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Diagnostic Procedures Chapter 13 (Nicola)

front 1

What is intermittent or continuous cardiac pain caused by anoxia of the myocardium called

back 1

Angina

front 2

What is the act of listening, either directly or through a stethoscope or other instrument, to sounds within the body as a method of diagnosis calledIE: lungs, heart, & abdomen

back 2

Auscultation

front 3

What is the removal of living tissue from the body for diagnostic examination called

back 3

Biopsy

front 4

What is a mobile unit used in surgery or at the bedside that produces "real time" fluoroscopic images for the surgeon, or radiographer called

back 4

C-arm

front 5

What is used in the anesthetic setting to provide a breath-by-breath analysis of expired carbon dioxide (end-tidal CO2)called

back 5

Capnography

front 6

What is the fluid that flows through the ventricles of the brain, subarachnoid space, and spinal canal; serves to protect these structures called

back 6

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

front 7

What is a preoperative and intraoperative diagnostic tool in which a catheter is inserted into the common bile duct and contrast medium is injected to outline potential calculi under fluoroscopy called

back 7

Cholangiography

front 8

What is the solution injected into arteries, veins, or ducts during a radiographic exam that is radiopaque and therefore stands out in contrast to the surrounding tissues called
IE: Hypaque, Renografin, or Cystografin

back 8

Contrast medium

front 9

What is a solution that fills the hollow cavities of the brain, circulates around the brain and spinal cord, it provides nourishment, cushions, and removes wastes called

back 9

Cerebral Spinal Fluid
CSF

front 10

What is the insertion of an endoscope through the urethra and into the bladder for the purpose of viewing for treatment and diagnosis called

back 10

Cystoscopy

front 11

What is the abbreviation for electrocardiogram, which is a record of the electrical activity of the heart

back 11

ECG or EKG

front 12

What is the abbreviation electroencephalography. Display and recording of the brain’s electrical activity by measurement of changes in electric potentials

back 12

EEG

front 13

What is a quick preparation of a biopsy sample for examination during an actual surgical procedure to determines if a sample is benign or malignant. A pathological method of diagnosis that involves freezing a tissue sample, slicing it into thin sections, staining it, and then viewing it under a microscope

back 13

Frozen Section

front 14

What is the suffix for written record

back 14

Gram

front 15

What is the laboratory method of identifying bacteria; bacteria that stain purple are referred to as gram-positive, and bacteria that do not retain the stain and appear red in color are referred to as gram-negative

back 15

Gram Stain

front 16

What is the suffix meaning producing a drawing or writing

back 16

Graph

front 17

What is a substance or item that remains in place either permanently or for a period of time, for instance a Foley remains in place until the patient is able to completely void.

back 17

Indwelling

front 18

What procedure involves the intravenous injection of a radioactive isotope into the patient prior to an imaging study; also referred to as nuclear medicine study or radionuclide imaging

back 18

Isotope Scanning

front 19

What is the name of something that causes or forms a blockage or hindrance of a passage

back 19

Obstruction

front 20

What is the term for an examination technique in which the examiner's hands are used to feel the texture, size, consistency, and location of certain body parts. Examining by touch.

back 20

Palpation

front 21

What is an artificial device used to replace a body structure, aid bodily function, or give a cosmetic appearance; may be permanent or removable

back 21

Prosthesis

front 22

What is the process of recording Radiography; X-rays (radiation)

back 22

Roentgenography

front 23

What is the indication of a disease or condition perceived by the EXAMINER

back 23

Sign

front 24

What is the Indication of a disease or condition perceived by the PATIENT

back 24

Symptom

front 25

What is the use of high-frequency waves that are directed into the body and are reflected from the tissues to record an image for diagnostic purposes called

back 25

Ultrasonography

front 26

What is the laboratory examination of a urine specimen for diagnostic purposes

back 26

Urinalysis

front 27

What is an X-ray produced by the collision of a beam of electrons with a metal target within an X-ray tube

back 27

Radiography (Roentgenography)

front 28

What is the unit of energy
Penetrability of the X-ray beam

back 28

Joule

front 29

What does RADS refer to

back 29

Radiation Absorbed Dosage

front 30

What is directed from the front toward the back

back 30

Anteroposterior

front 31

For an X-Ray what radiographic views require that the film be placed underneath the patient

back 31

Anteroposterior (AP)

front 32

For an X-Ray what view demands placement next to the body

back 32

Lateral views

front 33

What is it called when the surgeon uses his eyes (no instruments) to look direct at something

back 33

Direct visualization

front 34

What is it called when the surgeon uses instruments, for instance otoscope/ophthalmoscope, laryngoscopy and bronchoscopy for viewing

back 34

Enhanced visualization

front 35

What is it called when a surgeon uses an instrument to help perform exams (pharyngeal mirror)

back 35

Indirect visualization

front 36

A radiographic examination of the breast to detect the presence of tumors or precancerous cells

back 36

Mammography

front 37

What diagnostic procedure is performed to evaluate the spine for patients with neck, back, or leg pain.

