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Biochem 28

1.

A healthy adult is 34 hours into fasting. Liver glycogen is depleted. What now maintains blood glucose?
A. Muscle glycogen breakdown
B. Hepatic glycogenolysis
C. Hepatic gluconeogenesis
D. Intestinal glucose absorption

C. Hepatic gluconeogenesis

2.

Gluconeogenesis is glucose synthesis primarily from:
A. Noncarbohydrate precursors
B. Stored liver glycogen
C. Dietary polysaccharides
D. Ketone bodies only

A. Noncarbohydrate precursors

3.

In humans, gluconeogenesis occurs primarily in:
A. Skeletal muscle cytosol
B. Brain astrocytes mainly
C. Adipose tissue mainly
D. Liver hepatocytes mainly

D. Liver hepatocytes mainly

4.

Which is a major gluconeogenic precursor?
A. Palmitate
B. Lactate
C. Cholesterol
D. Acetyl-CoA

B. Lactate

5.

The amino acid highlighted as a key gluconeogenic precursor is:
A. Alanine
B. Leucine
C. Lysine
D. Isoleucine

A. Alanine

6.

Relative to glycolysis, gluconeogenesis requires:
A. No unique reactions
B. Only one bypass step
C. Complete enzyme replacement
D. Three bypass reactions

D. Three bypass reactions

7.

After stopping food intake, liver glycogen breakdown begins to support blood glucose after about:
A. 15 minutes
B. 2–3 hours
C. 12–18 hours
D. 3–5 days

B. 2–3 hours

8.

During an overnight fast, blood glucose is maintained mainly by:
A. Glycolysis plus lipogenesis
B. Ketolysis plus proteolysis
C. Glycogenolysis plus gluconeogenesis
D. Glycogenesis plus lipolysis

C. Glycogenolysis plus gluconeogenesis

9.

As glycogen stores fall, adipose triacylglycerol breakdown provides:
A. Fatty acids and glycerol
B. Glucose and lactate
C. Ketones and glucose
D. Pyruvate and alanine

A. Fatty acids and glycerol

10.

During fasting, fatty acids primarily help by:
A. Converting directly to glucose
B. Providing alternative fuel
C. Becoming DHAP in liver
D. Becoming lactate for liver

B. Providing alternative fuel

11.

After ~30 hours of fasting, the only source of blood glucose is:
A. Muscle glycogenolysis
B. Dietary absorption
C. Hepatic glycogenolysis
D. Hepatic gluconeogenesis

D. Hepatic gluconeogenesis

12.

Under extreme starvation, an additional site of gluconeogenesis is the:
A. Pancreatic islets
B. Renal medulla
C. Renal cortex
D. Splenic red pulp

C. Renal cortex

13.

In extreme starvation, glucose produced by the kidney is mainly used by the:
A. Cerebral cortex neurons
B. Renal medulla cells
C. Hepatic stellate cells
D. Skeletal myocytes

B. Renal medulla cells

14.

Most gluconeogenic steps mirror glycolysis, but overall:
A. Carbon flow is unchanged
B. Carbon flow is cyclic
C. Carbon flow is forward
D. Carbon flow is reversed

D. Carbon flow is reversed

15.

Glycerol carbons are gluconeogenic because they form:
A. Dihydroxyacetone phosphate
B. Acetyl-CoA carbons
C. Citrate cycle intermediate
D. Oxaloacetate intermediate

A. Dihydroxyacetone phosphate

16.

A hepatocyte uses glycolytic intermediates to generate glycerol 3-phosphate. Its key role is:
A. Acetyl-CoA backbone
B. Lactate backbone
C. Triacylglycerol backbone
D. Ketone body backbone

C. Triacylglycerol backbone

17.

Liver triacylglycerols are secreted into blood primarily in:
A. HDL
B. LDL
C. Chylomicrons
D. VLDL

D. VLDL

18.

Measuring ketones in blood and urine can indicate:
A. Starvation severity or DKA
B. Hyperthyroidism severity
C. Chronic liver failure only
D. SIADH severity

A. Starvation severity or DKA

19.

