front 1 Prevents back flow into the left ventricle | back 1 Aortic Semilunar Valve |
front 2 Prevents back flow into the right atrium | back 2 Tricuspid valve |
front 3 Prevents back flow into the left atrium | back 3 Mitral (bicuspid) valve |
front 4 Prevents back flow into the right ventricle | back 4 Pulmonary semilunar valve |
front 5 Atrioventricular (AV) valve with two flaps | back 5 Mitral (bicuspid) valve |
front 6 Atrioventricular (AV) valve with three flaps | back 6 Tricuspid valve |
front 7 True/False: Auricles slightly increase blood volume in the ventricles | back 7 False |
front 8 The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall in order to ________? A.) Pump blood with greater pressure B.) Pump blood through a smaller valve C.) Expand the thoracic cage during diastole D.) Accomodate a greater volume of blood | back 8 D.) Accomodate a greater volume of blood |
front 9 The P wave of a normal electrocardiogram indicates ________? A.) Ventricular repolarization B.) Ventricular depolorization C.) Atrial depolarization D.) Atrial repolarization | back 9 C.) Atrial deploarization |
front 10 The foramen ovalae _________? A.) Is a shallow depression in the interventricular septum B.) Is a condition in which the heart valves do not completely close C.) Is a connection between the pulmonary trunk and the aorta in the fetus D.) Connected the two atria in the fetal heart | back 10 D.) Connected the two atria in the fetal heart |
front 11 Which vessel(s) of the heart receive(s) blood from the right ventricle? A.) Aorta B.) Pulmonary trunk C.) Pulmonary veins D.) Venae cavae | back 11 B.) Pulmonary trunk |
front 12 When viewing a dissected heart, it is easy to visually discern the right and left ventricles by _______? A.) Noticing the thickness of the ventricle walls B.) Asking Ryan C.) Finding the papillary muscles D.) Tracing out where the auricles connect E.) Locating the base | back 12 A.) Noticing the thickness of the ventricle walls |
front 13 Compared to skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle ________? A.) Has gap junctions that allow it to act as a functional syncytium B.) Has more nuclei per cell C.) Cells are larger than skeletal muscle cells D.) Lacks striations | back 13 A.) Has gap junctions that allow it to act as a functional syncytium |
front 14 Which of the following transports oxygen- rich blood? A.) Pulmonary artery B.) Superior Vena Cava C.) Pulmonary trunk D.) Pulmonary vein | back 14 D.) Pulmonary vein |
front 15 True/False: Osmotic pressure is created by the presence in a fluid of small diffusible molecules that easily move through the capillary membrane. | back 15 True |
front 16 Reduction in the concentration of albumin in blood plasma would alter capillary exchange by __________? A.) Increasing hydrostatic pressure and blood volume, blood pressure increases B.) Decreasing colloid osmotic pressure C.) Decreasing colloid osmotic pressure and blood volume, blood pressure increases D.) Increasing hydrostatic pressure and edema will occur | back 16 A.) Increasing hydrostatic pressure and blood volume, blood pressure increases |
front 17 If a person stands up suddenly from the prone (lying) position they may feel a sudden dizzy or lightheadedness. Which of the following is the least likely physiological response to this situation? A.) Increased parasympathetic nerve impulses to the heart B.) Increased sympathetic output to the heart C.) Increasing peripheral resistance due to vasoconstriction D.) Faster heart rate and greater heart contractility | back 17 A.) Increased parasympathetic nerve impulses to the heart |
front 18 Which of the following would have the least influence on blood pressure? A.) Blood volume B.) Peripheral resistance C.) Cardiac output D.) White blood cell count | back 18 D.) White blood cell count |
front 19 Which statement best describes arteries? A.) All cary oxygenated blood to the heart B.) Only large arteries are lined with endothelium C.) All carry blood away from the heart D.) All contain valves to prevent the back flow of blood | back 19 C.) All carry blood away from the heart |
front 20 Which of the following is likely during vigorous exercise? A.) Capillaries of the active muscles will be engorged with blood B.) Blood flow to the kidneys increase C.) The skin will be cold and clammy D.) Blood will be diverted to the digestive organs | back 20 A.) Capillaries of the active muscles will be engorged with blood |
