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Phys 61

1.

___ cranial nerve fibers go to the parotid gland.
A. CN VII
B. CN IX
C. CN X
D. CN V

B. CN IX

2.

Sacral parasympathetic fibers are carried mainly in the:
A. Sympathetic chain nerves
B. Lumbar splanchnic nerves
C. Pelvic nerves
D. White rami communicantes

C. Pelvic nerves

3.

Parasympathetic postganglionic neurons are located in the:
A. Sympathetic chain ganglia
B. Dorsal root ganglia
C. Paravertebral ganglia
D. Wall of the organ

D. Wall of the organ

4.

Most ANS synapses use which transmitters?
A. Acetylcholine or norepinephrine
B. Dopamine or serotonin
C. Glutamate or glycine
D. GABA or glutamine

A. Acetylcholine or norepinephrine

5.

Fibers that secrete acetylcholine are called:
A. Adrenergic fibers
B. Cholinergic fibers
C. Dopaminergic fibers
D. Serotonergic fibers

B. Cholinergic fibers

6.

Fibers that secrete norepinephrine are called:
A. Cholinergic fibers
B. Dopaminergic fibers
C. Adrenergic fibers
D. Purinergic fibers

C. Adrenergic fibers

7.

All preganglionic autonomic neurons are:
A. Cholinergic
B. Adrenergic
C. Dopaminergic
D. Serotonergic

A. Cholinergic

8.

Most postganglionic sympathetic neurons are:
A. Cholinergic
B. GABAergic
C. Glutamatergic
D. Adrenergic

D. Adrenergic

9.

A key sympathetic exception using acetylcholine is innervation of:
A. Adrenal medulla
B. Sweat glands
C. Renal cortex
D. Salivary acini

B. Sweat glands

10.

Neurotransmitter vesicles are synthesized and stored mainly in:
A. Nucleus of cell body
B. Dendritic spines
C. Axonal varicosities
D. Myelin sheath layers

C. Axonal varicosities

11.

Reactants for acetylcholine formation are:
A. Acetyl-CoA and choline
B. Tyrosine and choline
C. Choline and dopamine
D. Acetyl-CoA and tyrosine

A. Acetyl-CoA and choline

12.

The enzyme that forms acetylcholine is:
A. Dopamine β-hydroxylase
B. Monoamine oxidase
C. Catechol-O-methyl transferase
D. Choline acetyltransferase

D. Choline acetyltransferase

13.

Norepinephrine synthesis begins with which amino acid?
A. Tyrosine
B. Tryptophan
C. Glycine
D. Glutamate

A. Tyrosine

14.

Tyrosine → DOPA occurs by:
A. Methylation
B. Hydroxylation
C. Decarboxylation
D. Deamination

B. Hydroxylation

15.

DOPA → dopamine occurs by:
A. Hydroxylation
B. Methylation
C. Decarboxylation
D. Conjugation

C. Decarboxylation

16.

In adrenergic terminals, dopamine is transported into:
A. Cell nucleus
B. Synaptic cleft
C. Mitochondria
D. Vesicles

D. Vesicles

17.

Dopamine → norepinephrine occurs by:
A. Methylation
B. Hydroxylation
C. Decarboxylation
D. Oxidation

B. Hydroxylation

18.

Norepinephrine → epinephrine occurs by:
A. Methylation
B. Hydroxylation
C. Decarboxylation
D. Deamination

A. Methylation

19.

Norepinephrine is methylated to epinephrine mainly in the:
A. Sympathetic chain ganglia
B. Dorsal root ganglia
C. Adrenal medulla
D. Organ effector wall

C. Adrenal medulla

20.

The major removal mechanism for released norepinephrine is:
A. COMT in the liver
B. MAO in mitochondria
C. Diffusion into capillaries
D. Reuptake into nerve endings

D. Reuptake into nerve endings

21.

Reuptake accounts for removal of approximately:
A. 10–20%
B. 50–80%
C. 80–95%
D. 95–99%

B. 50–80%

22.

Most remaining norepinephrine is removed by:
A. Diffusion into fluids and blood
B. Reuptake into vesicles
C. Breakdown by COMT only
D. Breakdown by MAO only

A. Diffusion into fluids and blood

23.

