Microbiology Exam 3 Review - Chapter 6 + 21
Chapter 6
Microbial Genetics
What is a genome?
The sum total of genetic material of an organism
What are some nonchromosomal forms of genome?
1. Plasmids, which are tiny extra pieces of DNA, non-essential to the survival of the organism
2. Organelle: mitochondria and chloroplasts have their own DNA
Genomes of cells are made of DNA, but viruses can contain ____ or _____.
DNA or RNA
What is a chromosome?
A distinct cellular structure composed of a neatly packaged DNA molecule
Where can genomes be found in eukaryotes?
Plasmids, Chloroplast DNA, Mitochondrial DNA, and Chromosomes
Where can genomes be found in bacteria?
Chromosomes (no nucleus) and plasmids
Where can genomes be found in viruses?
DNA and RNA in the capsid
What are genes?
Basic informational packets in which a chromosome is subdivided containing the necessary code for a particular cell function
What is the difference between genome, chromosomes, and genes?
Genes can be used for what three functions:
What is the difference between genotype and phenotype?
Genotype is the sum of all types of genes constituting an organism's distinctive genetic makeup. Phenotype is the expression of the genotype that creates certain structures or functions.
True or False:
TRUE
Step 1: What this means
So, the statement is saying:
➡️ Every organism has
more genes in its DNA than the subset of genes that
are actually turned on (expressed) to create its traits.
Every organism carries a full set of genetic instructions (genotype), but only a portion of those genes are actively expressed to produce the observable traits (phenotype).
What is the basic unit of a DNA molecule?
A nucleotide:
What are the four nitrogenous bases and what do they pair with?
Purines: A and G (Pure as Silver)
Pyrimidines: CUT the Pyramid
True or False: The typical bacteria chromosomes contains a few nucleotides.
FALSE: several million
What are the differences between DNA and RNA?

DNA also runs in an antiparallel arrangement (one side of the helix runs in the opposite direction of the other)
This is important in DNA synthesis (replication) and protein production
RNA
Each strand provides a _______ for the replication of a new molecule guaranteeing accurate duplication
template
True or False: The precise sequence of bases constitutes a genetic program responsible for the unique qualities of each organism
True
What is the difference in replication forks and sites for prokaryotes vs. eukaryotes?
What is the similarity between both?
Eukaryotic DNA is larger and has multiple origins of replication, allowing replication to occur at several sites simultaneously. Prokaryotic DNA, which is circular, begins replication at a single origin called OriC. Despite these differences, both eukaryotic and prokaryotic DNA replication are semi-conservative, meaning each new DNA molecule contains one original strand and one newly synthesized strand.
Why do we study prokaryotic models compared to eukaryotic models?
In short, prokaryotes are simpler and more accessible models that reveal the same fundamental mechanisms used in eukaryotic DNA replication.
Enzymes involved in prokaryote replication: Helicase
Unwinds the DNA by breaking the hydrogen bonds holding the two strands together, resulting in two seperate strands.
Enzymes involved in prokaryote replication: Primase
Synthesizes and lays down an RNA primer to add nucleotides which allow the nucleotides to continue replication.
Enzymes involved in prokaryote replication: DNA Polymerase III
Adding bases to the new DNA chain and proofreading the chain for mistakes. Lays down DNA nucleotides for the new strand.
Enzymes involved in prokaryote replication: DNA Polymerase I
Removes the primer laid by primase, closes gaps, and repairs any mismatches
Enzymes involved in prokaryote replication: Ligase
Final binding of the nicks in DNA during synthesis and repair
Seals the primers and the strands together (especially in the lagging strand)
Enzymes involved in prokaryote replication: Topoisomerase 1
Make single-stranded DNA breaks to relieve supercoiling at the origin
Helicase unwinds the DNA strands.
As it does this, it
creates tension and supercoils ahead of the fork.
Topoisomerase
goes in after helicase to relieve this
tension.
It cuts and rejoins the DNA strands to
prevent twisting or tangling.
Enzymes involved in prokaryote replication: Topoisomerase 2 (DNA gyrase) and 4
Makes double-stranded DNA breaks to remove supercoiling ahead of origin and separate replicated daughter DNA molecules
What is the overall replication process?
It is known as ____________.
The template strand is an ________ parental DNA strand.
original
In DNA replication, what is the leading strand?
In DNA replication, what is the lagging strand?
In DNA replication, what are Okazaki fragments?
Picture associated with DNA replication

Explain elongation and termination of the daughter molecule in prokaryotes?