front 21 Which of the following is a type of circulatory shock? A.) Vascular, due to extreme vasodilation as a result of loss of vasomotor tone B.) Hypovolemic, caused by increased blood volume C.) Circulatory, where blood volume is normal and constant D.) Cariogenic, which results from any defect in blood pressure | back 21 A.) Vascular, due to extreme vasodilation as a result of loss of vasomotor tone |
front 22 Which tunic of an artery is most responsible for maintaining blood pressure and continuous blood circulation? A.) Tunica externa B.) Tunica media C.) Tunica intima D.) Tunica adventitia | back 22 B.) Tunica media |
front 23 Which of the following is the most significant source of blood flow resistance? A.) Blood vessels type B.) Blood viscosity C.) Blood vessel diameter D.) Total blood vessel length | back 23 C.) Blood vessel diameter |
front 24 The term ductus venosus refers to ________? A.) Damage to the valves in the veins, leading to varicose veins B.) A special deal vessel that allows umbilical blood to bypass the liver C.) A fetal shunt that bypasses the lungs D.) A condition of the aged in which the arteries lose elasticity | back 24 B.) A special deal vessel that allows umbilical blood to bypass the liver |
front 25 Which of the following is least involved in pulmonary circulation? A.) Left atrium B.) Pulmonary arteries and veins C.) Right ventricle D.) Superior vena cava | back 25 D.) Superior vena cava |
front 26 Factors that aid venous return include all except? A.) Pressure changes in the thorax B.) Urinary output C.) Venous valves D.) Activity of skeletal muscles | back 26 B.) Urinary output |
front 27 A thrombus (blood clot) in the first branch of the arch of the aorta would affect the flow of blood to the ______? A.) Left upper arm B.) Left side of the head and neck C.) Myocardium of the heart D.) Right side of the head and neck and right upper arm | back 27 D.) Right side of the head and neck and right upper arm |
front 28 The baroreceptors in the carotid sinus and aortic arch are sensitive to which of the following? A.) A decrease in oxygen levels B.) A decrease in carbon dioxide C.) Changes in arterial pressure D.) An increase in oxygen levels | back 28 C.) Changes in arterial pressure |
front 29 Which is NOT a major function of the blood? A.) Protection against disease infection B.) Production of oxygen C.) Transportation of nutrients D.) Transportation of heat E.) Regulation of blood pH | back 29 B.) Production of oxygen |
front 30 Which of the following plasma proteins plays a role in disease resistance? A.) Myoglobin B.) Fibrinogens C.) Hemoglobin D.) Globulins E.) Albumins | back 30 D.) Globulins |
front 31 A megakaryocytic will develop into ______? A.) Both b and c B.) Red blood cell C.) A wicked STD that will keep you from ever getting a date again D.) Platelet E.) White blood cell | back 31 D.) Platelet |
front 32 Which of the following promotes inflammation? A.) Eosinophil B.) Monocyte C.) Basophil D.) Neutrophil E.) Lymphocyte | back 32 C.) Basophil |
front 33 Which of the following is not an agranular leukocyte? A.) Basophil B.) Monocytes C.) Macrophage D.) Lymphocyte E.) All of the above | back 33 A.) Basophil |
front 34 What antibodies does a person with type O blood have in their plasma? A.) Not enough information to answer B.) No antibodies C.) B D.) A E.) A & B | back 34 E.) A & B |
front 35 True/False: Contractile cardiac muscle cells are found in the AV node | back 35 Falsa |
front 36 True/False: Contractile cardiac muscle cells have action potentials that can last as long as 300 sec | back 36 True |
front 37 True/False: Autorhythmic cardiac muscle cells depolarize mainly due to calcium ions | back 37 True |
front 38 Athletes abuse erythropoietin (EPO) because it... A.) Increases the red blood cell supply, which brings more oxygen to muscle cells B.) Increases the white blood cell supply, which prevents infection C.) Increases the red blood cell supply, which depletes oxygen from muscle cells D.) Decreases the red blood cell supply, which brings more oxygen to muscle cells | back 38 A.) Increases the red blood cell supply, which brings more oxygen to muscle cells |
front 39 A blood clot that forms abnormally in a blood vessel is a(n) A.) Thrombus B.) Platelet plug C.) Embolus D.) Aneurysm | back 39 A.) Thrombus |