Small amounts of norepinephrine are destroyed mainly by:
A. Acetylcholinesterase and COMT
B. ChAT and MAO
C. MAO and COMT
D. Tyrosine hydroxylase and MAO

C. MAO and COMT

24.

Norepinephrine at a tissue site remains active for:
A. Several minutes
B. One hour
C. One day
D. A few seconds

D. A few seconds

25.

Catechol-O-methyl transferase action occurs mainly in the:
A. Brain stem
B. Liver
C. Cardiac myocytes
D. Adrenal cortex

B. Liver

26.

Acetylcholine activates mainly which receptor types?
A. Muscarinic and nicotinic
B. Alpha and beta
C. NMDA and AMPA
D. GABA-A and GABA-B

A. Muscarinic and nicotinic

27.

Muscarinic receptors are best described as:
A. Ligand-gated chloride channels
B. Voltage-gated sodium channels
C. G-protein–coupled receptors
D. Intracellular nuclear receptors

C. G-protein–coupled receptors

28.

Nicotinic receptors in autonomic ganglia are:
A. G-protein–coupled receptors
B. Tyrosine kinase receptors
C. Nuclear transcription factors
D. Ligand-gated ion channels

D. Ligand-gated ion channels

29.

Postganglionic cholinergic fibers stimulate effector cells mainly via:
A. Muscarinic receptors
B. Alpha receptors
C. Beta receptors
D. Nicotinic receptors

A. Muscarinic receptors

30.

A drug that blocks autonomic ganglionic transmission targets:
A. Muscarinic receptors
B. Nicotinic receptors
C. Alpha receptors
D. Beta receptors

B. Nicotinic receptors

31.

Two major classes of adrenergic receptors are:
A. Nicotinic and muscarinic
B. M1 and M2
C. N1 and N2
D. Alpha and beta

D. Alpha and beta

32.

Two major types of alpha receptors are:
A. Alpha3 and alpha4
B. Alpha1 and alpha2
C. Alpha2 and alpha3
D. Alpha1 and alpha5

B. Alpha1 and alpha2

33.

Beta receptors are divided into:
A. Beta1, beta2, beta3
B. Beta2, beta4, beta5
C. Beta1, beta3, beta5
D. Beta1, beta2, beta4

A. Beta1, beta2, beta3

34.

Norepinephrine excites mostly:
A. Muscarinic receptors
B. Alpha receptors
C. Nicotinic receptors
D. Beta3 receptors

B. Alpha receptors

35.

Cocaine prolongs norepinephrine signaling primarily by inhibiting:
A. MAO enzymatic breakdown
B. COMT liver metabolism
C. Vesicular methylation
D. Reuptake into nerve endings

D. Reuptake into nerve endings

36.

A patient given atropine develops tachycardia and dry mouth. The blocked receptor is:
A. Alpha1 receptor
B. Nicotinic receptor
C. Muscarinic receptor
D. Beta1 receptor

C. Muscarinic receptor

37.

Epinephrine excites alpha and beta receptors:
A. Alpha more than beta
B. Beta more than alpha
C. Equally
D. Only beta receptors

C. Equally

38.

A synthetic agent with strong β action and minimal α action is:
A. Isoproterenol
B. Phenylephrine
C. Methoxamine
D. Norepinephrine

A. Isoproterenol

39.

Autonomic control of pupil diameter is best described as:
A. Both systems constrict
B. Both systems dilate
C. Parasympathetic dilates pupil
D. Sympathetic dilates, parasympathetic constricts

D. Sympathetic dilates, parasympathetic constricts

40.

Lens accommodation during near vision depends mainly on:
A. Sympathetic radial ligaments
B. Parasympathetic ciliary contraction
C. Somatic extraocular muscles
D. Enteric neural reflexes

B. Parasympathetic ciliary contraction

41.

Primary control of small and large intestinal glands is:
A. Sympathetic stimulation
B. Parasympathetic stimulation
C. Local enteric mechanisms
D. Adrenal medullary hormones

C. Local enteric mechanisms

42.