As DNA replication continues, the newly made DNA strands loop away from the original template because the replication forks move around the circular DNA molecule. In prokaryotes (like bacteria), the DNA is circular, so the two replication forks eventually meet on the opposite side of the circle—this is what it means when they “come full circle.”
Once replication is almost finished, DNA ligase connects all the Okazaki fragments on the lagging strands, making each daughter DNA strand continuous and complete. Finally, Topoisomerase IV makes a temporary double-stranded break to separate the two new circular DNA molecules that are still linked together. After cutting, it reseals the DNA so that each daughter cell gets one complete, separate DNA molecule.
Replication of eukaryotic DNA is similar to replication of _________ and ________ DNA. In what ways are they similar?
Replication of eukaryotic DNA is similar to replication of bacterial and archaeal DNA
Due to the unidirectional action of ___________, the 3′ end of linear DNA molecules, called _________, cannot be copied entirely
DNA polymerase
telomeres
Explain how the classical view of the “central dogma” of biology has been changed by recent science.
The classical view of the central dogma of biology states that information flows in one direction: DNA → RNA → protein. This means DNA is transcribed into RNA, and RNA is translated into proteins, which then carry out most cellular functions.
However, recent science has shown that this view is oversimplified. Not all RNA molecules are used to make proteins. In fact, a large portion of our genome produces noncoding RNAs that have important roles on their own. These include rRNA and tRNA (which help in translation), as well as miRNA, siRNA, and lncRNA, which help regulate gene expression, control which genes are turned on or off, and even modify other RNAs.
So today, we understand that the flow of genetic information is more complex: DNA can make RNA that doesn’t code for protein but still performs vital regulatory and structural functions. The modern view of the central dogma includes these noncoding RNAs as key players in controlling how genes are expressed and how cells function.
What is the "central dogma" of genetics?
Transcription is when DNA is used to synthesize RNA
Translation is when RNA is used for protein synthesis.
However, the "central dogma" is incomplete because while a wide variety of RNAs are used to regular gene function. Many genetic malfunctions that cause human disease are found in regulatory RNA, not in genes for proteins.
The DNA that codes for these crucial RNA molecules was once called "junk" DNA.
______________ regulate transcription and translation.
Micro RNA, interfering RNA, antisense RNA, and riboswitches
A protein's _______ structure determines its characteristic shape and function
primary structure
_____________: the study of an organism’s complete set of expressed proteins
What is the simplified view of the DNA-Protein relationship

DNA codes into mRNA, and then three nucleotides make a codon. The tRNA carries the anti-codon which has the matching amino acid to the codon.
DNA coding strand: 5′ – ATG GCA TTT – 3′
DNA template
strand: 3′ – TAC CGT AAA – 5′
mRNA: 5′ – AUG GCA UUU – 3′
What are the different participants in transcription and translation?

Which is the only type of RNA (ribonucleic acid) that can be translated?
mRNA
This is a transcript of a structural gene or genes in the DNA. Synthesized in a process similar to the leading strand during DNA replication.
Match the description to the type of RNA
Sequence of amino acids in protein. Transports the DNA master code to the ribosome
mRNA
Match the description to the type of RNA:
A cloverleaf tRNA to carry amino acids. Brings amino acids to ribosome during translation
tRNA
Match the description to the type of RNA:
Several large structural rRNA molecules. Forms the major part of a ribosome and participates in protein synthesis
rRNA
It is a long RNA molecule and proteins form complex 3D shapes to create two subunits of a ribosome.
The two subunits engage in the final translation of the genetic
Match the description to the type of RNA:
Regulation of gene expression and coiling of chromatin
Micro (miRNA), antisense, riboswitch, and small interfering (siRNA)
Regulatory RNA’s.
Match the description to the type of RNA:
An RNA that can begin DNA replication. Primes DNA
Primer
Match the description to the type of RNA: RNA enzymes, parts of splicer enzymes. Remove introns from other RNAs in eukaryotes
Ribozymes and spliceosomes (snRNA)
What are codons?
A series of triplet bases that hold the message of the transcribed mRNA
What are anticodons?
Found at the bottom of the cloverleaf. Designates the specificity of the tRNA and complements the mRNA codon
Describe the process of transcription and what is involved?