A comatose patient has “fruity” breath. In DKA, the odor is due to:
A. Lactate
B. Acetone
C. Ammonia
D. Ethanol

B. Acetone

20.

The “acetone” breath odor is linked to breakdown of which ketone body?
A. β-hydroxybutyrate
B. Propionyl-CoA
C. Acetoacetate
D. Oxaloacetate

C. Acetoacetate

21.

Deep, relatively rapid respirations in DKA are termed:
A. Kussmaul respirations
B. Cheyne–Stokes breathing
C. Biot respirations
D. Apneustic breathing

A. Kussmaul respirations

22.

Kussmaul respirations occur primarily because:
A. Hypoglycemia stimulates pons
B. Hypoxemia stimulates carotids
C. Fever stimulates medulla
D. Acidosis stimulates respiratory center

D. Acidosis stimulates respiratory center

23.

The key gas exhaled more during Kussmaul compensation is:
A. HCO3−
B. CO2
C. Ketones
D. NH4+

B. CO2

24.

Which paired finding most supports DKA coma over hypoglycemic coma?
A. Sweating, tremor
B. Confusion, hunger
C. Acetone breath, Kussmaul
D. Pallor, diaphoresis

C. Acetone breath, Kussmaul

25.

Severe hyperglycemia in DKA causes polyuria mainly via:
A. Osmotic diuresis
B. SIADH effect
C. Nephrotic syndrome
D. Primary polydipsia

A. Osmotic diuresis

26.

Volume depletion from DKA is commonly worsened by:
A. Polyphagia
B. Night sweats
C. Hemoptysis
D. Vomiting

D. Vomiting

27.

A patient with DKA is volume depleted. Which hemodynamic profile fits best?
A. Hypertension, bradycardia, edema
B. Hypertension, bounding pulses, edema
C. Dehydration, hypotension, tachycardia
D. Bradycardia, hypothermia, pallor

C. Dehydration, hypotension, tachycardia

28.

Why can ethanol carbons not support gluconeogenesis?
A. Ethanol forms glucose directly
B. Produces only acetyl-CoA
C. Produces only oxaloacetate
D. Produces only DHAP

B. Produces only acetyl-CoA

29.

In liver, lactate and alanine contribute to gluconeogenesis by forming:
A. Pyruvate
B. Citrate
C. Palmitate
D. Cholesterol

A. Pyruvate

30.

Which triacylglycerol component contributes carbon to gluconeogenesis?
A. Fatty acids
B. Sterol esters
C. Glycerol
D. Ketone bodies

C. Glycerol

31.

A patient on a plant-heavy diet oxidizes an odd-chain fatty acid. The three ω-end carbons produce:
A. Acetyl-CoA
B. Succinyl-CoA
C. Propionyl-CoA
D. Pyruvate

C. Propionyl-CoA

32.

Odd-chain fatty acids are obtained mainly from:
A. Vegetables
B. Dairy fat
C. Red meat
D. Fish oils

A. Vegetables

33.

Propionyl-CoA is converted first to:
A. Succinyl-CoA
B. Acetoacetyl-CoA
C. Malonyl-CoA
D. Methylmalonyl-CoA

D. Methylmalonyl-CoA

34.

Methylmalonyl-CoA is rearranged to:
A. Oxaloacetate
B. Succinyl-CoA
C. Malate
D. Citrate

B. Succinyl-CoA

35.

In odd-chain fatty acid oxidation, net glucose can be made only from:
A. ω-end three carbons
B. Even-chain carbons
C. Acetyl-CoA carbons
D. Middle-chain carbons

A. ω-end three carbons

36.

Why can acetyl-CoA not generate pyruvate for gluconeogenesis?
A. Pyruvate kinase is irreversible
B. PEPCK is irreversible
C. PDH reaction is irreversible
D. LDH blocks pyruvate formation

C. PDH reaction is irreversible

37.

Which TCA reactions release the two CO2 that prevent net glucose from acetyl-CoA?
A. Citrate synthase, fumarase
B. Isocitrate DH, α-KGDH
C. Malate DH, aconitase
D. Succinate DH, thiolase

B. Isocitrate DH, α-KGDH

38.