back 37

Myelography

front 38

MRI is useful in imaging the spinal cord, nerve roots, and disks, BUT myelography has the added benefit of clearly outlining bone tissue, and for patients with metal implants

back 38

MRI vs Myelography

front 39

For a myelographic study to be performed what has to be injected into the cerebrospinal fluid at the lower lumbar level to outline the spinal cord and nerve roots

back 39

Contrast Medium

front 40

What diagnostic procedure is performed to identify osteophytes (bony spurs) or disk extrusions, along with a myelographic study

back 40

Computed Axial Tomography (CAT)

front 41

What diagnostic procedure utilizes X-rays to project images of body structures onto a monitor, the images may be viewed during movement and projected in “real time,” allowing the action of joints and organs to be viewed directly.

back 41

Fluoroscopy

front 42

The C-arm is frequently used in conjunction with a special radiographic table that allows X-rays to pass through the tabletop, which is referred to as being ........

back 42

Radiolucent

front 43

Angiography (including cardiac catheterization)
Cholangiography
Retrograde urography
Aid in bone realignment and prosthesis placement
Verification of catheter placement epidural/central venous pressure and lead pacemaker introduction
To direct instrumentation, neurosurgery/orthopedics

back 43

Fluoroscopy Intraoperative Applications

front 44

What diagnostic procedure remains the reference standard for assessing the cause and severity of peripheral vascular disease

back 44

Angiography

front 45

What is an invasive procedure that must be accomplished under sterile conditions

back 45

Angiography

front 46

What diagnostic procedure allows the visualization of most veins and arteries of the body following the intravenous or intra-arterial injection of a contrast medium, and are typically performed in a cardiac catheterization laboratory

back 46

Angiography

front 47

What are solutions that are injected into the arteries or veins during angiography that are not penetrable by X-rays (that is, they are radiopaque) and therefore stand out in contrast to the surrounding tissues during angiographic study.

back 47

Contrast materials

front 48

For an Angiography the ....... the radius of the catheter, the safer is the procedure

back 48

The smaller

front 49

What is the name for a method of percutaneous insertion of a catheter into a blood vessel or space. A needle is used to puncture the structure and a guide wire is threaded through the needle; when the needle is withdrawn, a catheter is threaded over the wire; the wire is then withdrawn, leaving the catheter in place.

back 49

Seldinger technique

front 50

What diagnostic procedure permits the evaluation of heart function, visualization of coronary arteries and cardiac chambers, to diagnose coronary artery, valvular, pulmonary, and congenital heart disease

back 50

Cardiac catheterization

front 51

What procedure refers to making an incision and dissecting through the tissue layers to expose the vessel and making an incision into the vessel for the introduction of the catheter

back 51

Cut-down

front 52

What refers to the percentage of blood that is pumped out of a filled ventricle with each heartbeat

back 52

Ejection fraction

front 53

What is a normal ejection fraction

back 53

55% to 75%

front 54

Right heart studies are accomplished with the aid of a balloon-tipped, ........... catheter attached to a transducer and monitor

back 54

Swan-Ganz pulmonary artery

front 55

What is this diagnostic tool that can be used preoperatively, and intraoperatively during cholecystectomy or common bile duct exploration, where a catheter can be inserted and contrast medium injected into the biliary system to outline calculi or other obstructions under fluoroscopy

back 55

Cholangiography

front 56

What diagnostic procedure uses a specialized X-ray machine that produces pictures of a body part in “slices” for evaluation by a radiologist

back 56

Computed Axial Tomography (CT or CAT scan)

front 57

What uses electromagnetic radiation to create an image from approximately 4,000 different tissue densities that are sorted into 16 different groups

back 57

A CT scan

front 58

What can sometimes be enhanced with the use of an iodine-based contrast medium, which is given to the patient intravenously, unless they are allergic to iodine

back 58

The CT image

front 59

As a neurological diagnostic tool, what is better than MRI for emergencies related to the brain because it is faster and better able to detect fresh bleeding

back 59

CT scanning

front 60

What combines CT and radioisotope brain scanning, and helps to identify how different areas of the brain function by highlighting chemical or metabolic activity

back 60

Positron Emission Tomography (PET scanning)