Axillary apocrine glands secrete primarily in response to:
A. Parasympathetic activation
B. Enteric nervous system
C. Somatic motor neurons
D. Sympathetic stimulation

D. Sympathetic stimulation

43.

The intrinsic neural network of the GI tract is the:
A. Sympathetic chain
B. Intramural enteric plexus
C. Dorsal root ganglia
D. Corticospinal tract

B. Intramural enteric plexus

44.

Sympathetic stimulation of the heart increases:
A. Rate and force
B. Rate only
C. Force only
D. Stroke volume only

A. Rate and force

45.

The typical sympathetic effect on systemic blood vessels is:
A. Dilation
B. No net effect
C. Constriction
D. Cyclic vasomotion

C. Constriction

46.

Arterial pressure is determined primarily by:
A. Heart rate and preload
B. Cardiac output and resistance
C. Blood viscosity
D. Venous compliance

B. Cardiac output and resistance

47.

Compared with norepinephrine, epinephrine produces:
A. Stronger alpha vasoconstriction
B. Reduced cardiac stimulation
C. Minimal metabolic effects
D. Greater beta, cardiac, metabolic effects

D. Greater beta, cardiac, metabolic effects

48.

Dual sympathetic action via nerves and adrenal hormones provides a:
A. Safety factor
B. Feedback inhibition
C. Parasympathetic dominance
D. Sensory amplification

A. Safety factor

49.

A key difference between autonomic and skeletal systems is that ANS:
A. Requires tetanic firing
B. Needs cortical initiation
C. Activates at low frequency
D. Lacks synaptic delay

C. Activates at low frequency

50.

Intrinsic smooth muscle tone persists after denervation due to:
A. Spontaneous action potentials
B. Smooth muscle contractile force
C. Residual neurotransmitter stores
D. Endocrine oscillations

B. Smooth muscle contractile force

51.

Baroreceptors are best described as:
A. Chemoreceptors sensing hypoxia
B. Stretch receptors in ventricles
C. Pain receptors in arteries
D. Pressure sensors in carotid, aorta

D. Pressure sensors in carotid, aorta

52.

Near-simultaneous discharge of most sympathetic pathways is called:
A. Mass discharge
B. Reciprocal inhibition
C. Local reflex activation
D. Segmental facilitation

A. Mass discharge

53.

Brain stem autonomic centers primarily regulate:
A. Temperature and thirst
B. Endocrine secretion
C. Arterial pressure, heart, respiration
D. Voluntary motor control

C. Arterial pressure, heart, respiration

54.

Intravenous acetylcholine fails to mimic parasympathetic activation because it is degraded by:
A. MAO in liver
B. Plasma cholinesterase
C. COMT in plasma
D. Tyrosine hydroxylase

B. Plasma cholinesterase

55.

A patient given pilocarpine develops miosis and salivation. This drug is best classified as:
A. Adrenergic agonist
B. Ganglionic blocker
C. Alpha antagonist
D. Parasympathomimetic drug

D. Parasympathomimetic drug

56.

Post-op ileus is treated by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase. Which drug?
A. Neostigmine
B. Scopolamine
C. Propranolol
D. Phenylephrine

A. Neostigmine

57.

Atropine causes tachycardia and mydriasis mainly by blocking:
A. Alpha receptors
B. Beta receptors
C. Cholinergic effector receptors
D. Ganglionic nicotinic receptors

C. Cholinergic effector receptors

58.

Which drug directly stimulates autonomic postganglionic neurons?
A. Reserpine
B. Nicotine
C. Phenoxybenzamine
D. Guanethidine

B. Nicotine

59.

A drug that blocks preganglionic → postganglionic transmission is:
A. Hexamethonium
B. Methacholine
C. Atropine
D. Albuterol

A. Hexamethonium

60.

Celiac, superior mesenteric, and aorticorenal ganglia are:
A. Paravertebral ganglia
B. Intramural ganglia
C. Dorsal root ganglia
D. Prevertebral ganglia

D. Prevertebral ganglia

61.

Preganglionic sympathetic outflow arises from spinal segments:
A. C1–C4
B. L3–S1
C. T1–L2
D. S2–S4

C. T1–L2

62.