There is no net glucose synthesis from acetyl-CoA because:
A. Acetyl-CoA cannot enter TCA
B. OAA is fully consumed
C. NADH is always limiting
D. Two CO2 lost per turn

D. Two CO2 lost per turn

39.

A 19-carbon fatty acid is oxidized. How many carbons form propionyl-CoA?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

C. Three

40.

In a 19-carbon fatty acid, the remaining 16 carbons primarily form:
A. Acetyl-CoA
B. Pyruvate
C. Lactate
D. Glucose

A. Acetyl-CoA

41.

In glycolysis, phosphoenolpyruvate is converted to pyruvate by:
A. PEP carboxykinase
B. Pyruvate kinase
C. Pyruvate carboxylase
D. Lactate dehydrogenase

B. Pyruvate kinase

42.

Pyruvate carboxylase converts pyruvate to:
A. Citrate
B. Lactate
C. Acetyl-CoA
D. Oxaloacetate

D. Oxaloacetate

43.

The enzyme that releases CO2 from OAA while generating PEP is:
A. PEP carboxykinase
B. Pyruvate kinase
C. Hexokinase
D. Citrate synthase

A. PEP carboxykinase

44.

Oxaloacetate does not readily cross the:
A. Nuclear membrane
B. Lysosomal membrane
C. Mitochondrial membrane
D. Plasma membrane

C. Mitochondrial membrane

45.

Because OAA cannot cross easily, it is often converted to:
A. Citrate or succinate
B. Glucose or glycogen
C. Acetyl-CoA or ketones
D. Malate or aspartate

D. Malate or aspartate

46.

Glycerol enters gluconeogenesis at the level of:
A. Glucose 6-phosphate
B. DHAP
C. Citrate
D. Acetyl-CoA

B. DHAP

47.

During rapid hepatic ethanol oxidation, the redox state shifts so:
A. NAD+/NADH increases
B. NADPH/NADP+ increases
C. NADH/NAD+ increases
D. FADH2/FAD increases

C. NADH/NAD+ increases

48.

Elevated NADH inhibits glycerol use for gluconeogenesis because conversion to DHAP requires:
A. NAD+
B. ATP
C. Biotin
D. FAD

A. NAD+

49.

High NADH drives lactate dehydrogenase toward producing:
A. Pyruvate
B. Oxaloacetate
C. Acetyl-CoA
D. Lactate

D. Lactate

50.

After heavy alcohol intake, pyruvate generated from alanine is preferentially converted to:
A. Acetyl-CoA
B. Lactate
C. Citrate
D. Glucose

B. Lactate

51.

A fasting patient binges alcohol and becomes hypoglycemic. Which precursors are least usable for gluconeogenesis?
A. Lactate, alanine, glycerol
B. Fatty acids, ketones, glycerol
C. Lactate, acetyl-CoA, ketones
D. Alanine, cholesterol, acetate

A. Lactate, alanine, glycerol

52.

With high NADH, OAA is preferentially converted to:
A. PEP
B. Citrate
C. Malate
D. Succinyl-CoA

C. Malate

53.

With high NADH, DHAP is preferentially converted to:
A. Pyruvate
B. Glycerol 3-phosphate
C. Lactate
D. Oxaloacetate

B. Glycerol 3-phosphate

54.

A malnourished patient drinks heavily and then develops confusion and diaphoresis. Most likely metabolic outcome:
A. Hypernatremia
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Hypoglycemia

D. Hypoglycemia

55.

Fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase produces:
A. Fructose 1-phosphate
B. Fructose 6-phosphate
C. Fructose 2,6-bisphosphate
D. Glucose 1-phosphate

B. Fructose 6-phosphate

56.

Glucose 6-phosphatase directly generates:
A. Glycogen
B. Glucose 6-phosphate
C. Lactate
D. Free glucose

D. Free glucose

57.