Initiation, Elongation, and Termination
RNA polymerase binds to the promoter region of a gene.
As it moves along the DNA, it unwinds a small section (about 10–20 base pairs at a time) by itself — no separate helicase enzyme is needed.
It then uses one strand (the template strand) to synthesize RNA.
The DNA re-anneals (zips back together) once RNA polymerase passes.
The genetic code is _____ for bacteria, archea, eukaryotes, and viruses.

universal
What are the start codons?
What are the stop codons?
AUG (Met); f'methionine in prokaryotes
Stop: UAA, UAG, UGA (these do not have an amino acid associated with them)
Explain how the master genetic code is redundant and what is the wobble base?
Redundancy:
Wobble:
In the genetic code, several codons can code for the same amino acid—this is called redundancy or degeneracy of the genetic code. Because of this, if a mutation changes the third base in a codon (for example, from GAA to GAG), it often still codes for the same amino acid. This is known as the wobble effect. It helps protect cells, especially prokaryotes, from harmful mutations. Since the amino acid sequence of the protein doesn’t change, the structure and function of the protein stay the same, meaning the mutation doesn’t immediately harm or kill the cell.
Interpreting the DNA code

Describe the process of translation and what is needed.
mRNA, tRNA, amino acids, and ribosomes
Three stages include initiation, elongation, and termination
Process Summary
Translation is the process of making a protein from an mRNA sequence, and it occurs in three main stages: initiation, elongation, and termination.
During initiation, the small ribosomal subunit binds to the mRNA strand. In prokaryotes, it binds near the Shine-Dalgarno sequence, while in eukaryotes, it attaches to the 5′ cap and scans for the start codon (AUG), which codes for methionine. A tRNA carrying methionine pairs with the start codon using its anticodon (UAC). Then, the large ribosomal subunit joins to form a complete ribosome with three sites: the A site (aminoacyl site, where new tRNAs enter), the P site (peptidyl site, where the growing peptide chain is held), and the E site (exit site, where tRNAs leave).
During elongation, the ribosome moves along the mRNA in the 5′ to 3′ direction, reading one codon at a time. A new tRNA carrying an amino acid enters the A site, and the peptidyl transferase enzyme forms a peptide bond between the amino acid in the P site and the one in the A site. The ribosome then shifts, moving the tRNA with the growing chain into the P site, and the empty tRNA exits through the E site. This process repeats, adding amino acids one by one to the growing polypeptide chain.
Finally, during termination, the ribosome reaches a stop codon (UAA, UAG, or UGA). Since there is no tRNA for these codons, a release factor binds to the A site, causing the ribosome to release the newly made protein. The ribosome then separates into its large and small subunits, and the mRNA and tRNA are released. The result is a completed polypeptide chain that will fold into its proper shape to become a functional protein.
What are post-translational modifications?
Explain COVID-19 mRNA vaccines and how it uses translation.

The COVID-19 vaccine uses viral mRNA that codes for a surface protein of the virus. Once injected into human areas, muscle cells use their translation machinery to create and place on their cell surface of the viral protein. This alerts the immune system, which will react to the spike proteins on surface of SARS-CoV2
Co-translational translation only occurs in _________
Prokaryotes (bacteria and archea)
True or False: AUG codes for the same form of methionine in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
False; AUG codes for a different form of methionine in eukaryotes.
Fill in the blanks: Eukaryotic mRNA’s only code for _______ protein; bacterial mRNA’s often contain information from _________ in a series,
one
several genes
Monocistronic = one → Eukaryotes → one gene per mRNA (one gene per protein)
Polycistronic = many → Prokaryotes → many genes per mRNA
In eukaryotic transcription and translation, what are introns and exons?

Most eukaryotic genes do not exist in an uninterrupted series of codons coding for a protein.
What is used to recognize the exon-intron junctions and enzymatically cut through them?
A spliceosome is used in eukaryotic translation and transcription. It loops introns into lariat-shaped pieces, excises them, and joins the exons end to end
Define the term operon and explain one advantage it provides to a bacterial cell.
________________________________
An operon is a group of genes that are controlled together and transcribed as a single mRNA molecule under the control of one promoter. These genes usually code for proteins that work in the same pathway or process.
The main advantage of an operon is that it allows a bacterial cell to coordinate the expression of related genes all at once. This means the cell can efficiently turn on or off an entire set of genes in response to environmental changes — saving energy and resources. For example, in the lac operon, bacteria only produce lactose-digesting enzymes when lactose is present, which helps the cell avoid wasting energy making unnecessary proteins.
What are inducible operons?
These operons contain genes that make proteins that help metabolize nutrients
What are repressible operons?
These operons contain genes that code for enzymes that synthesize amino acids. They are normally on, but can be turned OFF (repressed) when there is enough product synthesized by the enzyme and the nutrient is NO LONGER needed
In repressible operons, excess nutrient serves as a _______ to block the action of the operon.
co-repressor
What is the Lac Operon?