front 40 The final step in the formation of a blood clot is.... A.) The formation of prothrombin activator B.) That thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin C.) That prothrombin activator converts prothrombin to thrombin D.) Tissue damage | back 40 B.) That thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin |
front 41 Which of the following elements is included in hemoglobin molecules? A.) Copper B.) Cobalt C.) Iodine D.) Iron | back 41 D.) Iron |
front 42 True/False: Blood is a type of epithelial tissue. | back 42 False |
front 43 True/False: A platelet plugs formed when fibrinogen is converted to fibrin. | back 43 False |
front 44 When the ventricular walls contract, A.) The mitral valve opens and the tricuspid valve closes B.) The mitral and tricuspid valves close C.) The mitral and tricuspid valves open D.) The tricuspid valve opens and the mitral valve closes | back 44 B.) The mitral and tricuspid valves close |
front 45 Which of the following would NOT be classified as a lymphoid organ? A.) Pancreas B.) Peyer's patches of the intestine C.) Tonsils D.) Spleen | back 45 A.) Pancreas |
front 46 The thymus is most active during _______. A.) Middle age B.) Fetal development C.) Old age D.) Childhood | back 46 D.) Childhood |
front 47 Select the correct statement about lymphocytes: A.) T cells are the only form of lymphocyte found in lymphoid tissue B.) The two main types are T cells and macrophages C.) T cells are the precursors of B cells D.) B cells produce plasma cells, which secrete antibodies into the blood | back 47 D.) B cells produce plasma cells, which secrete antibodies into the blood |
front 48 First line of defense is.....? | back 48 Intact skin and mucous membranes |
front 49 Second line of defense is....? | back 49 Inflammatory response |
front 50 Third line of defense is.....? | back 50 Immune response |
front 51 Innate defense system....? | back 51 Inflammatory response |
front 52 Adaptive defense system....? | back 52 Inflammatory response |
front 53 True/False: The directional movement of cells in response to chemicals is called chemotaxis | back 53 True |
front 54 True/False: Some immunocompetent cells will never encounter an antigen to which they can bind and therefore will never be called to service in our lifetime | back 54 True |
front 55 Plasma cells ________? A.) Are small so that they slip between endothelial cells of capillaries to fight infection in the surrounding tissues B.) Are large so that they can envelope their prey by phagocytosis C.) Have a great deal of rough endoplasmic reticulum reflecting the fact that they secrete a tremendous amount of protein (antibody) D.) Have a great deal of rough endoplasmic reticulum to dispose of ingested pathogens | back 55 C.) Have a great deal of rough endoplasmic reticulum reflecting the fact that they secrete a tremendous amount of protein (antibody) |
front 56 B lymphocytes develop immunocompetence in the _______ A.) Bone marrow B.) Lymph nodes C.) Thymus D.) Spleen | back 56 A.) Bone marrow |
front 57 The walls of the alveoli are composed of two types of cells, type I and type II alveolar cells. The function of type II alveolar cells is to __________? A.) Replace mucous in the alveoli B.) Secrete surfactant C.) Trap dust and other debris D.) Protect the lungs from bacterial invasion | back 57 B.) Secrete surfactant |
front 58 Complete the following statement using the choices below. Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is ________? A.) Equal to the pressure in the atmosphere B.) Less than the pressure in the atmosphere C.) Greater than the pressure in the atmosphere D.) Greater than the intra- alveolar pressure | back 58 C.) Greater than the pressure in the atmosphere |
front 59 Which of the following is true regarding normal quiet expiration of air? A.) It is driven by increased blood CO2 levels B.) It is a passive process that depends on the recoil of elastic fibers that were stretched during inspiration C.) It requires contraction of abdominal wall muscles D.) It depends on the complete lack of surface tension on the alveolar wall | back 59 D.) It depends on the complete lack of surface tension on the alveolar wall |
front 60 Which of the following maintains the potency (openness) of the trachea? A.) Surface tension of water B.) Surfactant production C.) C- shaped cartilage rings D.) Pseudostratified ciliated epithelium | back 60 C.) C- shaped cartilage rings |