Glucose 6-phosphatase is located in the:
A. Endoplasmic reticulum membrane
B. Mitochondrial matrix
C. Cytosolic ribosome
D. Nuclear envelope

A. Endoplasmic reticulum membrane

58.

Which condition does NOT stimulate gluconeogenesis?
A. Prolonged exercise
B. High-protein diet
C. High-carbohydrate meal
D. Physiologic stress

C. High-carbohydrate meal

59.

Which conversion is a regulated gluconeogenic “bypass”?
A. Lactate to pyruvate
B. PEP to pyruvate
C. Pyruvate to PEP
D. Glucose to G6P

C. Pyruvate to PEP

60.

Which conversion is a regulated gluconeogenic “bypass”?
A. F1,6BP to F6P
B. F6P to F1,6BP
C. DHAP to G3P
D. G1P to glycogen

A. F1,6BP to F6P

61.

Which conversion is a regulated gluconeogenic “bypass”?
A. Glucose to G6P
B. G6P to glycogen
C. F6P to F1,6BP
D. G6P to glucose

D. G6P to glucose

62.

Hepatocytes should funnel PEP toward glucose during fasting. Which enzyme-state set best fits?
A. PDH↑ PC↓ PEPCK↓ PK↑
B. PDH↓ PC↑ PEPCK↑ PK↓
C. PDH↑ PC↑ PEPCK↓ PK↓
D. PDH↓ PC↓ PEPCK↑ PK↑

B. PDH↓ PC↑ PEPCK↑ PK↓

63.

During conditions favoring gluconeogenesis, pyruvate dehydrogenase is typically:
A. Inactive
B. Active
C. Induced
D. Cleaved

A. Inactive

64.

A fasting liver increases gluconeogenic capacity by inducing which enzyme quantity?
A. Pyruvate kinase
B. Phosphofructokinase-1
C. Hexokinase
D. PEP carboxykinase

D. PEP carboxykinase

65.

A patient receives high-dose prednisone for vasculitis. Which lab abnormality is most expected?
A. Low blood glucose
B. High blood glucose
C. Low serum ketones
D. High serum lactate

B. High blood glucose

66.

A fasting liver activates fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase. Which pair inhibits it allosterically?
A. Citrate and ATP
B. Glucose and insulin
C. F2,6BP and AMP
D. Pyruvate and NADH

C. F2,6BP and AMP

67.

During fasting, hepatic ATP/NADH used for gluconeogenesis comes mainly from:
A. β-oxidation
B. Glycolysis
C. Glycogenesis
D. PPP flux

A. β-oxidation

68.

An infant with a fatty-acid oxidation defect develops fasting hypoglycemia. Best mechanistic link?
A. Low hepatic glycogen
B. Low renal glucose
C. High insulin levels
D. Low hepatic energy

D. Low hepatic energy

69.

Thirty minutes after a high-carbohydrate meal, glucose rises most typically to:
A. 65–75 mg/dL
B. 80–100 mg/dL
C. 120–140 mg/dL
D. 160–180 mg/dL

C. 120–140 mg/dL

70.

After a typical meal, blood glucose returns to fasting range by about:
A. 30 minutes
B. 2 hours
C. 6 hours
D. 12 hours

B. 2 hours

71.

A patient with severe hyperglycemia becomes bounded without ketones. Hyperosmolar coma stems mainly from:
A. Cerebral edema
B. Cerebral hemorrhage
C. Hepatic encephalopathy
D. Brain dehydration

D. Brain dehydration

72.

About 2 hours after a meal, as glucose nears 80–100 mg/dL, the liver activates:
A. Glycogenolysis
B. Ketogenesis
C. Lipogenesis
D. Glycolysis

A. Glycogenolysis

73.

After 5–6 weeks of starvation, blood glucose is closest to:
A. 90 mg/dL
B. 65 mg/dL
C. 45 mg/dL
D. 120 mg/dL

B. 65 mg/dL

74.

Glucagon signaling in liver most directly raises intracellular:
A. IP3
B. DAG
C. cAMP
D. cGMP

C. cAMP

75.

