Aldosterone

front 115

A patient with episodic palpitations, diaphoresis, and tremor has excess hormone producing sympathetic-like effects. Which hormones are elevated?
A. Cortisol and aldosterone
B. Epinephrine and norepinephrine
C. T3 and T4
D. Gastrin and secretin

back 115

B. Epinephrine and norepinephrine

front 116

Luteinizing hormone (LH) is released by the::
A. Posterior pituitary
B. Thyroid
C. Adrenal cortex
D. Anterior pituitary

back 116

D. Anterior pituitary

front 117

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH, vasopressin) is released by the:
A. Posterior pituitary
B. Anterior pituitary
C. Heart
D. Kidneys

back 117

A. Posterior pituitary

front 118

Renin is released by the:
A. Stomach
B. Thyroid
C. Kidneys
D. Adipocytes

back 118

C. Kidneys

front 119

Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is released by the:
A. Adrenal medulla
B. Heart
C. Posterior pituitary
D. Anterior pituitary

back 119

B. Heart

front 120

Gastrin is released by the:
A. Stomach
B. Small intestine
C. Kidneys
D. Thyroid

back 120

A. Stomach

front 121

Secretin is released by the:
A. Adrenal cortex
B. Heart
C. Posterior pituitary
D. Small intestine

back 121

D. Small intestine

front 122

Leptin is released by:
A. Thyroid
B. Adipocytes
C. Kidneys
D. Anterior pituitary

back 122

B. Adipocytes

front 123

Thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3) are released by the:
A. Heart
B. Adrenal cortex
C. Thyroid
D. Posterior pituitary

back 123

C. Thyroid

front 124

A patient with new-onset type 1 diabetes has impaired glucose entry into muscle and adipose. Which hormone is deficient?
A. Glucagon
B. Insulin
C. Cortisol
D. Epinephrine

back 124

B. Insulin

front 125

During prolonged fasting, a hormone increases hepatic glucose release into body fluids. Which hormone is this?
A. Insulin
B. Thyroxine
C. Growth hormone
D. Glucagon

back 125

D. Glucagon

front 126

The smallest protein/polypeptide hormone listed is:
A. Thyrotropin-releasing hormone
B. Prolactin
C. Growth hormone
D. Insulin

back 126

A. Thyrotropin-releasing hormone

front 127

The largest protein/polypeptide hormones listed are:
A. TRH and glucagon
B. Insulin and PTH
C. Growth hormone and prolactin
D. T3 and T4

back 127

C. Growth hormone and prolactin

front 128

Protein/peptide hormones are initially synthesized as:
A. Mature hormones directly
B. Steroid precursors
C. Tyrosine derivatives
D. Large preprohormones

back 128

D. Large preprohormones

front 129

Protein/peptide hormones are stored mainly in:
A. Nucleus
B. Smooth ER
C. Secretory vesicles
D. Plasma proteins

back 129

C. Secretory vesicles

front 130

Which tissue set secretes protein/polypeptide hormones?
A. Pituitary, pancreas, parathyroid
B. Adrenal cortex, ovaries, testes
C. Thyroid, adrenal medulla, heart
D. Placenta, kidney, stomach

back 130

A. Pituitary, pancreas, parathyroid

front 131

Protein/peptide hormones are secreted primarily via:
A. Simple diffusion
B. Transporter-mediated efflux
C. Nuclear pore export
D. Exocytosis

back 131

D. Exocytosis

front 132

A pancreatic β-cell depolarizes after glucose uptake. What triggers insulin vesicle fusion most directly?
A. Decreased cytosolic calcium
B. Increased cytosolic sodium
C. Increased cytosolic calcium
D. Increased nuclear transcription

back 132

C. Increased cytosolic calcium

front 133

A hormone binds a surface receptor, raising cAMP. Secretion is promoted by activation of:
A. Ion channels only
B. Protein kinases
C. Ribosomal peptidases
D. DNA polymerase

back 133

B. Protein kinases

front 134

Which site produces steroid hormones?
A. Adrenal medulla
B. Adrenal cortex
C. Posterior pituitary
D. Parathyroid gland

back 134

B. Adrenal cortex

front 135

Amine hormones are derived from the amino acid:
A. Glycine
B. Glutamate
C. Tryptophan
D. Tyrosine

back 135

D. Tyrosine

front 136

A patient has a sudden “fight-or-flight” surge with effects developing within seconds. Which hormones fit best?
A. T3 and T4
B. Epinephrine and norepinephrine
C. Growth hormone and prolactin
D. Cortisol and aldosterone

back 136

B. Epinephrine and norepinephrine

front 137

Which hormone(s) may require months for full effect?
A. Epinephrine and norepinephrine
B. Insulin and glucagon
C. ACTH and TSH
D. Thyroxine and growth hormone

back 137

D. Thyroxine and growth hormone

front 138

Which hormone shows positive feedback?
A. Cortisol
B. Prolactin
C. Luteinizing hormone
D. Glucagon

back 138

C. Luteinizing hormone

front 139

A child’s hormone secretion varies with age and development in cyclic patterns. Which hormone best matches?
A. Thyroxine
B. Growth hormone
C. Aldosterone
D. Calcitonin

back 139

B. Growth hormone

front 140

Which are water-soluble hormone classes?
A. Peptides and catecholamines
B. Steroids and thyroid hormones
C. Steroids and catecholamines
D. Thyroid and peptide hormones