front 61 Intrapulmonary pressure is the _________ A.) Pressure within the pleural cavity B.) Pressure within the alveoli of the lungs C.) Difference between atmospheric pressure and respiratory pressure D.) Negative pressure in the intrapleural space | back 61 B.) Pressure within the alveoli of the lungs |
front 62 Surfactant helps to prevent the alveoli from collapsing by _______? A.) Protecting the surface of alveoli from dehydration and other environmental variations B.) Warming the air before it enters C.) Humidifying the air before it enters D.) Interfering with the cohesiveness of water molecules, thereby reducing the surface tension of alveolar fluid | back 62 D.) Interfering with the cohesiveness of water molecules, thereby reducing the surface tension of alveolar fluid |
front 63 In the plasma, the quantity of oxygen in solution is ______ A.) Greater than the oxygen combined with hemoglobin B.) About equal to the oxygen combined with hemoglobin C.) Not present except where it is combined with carrier molecules D.) Only about 1.5% of the oxygen carried in blood | back 63 D.) Only about 1.5% of the oxygen carried in blood |
front 64 Which of the following riders to the movement of air into and out of the lungs? A.) Gas exchange B.) Internal respiration C.) Pulmonary ventilation D.) External respiration | back 64 A.) Gas exchange |
front 65 Tidal volume is ______? A.) Forcibly expelled after normal expiration B.) Inhaled after normal inspiration C.) Exchanged during normal breathing D.) Remaining in the lungs after forced expiration | back 65 C.) Exchanged during normal breathing |
front 66 Possible causes of hypoxia includes.....? A.) Obstruction of the esophagus B.) Getting very cold C.) Too little oxygen in the atmosphere D.) Taking several rapid deep breaths | back 66 C.) Too little oxygen in the atmosphere |
front 67 The lung volume that represents the total volume of exchangeable air is the ______ A.) Tidal volume B.) Vital capacity C.) Inspiratory capacity D.) Expiratory reserve volume | back 67 B.) Vital capacity |
front 68 Respiratory control centers are located in the ______ A.) Upper spinal cord and medulla B.) Medulla and pons C.) Midbrain and medulla D.) Pons and midbrain | back 68 B.) Medulla and pons |
front 69 Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the lungs and through all cell membranes by _______? A.) Osmosis B.) Filtration C.) Diffusion D.) Active transport | back 69 A.) Osmosis |
front 70 How is the bulk of carbon dioxide transported in blood? A.) As carbonic acid in the plasma B.) Chemically combined with the amino acids of hemoglobin as carbaminohemoglobin in the red blood cells C.) Chemically combined with the heme portion of hemoglobin D.) As bicarbonate ions in plasma after first entering the red blood cells | back 70 C.) Chemically combined with the heme portion of hemoglobin |
front 71 This class of cells includes macrophages, B cells and dendritic cells A.) RBC B.) Primary lymphocytes C.) T cells D.) Antigen presenting cells E.) Epitope cells | back 71 D.) Antigen presenting cells |
front 72 These display CD 4 in their membrane and are associated with MHC class II molecules A.) Cytotoxic T cells B.) B cells C.) Memory T cells D.) Helper T cells E.) NWA cells (in people from Compton) | back 72 D.) Helper T cells |
front 73 This action makes microbes more susceptible to phagocytosis A.) Inflammation B.) If there's a stink on them C.) Opsonization D.) Complement E.) Cytolysis | back 73 C.) Opsonization |
front 74 Of the following which is involved n the body's second line of defense? A.) Germ cells B.) None of the above C.) Lymphocytes D.) Mucous cells E.) Natural killer cells | back 74 E.) Natural killer cells |
front 75 Which type of immunity defends against any type of invader? A.) None of the above, but only if its the 3rd Tuesday of the month B.) Nonspecific C.) Specific D.) Antibody mediated immunity E.) Cell mediated | back 75 B.) Nonspecific |
front 76 Using your anatomical terminology, disease- causing agents are called.... A.) Pathogens B.) Germs C.) Antibodies D.) Bugs | back 76 A.) Pathogens |
front 77 The structure of a lymphatic vessel is most similar to that of a(n)... A.) Vein B.) Capillary C.) Arteriole D.) Artery | back 77 B.) Capillary |