Glucagon raises hepatic cAMP by activating:
A. Protein kinase C
B. Guanylate cyclase
C. Tyrosine kinase
D. Adenylate cyclase

D. Adenylate cyclase

76.

By ~4 hours after a meal, hepatic glucose output relies on glycogenolysis plus:
A. Gluconeogenesis
B. Glycolysis
C. Lipogenesis
D. Ketolysis

A. Gluconeogenesis

77.

Glucagon prevents PEP from becoming pyruvate mainly by inactivating:
A. PEP carboxykinase
B. Pyruvate carboxylase
C. Pyruvate kinase
D. Lactate dehydrogenase

C. Pyruvate kinase

78.

With pyruvate kinase inactivated, PEP “runs backward” to form:
A. Glucose 1-phosphate
B. Fructose 1,6-bisP
C. Acetyl-CoA
D. Lactate

B. Fructose 1,6-bisP

79.

Enzymes unique to gluconeogenesis are most active under:
A. Fasting conditions
B. Postprandial conditions
C. After carbohydrate loading
D. During insulin surges

A. Fasting conditions

80.

In fasting liver, acetyl-CoA from fatty acids directly activates:
A. Hexokinase
B. Pyruvate kinase
C. PFK-1
D. Pyruvate carboxylase

D. Pyruvate carboxylase

81.

Which set is induced during fasting gluconeogenesis?
A. PFK-1, PK, LDH
B. PEPCK, FBPase, G6Pase
C. HK, PDH, CS
D. GCK, GS, GP

B. PEPCK, FBPase, G6Pase

82.

Fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase is favored in fasting because:
A. AMP falls sharply
B. Citrate is absent
C. F2,6BP is low
D. NADH is low

C. F2,6BP is low

83.

A carbon source explicitly used for gluconeogenesis is:
A. Glycerol
B. Palmitate
C. Cholesterol
D. Acetoacetate

A. Glycerol

84.

During prolonged fasting, fatty acids are oxidized by tissues primarily to:
A. Lactate and ATP
B. Ketones and CO2
C. Glucose and ATP
D. CO2 and H2O

D. CO2 and H2O

85.

After several days without food, the brain decreases glucose use by increasing:
A. Amino acid oxidation
B. Fatty acid oxidation
C. Ketone body use
D. Glycerol uptake

C. Ketone body use

86.

After ~3–5 days fasting, brain glucose need is roughly:
A. Twice normal
B. One-third normal
C. Unchanged
D. One-tenth normal

B. One-third normal

87.

Chronic hyperglycemia narrows microvessels mainly via protein:
A. Dephosphorylation
B. Proteolysis
C. Ubiquitination
D. Cross-linking

D. Cross-linking

88.

Microvascular narrowing from chronic hyperglycemia classically targets:
A. Retina, glomeruli, nerves
B. Lung, marrow, spleen
C. Liver, skin, pancreas
D. Heart, brain, muscle

A. Retina, glomeruli, nerves

89.

Narrowed renal glomerular microvessels most directly produce diabetic:
A. Retinopathy
B. Nephropathy
C. Neuropathy
D. Cardiomyopathy

B. Nephropathy

90.

Narrowed microvessels to peripheral/autonomic nerves most directly produce diabetic:
A. Nephropathy
B. Retinopathy
C. Neuropathy
D. Dermopathy

C. Neuropathy

91.

Fasting glucose 80–100 mg/dL is approximately:
A. ~2 mM
B. ~5 mM
C. ~8 mM
D. ~12 mM

B. ~5 mM

92.

Post-meal glucose 120–140 mg/dL is approximately:
A. ~2 mM
B. ~5 mM
C. ~12 mM
D. ~8 mM

D. ~8 mM

93.

Hepatic fructose 2,6-bisP levels are regulated by:
A. Insulin and glucagon
B. Cortisol and insulin
C. Epinephrine and ADH
D. Growth hormone and T3

A. Insulin and glucagon

94.

After ~3–5 days fasting, brain glucose need is about:
A. 120 g/day
B. 80 g/day
C. 40 g/day
D. 10 g/day

C. 40 g/day