This operon is inducible, meaning it is off without lactose, but when lactose is present in the environment, it can be turned ON
The repressor protein is __________. What does this mean?
allosteric
This means that it has two binding sites: one for the operator sequence on the DNA and another for the lactose. Allosteric binding is when a molecule binds to a protein at a site other than the active site, causing a change in the protein's shape that affects its function, either by increasing or decreasing its activity.
In the lac operon, the __________ causes a conformational change which allows transcription of the structural genes.
binding of allolactose to the repressor
What is the Trp Operon?

The trp operon is a group of genes in E. coli (and other bacteria) that control the production of the amino acid tryptophan. It contains five structural genes (trpE, trpD, trpC, trpB, and trpA), which code for the enzymes needed to synthesize tryptophan. These genes are all controlled by a single promoter and an operator region — together, this setup allows the cell to regulate tryptophan production efficiently.
Here’s how it works:
In short, the trp operon is a repressible operon, meaning it’s usually on but can be turned off when the end product (tryptophan) is abundant. This allows bacteria to conserve energy by halting production of unnecessary enzymes when tryptophan is already available.
What are two methods of eukaryotic gene regulation?
What are the four antibiotics that affect transcription and translation? ("mycins")
RA SE
What is recombination?
Recombination is an event in which one bacterium DONATES DNA to another bacterium.
The end result is a strain DIFFERENT from both the donor and recipient strain.
What are plasmids?
Extrachromosomal DNA adept at moving between cells (small, circular pieces)
Non-essential to the survival of the cell (but carry useful traits)
What is a recombinant?
It is any organism that contains and expresses genes that originated in another organism.
What is horizontal gene transfer in bacteria, and what are the three examples?
Any transfer of DNA that results in organisms acquiring NEW genes that did not come DIRECTLY from the parent organisms.
What is the ONE type of DIRECT horizontal gene transfer?
Conjugation, and direct meaning the donor and recipient are IN CONTACT during the exchange
What are the two types of INDIRECT horizontal gene transfer?
Transformation and Transduction
What is conjugation?
Factors Involved:
Examples of Products of Transferred Genes
What is it?
Explain the process of conjugation with the F factor.
Conjugation is a process in which one bacterium transfers genetic material to another through direct contact. It requires a special piece of DNA called the F factor (fertility factor). The F factor is a plasmid, which means it is a small, circular piece of DNA separate from the bacterial chromosome. (F factor is from plasmid NOT bacterial chromosome)
Conjugation occurs between a donor cell (F⁺), which contains the F factor, and a recipient cell (F⁻), which does not. The F⁺ donor forms a thin bridge-like structure called a sex pilus that attaches to the F⁻ recipient. The pilus then pulls the two cells together, forming a direct connection. Once connected, the donor cell begins to copy its F factor plasmid. As replication occurs, one strand of the F factor DNA is transferred through the pilus into the recipient cell.
Both cells then synthesize the complementary strand of the DNA, so each ends up with a complete F factor plasmid. After the transfer, the recipient becomes F⁺, meaning it can now act as a donor in future conjugation events.
In summary, conjugation with the F factor allows bacteria to share genetic material, spreading traits like antibiotic resistance or new metabolic abilities — all without reproduction.
What are resistance plasmids in conjugation?
Resistance plasmids or factors
What experiment discovered transformation?

What is transformation?
Factors Involved
Examples of Products of Transferred Genes:
What is it?
What is transduction?
Factors Involved
Examples of Products of Transferred Genes
What is it?
Participating bacteria in a single transduction event must be the ______ species. The two versions are:

- same species
Generalized transduction
Specialized transduction
What are transposons or transposable elements (TEs)?
"Jumping genes" shift from one part of the genome to another
Proposed by Barbara McClintock
Widespread among cells and viruses
What are the different types of transposable elements?
Transposons are pieces of DNA that can move around inside a cell’s genome.
Insertion elements:
Retrotransposon:
Other
What are the general effects of transposable elements?
Mix up genetic language
Can be beneficial or adverse, depending on:
What are the effects of transposable elements on bacteria?
What are pathogenicity islands (PAI's)?
Pathogenicity islands (PAIs) are special sections of DNA found in some bacteria. These sections contain multiple genes that work together (coordinate) to give the bacteria a new ability/trait that makes it harmful (pathogenic).
For example:
These DNA “islands” are often surrounded by transposon-like sequences, which means they may have been moved or transferred between bacteria in the past.
In short, pathogenicity islands are clusters of genes that can turn harmless bacteria into disease-causing ones by adding new traits like toxin production or nutrient stealing.
Islands flanked by sequences that look like genes for TE enzymes
What is a mutation?
Any change to the nucleotide sequence in the genome
What is the difference between the wild type vs mutant strain?
Wild type: (original)
Mutant strain:
What are the two different causes of mutations?
What are mutagens?