Sympathetic preganglionic neuron cell bodies are located in the:
A. Anterior horn
B. Dorsal root ganglion
C. Posterior horn
D. Intermediolateral horn

D. Intermediolateral horn

63.

Preganglionic fibers reach prevertebral ganglia primarily via:
A. Splanchnic nerves
B. Gray rami
C. Pelvic nerves
D. Dorsal roots

A. Splanchnic nerves

64.

Sympathetic fibers in skeletal nerves to sweat glands are:
A. Aα fibers
B. Aδ fibers
C. Type C fibers
D. Ia afferents

C. Type C fibers

65.

Sympathetic fibers from T7–T11 primarily terminate in the:
A. Head
B. Abdomen
C. Neck
D. Thorax

B. Abdomen

66.

Chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla receive:
A. Preganglionic sympathetic fibers
B. Postganglionic sympathetic fibers
C. Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers
D. Somatic motor fibers

A. Preganglionic sympathetic fibers

67.

Parasympathetic outflow exits the CNS via:
A. T1–L2 only
B. C1–C8 only
C. L3–S1 only
D. CN III VII IX X, S2–S4

D. CN III VII IX X, S2–S4

68.

Vagus supplies most parasympathetic fibers, except to the:
A. Stomach
B. Small intestine
C. Distal colon and rectum
D. Liver and gallbladder

C. Distal colon and rectum

69.

Parasympathetic innervation to the parotid gland travels via:
A. CN VII → submandibular ganglion
B. CN IX → otic ganglion
C. CN III → ciliary ganglion
D. CN X → intramural ganglia

B. CN IX → otic ganglion

70.

Pelvic splanchnic (S2–S4) fibers primarily support:
A. Foregut secretion
B. Pupil dilation
C. Sweat gland activation
D. Erection and bladder emptying

D. Erection and bladder emptying

71.

Compared with sympathetic pathways, parasympathetic pathways have:
A. Short pre, short post
B. Long pre, short post
C. Short pre, long post
D. Long pre, long post

B. Long pre, short post

72.

ACh is hydrolyzed into acetate and choline. ACh resynthesis from acetyl-CoA uses:
A. Choline acetyltransferase
B. Monoamine oxidase
C. Catechol-O-methyltransferase
D. Dopamine β-hydroxylase

A. Choline acetyltransferase

73.

Catecholamine destruction in peripheral tissues occurs mainly via:
A. Catechol-O-methyl transferase
B. Monoamine oxidase
C. Dopamine β-hydroxylase
D. Phenylalanine hydroxylase

A. Catechol-O-methyl transferase

74.

Which catecholamine excites alpha and beta receptors equally?
A. Dopamine
B. Methoxamine
C. Epinephrine
D. Phenylephrine

C. Epinephrine

75.

Which catecholamine excites alpha more than beta?
A. Norepinephrine
B. Epinephrine
C. Dopamine
D. Isoproterenol

A. Norepinephrine

76.

Sudden fear causes mydriasis primarily via:
A. Iris circular muscle contraction
B. Ciliary muscle contraction
C. Iris radial muscle contraction
D. Pupillary sphincter relaxation

C. Iris radial muscle contraction

77.

A decongestant causes acute urinary retention by:
A. Detrusor muscle contraction
B. Bladder sphincter contraction
C. Detrusor muscle relaxation
D. Increased bladder wall secretion

C. Detrusor muscle relaxation

78.

Goosebumps during cold exposure are mediated by:
A. Bronchial smooth relaxation
B. GI sphincter relaxation
C. Presynaptic transmitter inhibition
D. Pilomotor muscle contraction

D. Pilomotor muscle contraction

79.

A drug that decreases NE release acts primarily at:
A. Presynaptic alpha2 receptors
B. Postsynaptic beta2 receptors
C. Postsynaptic alpha1 receptors
D. Autonomic nicotinic receptors

A. Presynaptic alpha2 receptors

80.

Catecholamine-driven tachycardia and lipolysis are mediated by:
A. Beta2 receptors
B. Beta1 receptors
C. Alpha1 receptors
D. Alpha2 receptors

B. Beta1 receptors

81.