front 78 Henry has a cut on his thigh that becomes infected (we won't ask him why, it is a sordid story). The lymph nodes in his ______ enlarge. A.) Supratrochlear region B.) Inguinal region C.) Cervical region D.) Thoracic region | back 78 B.) Inguinal region |
front 79 Interferon is a group of hormone- like peptides that cells produce in response to.... A.) Chemical irritants B.) Bacteria C.) Viruses D.) Fungi | back 79 C.) Viruses |
front 80 The type of resistance that is acquired as a result of developing a disease is.... A.) Naturally acquired active immunity B.) Artificially acquired active immunity C.) Artificially acquired passive immunity D.) Naturally acquired passive immunity | back 80 A.) Naturally acquired active immunity |
front 81 Following a primary immune response, the cells that give rise to memory cells are..... A.) T cells only B.) B cells only C.) Neither B cells nor T cells D.) Both B cells and T cells | back 81 C.) Neither B cells nor T cells |
front 82 Cytotoxic T cells destroy... A.) Cytotoxic cells B.) T cells C.) All antigen- bearing cells D.) Cancer cells and virus- containing cells | back 82 D.) Cancer cells and virus- containing cells |
front 83 In an autoimmune disease, the immune response is directed toward... A.) All antibodies B.) Foreign cells C.) Cells of the body ("self") D.) All antigens | back 83 C.) Cells of the body ("self") |
front 84 B cells divide and differentiate into ______ which produce and secrete antibodies A.) Plasma cells B.) T cells C.) Antibodies D.) Megakaryocytes | back 84 A.) Plasma cells |
front 85 The dental formula for an adult is 2-1-2-3. What does the 1 stand for? A.) Canine tooth B.) Incisor tooth C.) Premolar tooth D.) Molar tooth | back 85 A.) Canine tooth |
front 86 Which of the following is least involved in the mechanical breakdown of food, digestion or absorption of nutrients? A.) Large intestine B.) The oral cavity C.) The small ingestion D.)The esophagus | back 86 D.)The esophagus |
front 87 True/False: The pancreas has both an endocrine and an exocrine function | back 87 True |
front 88 Which of the following is true concerning the number and type of permanent teeth? A.) There are 32 permanent teeth, and the wisdom teeth are the last to emerge B.) The number of permanent teeth is always equal to the number of primary teeth C.) There are 27 permanent teeth, and the first molars are usually the last to emerge D.) The number of upper permanent teeth is not equal to the number of lower permanent teeth | back 88 A.) There are 32 permanent teeth, and the wisdom teeth are the last to emerge |
front 89 Select the statement that is true concerning primary teeth A.) There are 24 primary teeth, and no new primary teeth appear after 13 months B.) There are 20 primary teeth, and by 24 months of age most children have all 20 C.) There are 27 primary teeth, and the molars are permanent D.) There are 32 primary teeth, and by 36 months of age, most children have all 32 | back 89 B.) There are 20 primary teeth, and by 24 months of age most children have all 20 |
front 90 The chemical and mechanical processes of food breakdown are called _______ A.) Digestion B.) Ingestion C.) Secretion D.) Absorption | back 90 A.) Digestion |
front 91 Bile salts bind at their hydrophobic regions to large fat globules within the chyme that enters the duodenum. Bile salts break up the fat globule into smaller fat droplets. This role of bile salts is best described as ______? A.) Lipid ingestion B.) Lipid digestion C.) Lipid emulsification D.) Lipid absorption | back 91 C.) Lipid emulsification |
front 92 Which of the following are types of papillae on the tongue that contain taste buds? A.) Circumvallate and filiform B.) Palatine and circumvallate C.) Fungiform and circumvallate D.) Fungiform, circumvallate, and filiform | back 92 C.) Fungiform and circumvallate |
front 93 Generally the hormone secretin and cholecystokinin which are released by duodenal enteroendocrine cells will _______ A.) Slow the activities of the stomach B.) Speed the churning of the stomach C.) Speed the activity of the jejunum D.) Increases the output of stomach acid | back 93 A.) Slow the activities of the stomach |
front 94 True/False: Dentin anchors the tooth in place | back 94 False |
front 95 You have just eaten a meal high in complex carbohydrates. Which of the following enzymes will help to digest the meal? A.) Amylase B.) Gastrin C.) Trypsin D.) Cholecystokinin | back 95 A.) Amylase |