Physical and chemical agents that damage DNA leading to induced mutations
Three overarching categories of mutations: Point, Lethal, and Neutral. What do they mean
Point mutations:
Lethal mutation:
Neutral mutation
What is a missense, nonsense, silent, and back mutation?
Missense mutation: (changing amino acid)
Nonsense mutation:
Silent mutation:
Back mutation:
What is a frameshift mutation?
With damage caused by mutations, what are two ways to fix the repair?
1. Photo-activation (non-ionizing)
2. Mismatch Repair
What is excision repair of mutations, and how is it different from mismatch repair?
What is the Ames Test?

The Ames test is a lab test used to see if a chemical can cause mutations. Scientists care about this because mutagens often end up being carcinogens.
The test uses bacteria (Salmonella) that have a specific mutation preventing them from making histidine, which is an amino acid they need to grow. Because they can’t make histidine, these bacteria cannot grow on a plate that doesn’t have histidine in it — unless a new mutation “fixes” the original mutation.
This “fix” is called a reversion mutation.
The goal of the Ames test is to see whether a chemical causes more of these reversion mutations than would normally happen by chance.
Here’s how it works in a simple way:
So basically: more bacterial growth after chemical exposure = the chemical is likely a mutagen.
What are some of the positive and negative effects of mutations?
Chapter 21
Infectious Diseases Manifesting in the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
What are the different functions and features of the cardiovascular system?
What are arteries?
Carry blood away from the heart
Arterioles - smaller branches
What are veins?
Carry blood toward the heart
Venules: smaller veins
What are capillaries?
Smallest blood vessel
Connect venules and arterioles
What are the components and functions of the lymphatic system?
What are the defenses of the cardiovascular system?
What are the defenses of the lymphatic system?
Lymph nodes filter lymph fluid and trap anything foreign—like pathogens, debris, or abnormal cells—so immune cells can destroy them. Inside lymph nodes, you have dense populations of lymphocytes (B cells and T cells), macrophages, and dendritic cells that identify antigens and mount immune responses. The flow of lymph itself also acts as a surveillance mechanism, constantly moving material from tissues to nodes where it can be inspected. Additionally, the lymphatic system contains the spleen, which filters blood and helps initiate immune responses, and the thymus, which produces T cells. The system also includes structural defenses like valves that help maintain one-way flow, preventing stagnation where pathogens could accumulate. So instead of microbiota, the lymphatic system is defended by an organized network of immune tissues and cells built specifically to detect and eliminate threats.
Medical conditions involving blood have the suffix _____
-emia.
What is viremia?
Viruses that cause meningitis
What is fungemia?
Fungi in the blood
What is bacteremia?
Presence of bacteria in the blood
What is septicemia?
Bacteria that are flourishing and growing (actively reproducing) in the bloodstream
This can lead to decreased blood pressure and septic shock.
True or False: The cardiovascular, lymphatic, and nervous system are closed, which means there is no normal biota. Microorganisms can be present transiently.
True
NO normal microbiota
It means that microbes may enter or appear in a system for a short period of time, but they do not stay, do not colonize, and do not become part of the normal microbiota. They’re just “passing through.”
Recent data from microbiome studies:
What is COVID-19 caused by?
What are the different variants of the SARS-CoV-2?
COVID-19 is caused by, and what are its other characteristics?

Prominent respiratory symptoms
Endocarditis is caused by, and what are its other characteristics? (Main information - there are two subtypes)
What is parenteral mode of transmission?
Parenteral transmission means a microorganism enters the body through a route other than the digestive tract, usually by punctures, injections, bites, cuts, or any break in the skin or mucosa. This includes things like needle sticks, IV drug use, contaminated medical equipment, animal bites, or traumatic injuries. The key idea is that the pathogen bypasses the normal protective barriers (skin and mucous membranes) and is delivered straight into deeper tissues or the bloodstream, which makes infection easier.
Acute endocarditis is caused by, and what are the other characteristics?