Epinephrine causes bronchodilation and glycogenolysis mainly via:
A. Alpha1 receptors
B. Beta1 receptors
C. Beta2 receptors
D. Alpha2 receptors

C. Beta2 receptors

82.

A β2 agonist can delay preterm labor by:
A. Increasing uterine contraction
B. Tightening uterine sphincters
C. Increasing oxytocin release
D. Uterine smooth muscle relaxation

A. Increasing uterine contraction

83.

Brown fat heat production is mediated primarily by:
A. Beta3 receptors
B. Alpha1 receptors
C. Beta1 receptors
D. Alpha2 receptors

A. Beta3 receptors

84.

Near-vision accommodation occurs when:
A. Sympathetic dilator contracts
B. Sympathetic chain discharges
C. Parasympathetic ciliary contracts
D. Alpha1 receptors are blocked

C. Parasympathetic ciliary contracts

85.

Acute stress reduces bowel sounds by:
A. Increases peristalsis, relaxes sphincters
B. Inhibits peristalsis, tightens sphincters
C. Increases secretion, relaxes sphincters
D. Inhibits secretion, relaxes sphincters

B. Inhibits peristalsis, tightens sphincters

86.

After sympathectomy, targets still respond because of:
A. Circulating adrenal catecholamines
B. Cortical motor overflow
C. Spinal reflex activation
D. Local acetylcholine production

A. Circulating adrenal catecholamines

87.

Intravenous epinephrine raises arterial pressure mainly by:
A. Decreasing cardiac output
B. Increasing peripheral resistance
C. Decreasing heart rate
D. Increased cardiac output

D. Increased cardiac output

88.

Which has a stronger metabolic effect?
A. Norepinephrine
B. Epinephrine
C. Dopamine
D. Methoxamine

B. Epinephrine

89.

After stellate ganglionectomy, a small NE dose causes exaggerated effects due to:
A. Decreased receptor density
B. Reduced second messenger activity
C. Upregulated receptors on effector cells
D. Increased neurotransmitter destruction

C. Upregulated receptors on effector cells

90.

A patient given phenylephrine develops constipation. This reflects α1 action causing:
A. GI relaxation, sphincter contraction
B. GI contraction, sphincter relaxation
C. Increased peristalsis strongly
D. Increased watery secretion

A. GI relaxation, sphincter contraction

91.

Cold, pale fingers after adrenergic surge most directly reflect α1-mediated:
A. Bronchodilation
B. Lipolysis
C. Vasoconstriction
D. Neurotransmitter inhibition

C. Vasoconstriction

92.

Clonidine reduces sympathetic outflow mainly by activating:
A. Beta2 receptors
B. Alpha2 receptors
C. Beta1 receptors
D. Alpha1 receptors

B. Alpha2 receptors

93.

A catecholamine increasing HR and contractility most strongly activates:
A. Alpha2 receptors
B. Beta3 receptors
C. Beta2 receptors
D. Beta1 receptors

D. Beta1 receptors

94.

Low-dose epinephrine can lower diastolic pressure mainly via:
A. Beta2 vasodilation
B. Alpha1 vasoconstriction
C. Alpha2 transmitter inhibition
D. Beta1 increased stroke volume

A. Beta2 vasodilation

95.

A β2 agonist may worsen urinary retention by causing:
A. Bladder sphincter contraction
B. Increased detrusor contraction
C. Bladder smooth muscle relaxation
D. Increased bladder secretions

C. Bladder smooth muscle relaxation

96.

Post-meal heat production attributed to β2 activation is best termed:
A. Lipolysis
B. Calorigenesis
C. Vasoconstriction
D. Neurotransmitter inhibition

B. Calorigenesis

97.

Thermogenesis via adrenergic stimulation is most associated with:
A. Beta3 receptors
B. Beta1 receptors
C. Alpha1 receptors
D. Alpha2 receptors

A. Beta3 receptors

98.

After eating, increased peristalsis + relaxed sphincters best reflects:
A. Sympathetic stimulation
B. Alpha1 receptor activation
C. Adrenal medullary surge
D. Parasympathetic stimulation

D. Parasympathetic stimulation

99.