back 140

A. Peptides and catecholamines

front 141

A water-soluble hormone travels to targets mainly by:
A. Binding TBG tightly
B. Albumin-only transport
C. Dissolving freely in plasma
D. Lipoprotein packaging

back 141

C. Dissolving freely in plasma

front 142

Water-soluble hormones reach targets by first:
A. Entering nucleus directly
B. Crossing membranes via diffusion
C. Binding intracellular receptors
D. Diffusing into interstitial fluid

back 142

D. Diffusing into interstitial fluid

front 143

Which hormones circulate bound to plasma proteins?
A. Insulin and glucagon
B. Steroids and thyroid hormones
C. Catecholamines and peptides
D. Renin and angiotensin II

back 143

B. Steroids and thyroid hormones

front 144

Metabolic clearance rate (mL/min) equals:
A. Disappearance rate / [hormone]
B. [Hormone] / disappearance rate
C. Secretion rate × [hormone]
D. Half-life × concentration

back 144

A. Disappearance rate / [hormone]

front 145

"Hormone clearance” includes which mechanism?
A. Ribosomal translation
B. Golgi packaging
C. Liver excretion into bile
D. Membrane depolarization

back 145

C. Liver excretion into bile

front 146

Among angiotensin II, steroids, thyroid hormones, the longest half-life is:
A. Angiotensin II
B. Steroid hormones
C. Catecholamines
D. Thyroid hormones

back 146

D. Thyroid hormones

front 147

Thyroid hormones have long half-life largely because they:
A. Bind plasma proteins extensively
B. Are excreted unchanged in urine
C. Are stored in vesicles
D. Are rapidly degraded in tissues

back 147

A. Bind plasma proteins extensively

front 148

A clinician notes a hormone clears quickly because it circulates freely and is filtered readily. Best example?
A. Thyroxine
B. Cortisol
C. Angiotensin II
D. Testosterone

back 148

C. Angiotensin II

front 149

Pancreatic insulin and glucagon are best classified as:
A. Steroid hormones
B. Thyroid hormones
C. Tyrosine derivatives
D. Peptide hormones

back 149

D. Peptide hormones

front 150

Which hormone classes have receptors in/on cell membrane?
A. Steroid hormones
B. Thyroid hormones
C. Protein, peptide, catecholamine hormones
D. Steroid and thyroid hormones

back 150

C. Protein, peptide, catecholamine hormones

front 151

Steroid hormones most typically bind receptors in the:
A. Cell cytoplasm
B. Cell nucleus
C. Cell membrane
D. Rough ER

back 151

A. Cell cytoplasm

front 152

Thyroid hormones most typically bind receptors in the:
A. Cell cytoplasm
B. Cell membrane
C. Secretory vesicles
D. Cell nucleus

back 152

D. Cell nucleus

front 153

ACh/NE bind receptors that open/close channels. Receptor type?
A. Nuclear receptors
B. Ion-channel linked receptors
C. Receptor tyrosine kinases
D. Enzyme-linked receptors

back 153

B. Ion-channel linked receptors

front 154

Hormones regulate enzymes/channels indirectly via trimeric G proteins. Receptor type?
A. Ion-channel linked receptor
B. Enzyme-linked receptor
C. G-protein hormone receptor
D. Nuclear hormone receptor

back 154

C. G-protein hormone receptor

front 155

G-protein signaling is terminated mainly by:
A. IP3 dephosphorylation
B. cAMP breakdown only
C. Receptor internalization
D. GTP autohydrolysis to GDP

back 155

D. GTP autohydrolysis to GDP

front 156

Which hormone increases intracellular cGMP?
A. Atrial natriuretic peptide
B. Epinephrine
C. Aldosterone
D. Insulin

back 156

A. Atrial natriuretic peptide

front 157

Calcium-calmodulin signaling activates:
A. Protein kinase A
B. Myosin light chain kinase
C. Adenylyl cyclase
D. Tyrosine kinase receptor

back 157

B. Myosin light chain kinase

front 158

Myosin light chain kinase activation causes:
A. Increased gene transcription
B. Reduced cAMP formation
C. Thyroid hormone release
D. Smooth muscle contraction

back 158

D. Smooth muscle contraction

front 159

Which hormone class increases protein synthesis?
A. Catecholamines
B. Peptide hormones
C. Steroid hormones
D. Cytokines

back 159

C. Steroid hormones

front 160

Thyroid hormones act on genetic machinery by:
A. Nuclear gene transcription
B. Opening ion channels
C. Activating PLC only
D. Increasing cAMP only

back 160

A. Nuclear gene transcription

front 161

Aldosterone’s key effect is:
A. Na+ secretion, K+ loss
B. Na+ reabsorption, K+ secretion
C. Na+ reabsorption, K+ reabsorption
D. Na+ loss, K+ retention

back 161

B. Na+ reabsorption, K+ secretion

front 162

Key ELISA feature vs radioimmunoassay:
A. Competitive radioligand binding
B. Uses receptor membrane prep
C. Uses excess antibody to capture
D. Requires radioactive labeling

back 162

C. Uses excess antibody to capture

front 163

Using excess antibodies in ELISA ensures:
A. Partial hormone capture
B. Only standards captured
C. Only metabolites captured
D. All hormone captured in complexes

back 163

D. All hormone captured in complexes

front 164

The ELISA readout described is the:
A. Bound complex radioactivity
B. Enzyme product amount
C. Tissue binding fraction
D. Plasma half-life length

back 164

B. Enzyme product amount