- Fever, anemia, abnormal heartbeat, symptoms of heart attack, SOB, chills
- Abdominal/side pain, JANEWAY lesions (painless, red or purple spots on the palms and soles), Osler's nodes (small, tender, raised, red or purple nodules that typically appear on the pulp of the fingers and toes)
- Acute endocarditis is a fast-moving, aggressive infection of the heart valves, usually caused by highly virulent organisms like Staphylococcus aureus. It can destroy valves within days, cause high fevers, sepsis, emboli, and is immediately life-threatening.
Subacute endocarditis is caused by, and what are the other characteristics?

- Similar to symptoms of acute endocarditis
- Develop more slowly and are less pronounced
- Enlarged spleen, clubbed fingers, and toes (Endocarditis causes an enlarged spleen (splenomegaly) because the spleen is constantly filtering infected blood and trapping immune complexes, bacteria, and debris. The ongoing immune activation makes the spleen work overtime, causing it to swell. The clubbed fingers and toes come from long-standing inflammation that leads to increased blood flow and growth of soft tissue at the fingertips)
- Subacute endocarditis, on the other hand, is slower and less aggressive, usually caused by low-virulence organisms like viridans streptococci. It tends to develop over weeks to months, often on previously damaged valves, and symptoms are milder and more gradual.
Does both gram- and gram + produce endotoxins? (Extra)
Endotoxin refers specifically to lipid A, the toxic portion of lipopolysaccharide (LPS), which is a major component of the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria. Gram-positive bacteria do not have an outer membrane at all, so they cannot produce endotoxin. Instead, Gram-positive bacteria may release other inflammatory molecules—like teichoic acids or superantigens—but these are not classified as endotoxins.
Sepsis is caused by, and what are the other characteristics?

- also called septicemia
- occurs when organisms are actively multiplying in the blood (can be caused by many different bacteria and some fungi)
- Signs/Symptoms: fever, AMS, shaking, chills, GI symptoms, increased breathing rate, respiratory alkalosis, low BP resulting in loss of fluid from vasculature
What is endotoxic shock?
Sepsis is a broad, body-wide inflammatory response to an infection—bacterial, viral, or fungal—that leads to organ dysfunction. It happens when the immune system overreacts to an infection and releases massive amounts of cytokines, causing fever, low blood pressure, clotting abnormalities, and organ damage. Endotoxic shock, on the other hand, is a subset of septic shock that occurs specifically during infections with Gram-negative bacteria that release endotoxin (lipid A from LPS). This endotoxin triggers an extreme immune reaction that causes severe vasodilation, a dangerous drop in blood pressure, DIC, and multi-organ failure. In other words, all endotoxic shock is sepsis, but not all sepsis is endotoxic shock—because sepsis can be caused by pathogens that don’t have endotoxin, like Gram-positive bacteria, fungi, or viruses.
What are the three manifestations of the plague? (PBS)
1. Pneumonic plague
2. Bubonic plague
3. Septicemic plague
For the bubonic plague, the number of bacteria required to initiate infection in bubonic (or septicemic) cases is only ______ to ____ cells.

3 to 50 cells
Plague Disease is caused by, and what are the other characteristics

All three classical forms of plague (bubonic, septicemic, and pneumonic) are caused by the same bacterium: Yersinia pestis.
What are some characteristics about Lyme Disease?
What is the early symptom of lyme disease?

What does lyme disease develop into after several weeks and months?
Lyme Disease is caused by what, and what are the unique characteristics