front 96 Pepsinogen, an inactive digestive enzyme, is secreted by the ________ A.) Brunner's glands B.) Chief cells of the stomach C.) Goblet cells of the small intestine D.) Parietal cells of the duodenum | back 96 B.) Chief cells of the stomach |
front 97 A doctor consulting a patient that recently has had their gall bladder removed would likely advise....? A.) Eating foods that are low in fat B.) A low to no carb diet C.) Increasing unsaturated fats while eliminating trans fats in their diets D.) Fewer, but larger meals | back 97 A.) Eating foods that are low in fat |
front 98 The function of the hepatic portal circulation is to ______? A.) Collect absorbed nutrients for metabolic processing in the liver B.) Increase my sympathetic response because i forgot to study it C.) Carry toxins to the kidney for disposal through the urinary tract D.) Return glucose to the general circulation when blood sugar is low | back 98 A.) Collect absorbed nutrients for metabolic processing in the liver |
front 99 From the esophagus to the anal canal, the walls of every organ of the alimentary canal are made up of the same four basic layers. Arrange them in order from the lumen. A.) Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, and serosa B.) Serosa, mucosa, submucosa, and muscularis externa C.) Submucosa, serosa, muscularis externa, and mucosa D.) Muscularis externa, serosa, mucosa, and submucosa | back 99 A.) Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, and serosa |
front 100 Place the following in correct sequence from the formation of a drop of urine to its elimination from the body. 1.) major calyx A.) 3,6,1,2,5,4 B.) 6,3,2,1,5,4 C.) 2,1,3,6,5,4 D.) 3,1,2,6,5,4 | back 100 A.) 3,6,1,2,5,4 |
front 101 If the diameter of the afferent arterioles leading to the glomerulus increases (vasodilation) which of the following is not likely to occur? A.) Urine output will increase B.) Glomerular filtration rate will increase C.) Net filtration pressure will increase D.) Systemic blood pressure will go up | back 101 D.) Systemic blood pressure will go up |
front 102 True/False: The position of the kidneys behind the peritoneal lining of the abdominal cavity is described by the term retroperitoneal | back 102 True |
front 103 The mechanism for water reabsorption by the renal tubules is ______ A.) Active transport B.) Filtration C.) Cotransport with sodium ions D.) Osmosis | back 103 D.) Osmosis |
front 104 The mechanism that establishes the medullary osmotic gradient depends most on the permeability properties of the _______ A.) Glomerular filtration membrane B.) Distal convoluted tubule C.) Collecting duct D.) Nephron loop | back 104 D.) Nephron loop |
front 105 Alcohol acts as a diuretic because it.... A.) Inhibits the release of ADH B.) Makes me feel overconfident in my conversational abilities at the bar C.) Increases secretion of ADH D.) Is not reabsorbed by the tubule cells | back 105 A.) Inhibits the release of ADH |
front 106 An important characteristic of urine is its specific gravity or density, which is ______ A.) Less than water B.) The same as water C.) Much higher than water D.) Slightly higher than water | back 106 D.) Slightly higher than water |
front 107 The functional and structural unit of the kidneys is the ______ A.) Capsular space B.) Nephron loop C.) Nephron D.) Glomerular capsule | back 107 C.) Nephron |
front 108 The presence of protein in the urine indicates which of the following? A.) Too much protein in the diet B.) Damage to the renal tubules C.) High levels of transcription and translation by the bodies tissues D.) Damage ti the filtration membrane | back 108 D.) Damage ti the filtration membrane |
front 109 What is the best explanation for the microvilli on the apical surface of the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)? A.) Their movements propel the filtration through the tubules B.) They hold on to the enzymes that cleanse the filtrate before reabsorption C.) They increase the amount of surface area that comes in contact with the blood's plasma to help actively excrete toxins D.) They increase the surface area and allow for a greater volume of filtrate components to be reabsorbed | back 109 D.) They increase the surface area and allow for a greater volume of filtrate components to be reabsorbed |