The dominant adrenergic receptor subtype in myocardium is:
A. Alpha1
B. Alpha2
C. Beta2
D. Beta1

D. Beta1

100.

Norepinephrine raises arterial pressure primarily by increasing:
A. Cardiac output strongly
B. Venous capacitance
C. Peripheral resistance
D. Pulmonary compliance

C. Peripheral resistance

101.

Denervation supersensitivity occurs mainly due to:
A. Upregulation of effector receptors
B. Increased acetylcholinesterase activity
C. Reduced catecholamine secretion
D. Increased neurotransmitter diffusion

A. Upregulation of effector receptors

102.

Stretching carotid/aortic baroreceptors causes what immediate autonomic change?
A. Increased sympathetic to heart
B. Decreased sympathetic to heart/vessels
C. Decreased vagal to heart
D. Increased vagal to vessels

B. Decreased sympathetic to heart/vessels

103.

“Mass discharge” refers to:
A. Local reflex in one organ
B. Isolated adrenal release only
C. Only spinal sympathetic outflow
D. Near-total SNS discharge simultaneously

D. Near-total SNS discharge simultaneously

104.

Mass discharge is commonly triggered when the hypothalamus is activated by:
A. Fright or severe pain
B. Mild hunger and fatigue
C. Slow deep breathing
D. Bright light exposure

A. Fright or severe pain

105.

The widespread body reaction from mass discharge is best termed:
A. Rest-and-digest response
B. Vagal rebound reflex
C. Alarm/stress response
D. Postganglionic fatigue

C. Alarm/stress response

106.

Methoxamine, phenylephrine, isoproterenol, and albuterol are:
A. Sympathomimetic drugs
B. Parasympatholytic drugs
C. Ganglion-blocking drugs
D. Cholinesterase inhibitors

A. Sympathomimetic drugs

107.

Phenylephrine primarily acts on:
A. Muscarinic receptors
B. Nicotinic receptors
C. Beta receptors
D. Alpha receptors

D. Alpha receptors

108.

Isoproterenol primarily stimulates:
A. Alpha1 receptors mainly
B. Beta1 and beta2 receptors
C. Muscarinic receptors only
D. Alpha2 receptors mainly

B. Beta1 and beta2 receptors

109.

Albuterol primarily stimulates:
A. Alpha1 receptors only
B. Beta1 receptors only
C. Beta2 receptors only
D. Alpha2 receptors only

C. Beta2 receptors only

110.

Ephedrine, tyramine, and amphetamine are:
A. Direct alpha agonists
B. Direct beta agonists
C. Cholinesterase inhibitors
D. Indirect sympathomimetic drugs

D. Indirect sympathomimetic drugs

111.

Guanethidine lowers sympathetic effects by blocking release of:
A. Acetylcholine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Dopamine
D. Epinephrine

B. Norepinephrine

112.

Phenoxybenzamine and phentolamine are best described as:
A. Beta receptor agonists
B. Muscarinic receptor agonists
C. Alpha receptor blockers
D. Nicotinic receptor blockers

C. Alpha receptor blockers

113.

Yohimbine selectively blocks:
A. Alpha2 receptors
B. Beta1 receptors
C. Beta2 receptors
D. Alpha1 receptors

A. Alpha2 receptors

114.

Atenolol, nebivolol, and metoprolol mainly block:
A. Alpha1 receptors
B. Alpha2 receptors
C. Beta2 receptors
D. Beta1 receptors

D. Beta1 receptors

115.

Propranolol blocks:
A. Alpha1 and alpha2 receptors
B. Beta2 receptors only
C. Beta1 and beta2 receptors
D. Muscarinic receptors only

C. Beta1 and beta2 receptors

116.

A drug blocking both SNS and PNS ganglionic transmission is:
A. Atropine
B. Hexamethonium
C. Neostigmine
D. Albuterol

B. Hexamethonium

117.

Pilocarpine and methacholine are best classified as:
A. Parasympathomimetic drugs
B. Indirect sympathomimetics
C. Ganglion-blocking drugs
D. Alpha receptor blockers

A. Parasympathomimetic drugs

118.