- Caused by a large spirochete with 3-10 irregularly spaced coils
- Evades the immune system by changing antigens (antigenic variation, where it repeatedly changes the surface proteins displayed on its outer membrane. Because antibodies are specific to a particular protein shape, these shifts prevent the immune system from recognizing and eliminating the bacteria effectively. This constant “costume change” allows the organism to persist in the body for months to years, contributing to the chronic, relapsing nature of Lyme disease symptoms.)
- Has multiple proteins for attachment to host cells (The bacterium produces a variety of outer surface proteins (Osps) that bind to different host tissues. Some help it attach to tick midguts, some help it enter the bloodstream, and others bind to human cells like fibroblasts, endothelial cells, and components of the extracellular matrix such as collagen. This wide range of adhesion proteins allows Borrelia to spread through the skin, joints, nervous system, and heart)
- Possible that immune response contributes to the pathology of the disease
Infectious mononucleosis is caused by what, and what are the unique characteristics
- Epstein-Barr virus
Causative organisms: Epstein-Barr virus
Mode of Transmission: Direct, Indirect, parenteral
Virulence: latency, ability to incorporate into host DNA
Culture/Diagnosis: differential blood count, MONOspot test for heterophile antibody, specific ELISA
Prevention: N/A
Treatment: Supportive
Distinctive Features: Lifelong persistence
Epidemiological Features: 500 cases per 100,000 per year
there’s no treatment for EBV because antiviral medications don’t work well against it, and the illness is mostly caused by your immune system reacting to the virus—not the virus actively replicating at high levels. Once EBV infects B-cells, it quickly enters a latent state, meaning it hides inside cells with almost no active replication. Antivirals can only target viruses that are actively making new copies, so they have virtually no effect on a virus that is lying dormant. Because the body’s immune system eventually controls the acute infection on its own, treatment focuses on rest, hydration, and supportive care rather than killing the virus directly.
Even though EBV establishes lifelong persistence, we don’t keep getting sick repeatedly because the virus stays in a controlled, latent phase within a small population of memory B-cells. In this state, the immune system—especially cytotoxic T-cells—constantly monitors and suppresses it. EBV only reactivates occasionally, and when it does, the immune system shuts it down before symptoms appear. That’s why you don’t keep getting “mono” again and again, and most reactivations are completely silent unless a person becomes severely immunocompromised. The immune system’s long-term surveillance keeps EBV from causing repeated illness despite its permanent presence.
Anthrax is caused by what, and what are the unique characteristics

- Bacillus anthracis (+), endospore forming rod
- Aerobic and catalase positive
- Forms a tripartite toxin (PEL)
Causative agent: Bacillus anthracis
Mode of Transmission: Vehicle (air, soil), indirect (animal hides), and vehicle (food)
Virulence Factor: tripartite toxin (triple exotoxin)
Culture/Diagnosis: Culture; direct fluorescent antibody tests
Prevention: Vaccine for high-risk population; used in conjunction with antibiotics post-exposure
Treatment: in consultation with CDC
Epidemiological Features: Internationally, 2,000–20,000 cases annually, most cutaneous; Category A Bioterrorism Agent
Bacillus anthracis, an aerobic gram + endospore forming rod bacterium forms a tripartite toxin, which includes?

(PEL)
Protective antigen
Edema Factor
Lethal Factor
Bacillus anthracis forms a tripartite toxin, meaning it uses three separate proteins—protective antigen, edema factor, and lethal factor—that work together to damage host tissues. Protective antigen binds to host cells and creates a channel that allows the other two toxins inside. Edema factor increases cyclic AMP levels, causing massive fluid leakage and swelling. Lethal factor disrupts signaling pathways in immune cells, leading to cell death and systemic toxicity. None of the components are very harmful alone, but together they create the powerful anthrax toxin that causes severe edema, immune system collapse, and tissue damage.
What are hemorrhagic fevers?
These are agents that infect the blood and lymphatics
Yellow Fever is caused by what, and what are the unique characteristics?

Causative Agent: Yellow fever virus
Mode of Transmission: Biological vector (Aedes mosquito)
Virulence Factor: Disruption of clotting factors
Culture/Diagnosis: ELISA/PCR
Prevention: Live attenutated vaccine available
Treatment: Supportive
Distinctive Features: accompanied by jaundice
Epidemiological Features: only sporadic cases in travelers; international, 200,000 cases annually, 30,000 deaths; 90% of cases in Africa
What are non-hemorrhagic fevers?
Cat-Scratch disease is caused by what, and what are the unique characteristics? (NH)

- Bartonella henselae
Bartonella henselae
Mode of Transmission: Parenteral (cat scratch or bite)
Virulence Factor: Endotoxin ( endotoxin, which is a type of lipopolysaccharide (LPS) found on the outer membrane of all Gram-negative bacteria. This endotoxin triggers a strong inflammatory response when the bacteria enter the skin through a scratch or bite. The inflammation causes the characteristic swollen, tender lymph nodes (lymphadenitis). Bartonella also invades endothelial cells and can survive inside immune cells, which helps it avoid clearance. But the endotoxin is what drives much of the fever, malaise, and lymph node swelling because it activates the immune system and promotes localized inflammation.)
Culture/Diagnosis: Biopsy of lymph nodes plus Gram staining; ELISA (performed by CDC)
Prevention: Clean wound sites
Treatment: Azithromycin or rifampin
Distinctive Features: History of cat bite or scratch; fever not always present
Epidemiological: United States: estimated incidence is 9.3 cases per 100,000; internationally, seroprevalence from 0.6% to 37% depending on cat population
Spotted Fever Rickettsiosis is caused by what, and what are the unique characteristics? (NH)

- Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSF) is most well-known
- Mainly occurs in the southeast and eastern seaboard regions of the U.S, Canada, Central/South America
- Signs/symptoms: chills, fevers, headache, muscular pain
- Distinctive RASH occurs 2-4 days after prodromal symptoms
- If untreated, lesions merge and become necrotic
- Cardiovascular disruption: hypotension, thrombosis, hemorrhage
20% mortality if untreated, 5-10% mortality if treated
Causative agent: Rickettsia species
Mode of Transmission: Biological vector (tick)
Virulence Factors: Induces apoptosis in cells lining blood vessels (Because apoptosis does not tear or rupture the blood vessel wall, the vessels remain structurally intact. This means blood does not leak out into tissues, so you don’t get hemorrhage, bruising, or bleeding.) - causing these blood vessel–lining cells to undergo programmed cell death, the pathogen weakens the barrier enough to impair normal function—reducing blood flow, altering nutrient delivery, and helping the pathogen access deeper tissues—while avoiding the loud immune alarm that necrosis would cause.
Culture/Diagnosis: Fluorescent antibody, PCR
Prevention: Avoid ticks
Treatment: Doxycycline
Distinctive Features: Rocky Mountain spotted fever is most severe of the rickettsioses
Epidemiological: Only in Americas; 10-fold increase since 2000
What are some basic characteristics about HIV?
Human Immunodeficiency Virus
HIV causes _________?
What are the complex of symptoms caused by HIV?

Signs and symptoms of HIV/AIDS are tied to the level of _____ in the blood and the level of ____ in the blood

What are the different stages of HIV/AIDs disease progression?

What are additional signs/symptoms for HIV Infection/AIDS?
What is the causative agent of HIV Infection/AIDs?
Two major types of HIV:
What is the general multiplication cycle of HIV?

So the immune stimulus acts like an alarm that wakes up latent HIV, allowing it to replicate and spread again.
For HIV transmission, (T/F), urine, tears, sweat, and saliva are considered sources of infection.
FALSE
For HIV transmission, what is considered forms or sources of transmission?
Any form of intimate contact involving transfer of blood can be a potential source of infection
What is the culture and diagnosis for HIV?
A person is diagnosed as having HIV infection if they tested POSITIVE for exposure to HIV (diagnosis is NOT the same as having AIDS)
What are the two criteria that diagnosis of AIDS is based on?
Diagnosis with Stage 3 HIV infection requires both:
AIDS is the most advanced stage of HIV infection. It’s diagnosed when CD4⁺ T-cell counts drop below 200/µL or when the person develops AIDS-defining illnesses like Kaposi’s sarcoma, Pneumocystis pneumonia, or other opportunistic infections.
So Stage 3 HIV = symptomatic but not always AIDS, whereas AIDS = end-stage HIV with severe immune compromise.
AIDS, on the other hand, is not a virus—it’s a syndrome, meaning a collection of conditions caused by advanced HIV infection. To determine if someone has progressed to AIDS, doctors look at CD4⁺ T-cell counts and check for AIDS-defining illnesses.
What are some prevention strategies for HIV Infection?
What is the treatment plan for HIV infection and AIDS? What is the three drug cocktail?
What are the three main mechanisms of action for Anti-HIV drugs?

FINALLY ... HIV Infection and AIDS is caused by what, and what are the unique characteristics?

Virulence Factors:
Attachment, syncytia formation, reverse transcriptase, high mutation rate
* PreP (pre-exposure prophylaxis) for high-risk individuals
Bacillus anthracis is ....
Gram Positive Endospore Forming Bacteria
Aerobic
Rod-Shaped
Anthrax
Staphylococcus aureus is ..
Gram Positive
Acute Endocarditis
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Gram Positive
diplococci joined end to end
Acute Endocarditis
Virulence: Capsule OR hemolysin
Yersinia pestis is ..
Gram Negative
Plague (Pneumonic, Bubonic, Septicemic)
Borrelia burgdorferi is
Gram Negative
Lyme Disease
Bartonella henselae is
Gram Negative
Cat-Scratch Disease
Rickettsia species is
Gram Negative
Spotted fever rickettsiosis
Epstein-Barr Virus is ...
DNA virus
Infectious mononucleosis
SARS-CoV2 is ...
RNA virus
COVID-19
Yellow Fever virus is...
RNA virus
Yellow Fever
Human immunodeficiency virus 1 and 2 is a ...
Retrovirus
HIV infection and AIDS