front 110 What is the most direct function of the juxtaglomerular apparatus? A.) Help regulate blood pressure and the rate of excretion by the kidneys B.) Help regulate blood pressure and the rate of blood filtration by the kidneys C.) Help regulate water and electrolyte excretion by the kidneys D.) Help regulate urea absorption by the kidneys | back 110 B.) Help regulate blood pressure and the rate of blood filtration by the kidneys |
front 111 The _____ artery lies on the boundary between the cortex and medulla of the kidney A.) Arcuate B.) Lobar C.) Interlobar D.) Cortical radiate | back 111 A.) Arcuate |
front 112 Which of the choices below is not a glomerular filtration rate control method? A.) Neural regulation B.) Electrolyte levels C.) Renal autoregulation D.) Hormonal regulation | back 112 B.) Electrolyte levels |
front 113 Which of the following is not associated with the renal corpuscle? A.) A fenestrated capillary B.) A vasa recta C.) An efferent arteriole D.) A podocyte | back 113 B.) A vasa recta |
front 114 The urinary bladder is compose of _______ epithelium A.) Transitional B.) Pseudostratified columnar C.) Simple squamous D.) Stratified squamous | back 114 A.) Transitional |
front 115 Brittany has just eaten a large order of heavily salted French fries, some pickled eggs, and some cheese. How will consuming this much salt affect her physiology? A.) She will experience hypotension B.) It will cause a prolonged increase in the osmolality of the blood C.) It will negatively affect her reproductively biology as no sane individual will want to date her after a meal like that D.) There will be a shift in the pH of her body fluids to the higher side of the pH scale E.) There will be a temporary increase in blood volume | back 115 E.) There will be a temporary increase in blood volume |
front 116 When antidiuretic hormone (ADH) levels are low _______ A.) Most of the water reaching the collecting ducts is not absorbed B.) A small volume of concentrated urine is excreted C.) Aquaporins are inserted into the principal cell apical membranes D.) Nearly all of the filtered water is reabsorbed | back 116 D.) Nearly all of the filtered water is reabsorbed |
front 117 True/False: Dehydration can be caused by endocrine disturbances such as diabetes mellitus or diabetes insipidus. | back 117 True |
front 118 Which of the following hormones is important in the regulation of sodium ion concentrations in the extracellular fluid? A.) Aldosterone B.) Renin C.) Erythropoietin D.) Antidiuretic hormone | back 118 A.) Aldosterone |
front 119 The fluid link between the external and internal environment is ______ A.) Cerebrospinal fluid B.) Intracellular fluid C.) Plasma D.) Interstitial fluid | back 119 C.) Plasma |
front 120 The movement of fluids between cellular compartments _______ A.) Requires active transport B.) Always involves filtration C.) Is a bit unsettling D.) Requires ATP for the transport to take place E.) Is regulated by osmotic and hydrostatic forces | back 120 E.) Is regulated by osmotic and hydrostatic forces |
front 121 Which of the following is NOT a chemical buffer system? A.) Nucleic acid B.) Protein C.) Bicarbonate D.) Phosphate | back 121 A.) Nucleic acid |
front 122 The most important force causing net outward water flow across capillary walls is ______ A.) Hydrostatic pressure of interstitial fluid B.) Osmotic pressure of plasma proteins C.) Hydrostatic pressure of capillary blood D.) Intracellular hydrostatic pressure | back 122 C.) Hydrostatic pressure of capillary blood |
front 123 A falling blood pH and a rising partial pressure of carbon dioxide due to pneumonia or emphysema indicates ______ A.) Metabolic acidosis B.) Respiratory acidosis C.) Respiratory alkalosis D.) Metabolic alkalosis | back 123 B.) Respiratory acidosis |
front 124 Whereas sodium is food mainly in the extracellular fluid, most ______ is found in the intracellular fluid A.) Iron B.) Potassium C.) Chloride D.) Bicarbonate | back 124 B.) Potassium |
front 125 ________ absorption is hormone controlled water reabsorption that takes place in the DCT and collecting tubule | back 125 Facultative |
front 126 A ________ is a compound that prevents large changes in pH by binding or releasing hydrogen ions | back 126 Buffer |
front 127 Lower potassium is also known as _________ | back 127 Hypokalemia |
front 128 The cytosol is also known as ________ fluid or that found inside the cell | back 128 Intracellular |