Neostigmine, pyridostigmine, and ambenonium act mainly via:
A. Alpha receptor blockade
B. Beta receptor blockade
C. Acetylcholinesterase inhibition
D. Norepinephrine release blockade

C. Acetylcholinesterase inhibition

119.

Atropine, homatropine, and scopolamine are:
A. Sympathomimetic agents
B. Parasympathomimetic agents
C. Ganglion stimulants
D. Antimuscarinic drugs

D. Antimuscarinic drugs

120.

Nicotine produces widespread autonomic effects by stimulating:
A. Ganglionic nicotinic receptors
B. Effector muscarinic receptors
C. Effector alpha1 receptors
D. Adrenal COMT enzymes

A. Ganglionic nicotinic receptors

121.

Tetraethyl ammonium, hexamethonium, and pentolinium are:
A. Beta receptor blockers
B. Ganglion-blocking drugs
C. Alpha receptor agonists
D. Muscarinic receptor agonists

B. Ganglion-blocking drugs

122.

White rami communicantes are present at:
A. All spinal levels
B. T1–L2 only
C. S2–S4 only
D. C1–C8 only

B. T1–L2 only

123.

Gray rami communicantes are present at:
A. T1–L2 only
B. T7–T11 only
C. C1–C8 only
D. All spinal levels

D. All spinal levels

124.

Postganglionic sympathetics re-enter spinal nerves via:
A. Gray rami communicantes
B. White rami communicantes
C. Pelvic nerves
D. Dorsal roots

A. Gray rami communicantes

125.

Parasympathetic fibers to parotid synapse in:
A. Ciliary ganglion
B. Otic ganglion
C. Submandibular ganglion
D. Pterygopalatine ganglion

B. Otic ganglion

126.

Parasympathetic fibers to pupillary sphincter use:
A. CN III → ciliary ganglion
B. CN VII → otic ganglion
C. CN IX → ciliary ganglion
D. CN X → intramural ganglia

A. CN III → ciliary ganglion

127.

A preganglionic fiber entering the chain may:
A. Ascend/descend then synapse
B. Enter dorsal root ganglion
C. Synapse in dorsal horn
D. Join vagus nerve directly

A. Ascend/descend then synapse

128.

Preganglionics reaching celiac ganglion travel via:
A. Gray rami communicantes
B. White rami communicantes
C. Pelvic nerves
D. Splanchnic nerves

D. Splanchnic nerves

129.

Sympathetic outflow from T1 usually targets:
A. Abdomen
B. Head
C. Legs
D. Pelvis

B. Head

130.

Sympathetic outflow from T3–T6 usually targets:
A. Head
B. Neck
C. Thorax
D. Legs

B. Neck

131.

Sympathetic outflow from T12–L2 usually targets:
A. Thorax
B. Abdomen
C. Neck
D. Legs

D. Legs

132.

Sympathetic outflow from T7–T11 usually targets:
A. Abdomen
B. Head
C. Thorax
D. Legs

A. Abdomen

133.

Ganglionic cholinergic receptors are mainly:
A. Alpha1 receptors
B. Beta1 receptors
C. Nicotinic ion channels
D. Muscarinic GPCRs

C. Nicotinic ion channels

134.

Most parasympathetic effector receptors are:
A. Nicotinic ion channels
B. Muscarinic GPCRs
C. Alpha1 receptors
D. Beta2 receptors

B. Muscarinic GPCRs

135.

White rami communicantes carry mainly:
A. Postganglionic sympathetic fibers
B. Postganglionic parasympathetic fibers
C. Preganglionic sympathetic fibers
D. Somatic motor fibers

C. Preganglionic sympathetic fibers

136.

ACh is broken down into:
A. DOPA and acetate
B. Choline and acetate ion
C. Tyrosine and choline
D. Dopamine and acetate

B. Choline and acetate ion

137.

Basal sympathetic tone most maintains:
A. Lens convexity
B. Vascular resistance
C. Watery salivary flow
D. Pupillary constriction

B. Vascular resistance

138.

A selective β2 agonist used clinically is:
A. Methoxamine
B. Albuterol
C. Atenolol
D. Yohimbine

B. Albuterol