front 61

What uses two different forms of energy to create an image. A spinning hydrogen atom is placed into a magnetic field, forcing the atoms to line up and “spin” at a particular frequency

back 61

Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)

front 62

What imaging tool allows slices to be taken from any direction, in addition to using NO X-ray radiation

back 62

MRI

front 63

What diagnostic procedure is especially good for imaging soft tissue, so it is often used for the evaluation of brain disorders and for providing images of a herniated disc and its relationship to the spinal cord

back 63

MRI

front 64

What diagnostic procedure uses high-frequency sound waves directed into the body and reflected from the tissues to a recording device for diagnostic purposes. Frequencies of 1-10 million Hz are necessary for diagnostic studies. The lower the frequency, the greater is the depth of sound wave penetration into the body.

back 64

Ultrasonography

front 65

What are produced when a crystal (transducer) is stimulated electrically. The beam that is produced is directed into the body and variances in tissue density are reflected back to the transducer as echoes

back 65

Ultrasonic waves

front 66

What is a useful diagnostic tool for examination of the heart and abdominopelvic cavity. It is also useful for identifying carotid artery stenosis.

back 66

Ultrasound

front 67

What diagnostic procedure is not used to examine the lungs because it's waves cannot pass through structures that contain air

back 67

Ultrasonography

front 68

What diagnostic procedure is a noninvasive study that provides a two-dimensional image of the heart by directing beams of ultrasonic waves from a sonar-like device through the chest wall

back 68

Echocardiography

front 69

What techniques of echocardiography are useful for mapping blood flow through the heart

back 69

Color Doppler

front 70

What diagnostic procedure is a slightly more invasive procedure, involves the introduction of a transducer attached to the end of a gastroscope into the esophagus, bringing the probe into closer approximation with the heart

back 70

Transesophageal Echocardiography (TEE)

front 71

What diagnostic procedure is used in the OR to determine the patency of arterial anastomosis

back 71

Doppler Ultrasonography

front 72

What diagnostic procedure examines the blood flow in the major arteries and veins in the arms and legs with the use of ultrasound (high-frequency sound waves that echo off the body). It may help diagnose a blood clot, venous insufficiency, arterial occlusion (closing), abnormalities in arterial blood flow caused by a narrowing, or trauma to the arteries

back 72

Doppler Ultrasonography

front 73

What diagnostic procedure is sometimes referred to as a nuclear medicine study or radionuclide imaging, involves the intravenous injection of a radioactive substance into the patient prior to the imaging study

back 73

Isotope scanning

front 74

Collections of isotopes in a certain area are referred to as a ....... and may indicate the presence of a pathological condition

back 74

Hot spot

front 75

What therapy is used in predetermined doses to treat specific types of neoplasms that are susceptible to radiation by exposure to the radiation source

back 75

Radiation therapy

front 76

What kills cells by interfering with their metabolic activity

back 76

Radiation

front 77

What can be administered to the patient with a beam that passes through the tissue or by direct tissue contact with an implantable source

back 77

Radiation

front 78

What is the study called when venous or arterial blood is drawn from the patient for visual or computerized examination in the laboratory setting

back 78

Hematological Studies

front 79

What are these Hematology values for:
13.5–18 g/dL, 135–180 g/L (SI units)

back 79

Male Hemoglobin

front 80

What are these Hematology values for:
11.5–15.5 g/dL,115–155 g/L (SI units)

back 80

Female Hemoglobin

front 81

What are these Hematology values for:
40–52% (0.40–0.52)

back 81

Hematocrit Male

front 82

What are these Hematology values for:
35–46% (0.35–0.46)

back 82

Hematocrit Female

front 83

What are these Hematology values for:
5,000–10,000/mm3

back 83

White blood cells (leukocytes)

front 84

What are these Hematology values for:
0.25–0.5%

back 84

Basophils

front 85

What are these Hematology values for:
25–40%

back 85

Lymphocytes

front 86

What are these Hematology values for:
60–80% of lymphocytes

back 86

T-lymphocytes

front 87

What are these Hematology values for:
10–20% of lymphocytes

back 87

B-lymphocytes

front 88

Blood Gas Value
96–100% of capacity

back 88

Arterial Saturation

front 89

What involves cleaning the urinary meatus prior to voiding and “catching” the sample midstream into a sterile collection device

back 89

A clean-catch sample

front 90

What is a histologic examination

back 90

Study of tissue

front 91

What is a cytologic examination

back 91

Study of cells

front 92

What can have devastating effects for the patient. It could necessitate a second procedure to be performed to obtain another specimen and delay postoperative treatment, such as chemotherapy or antibiotic therapy.

back 92

The loss of a specimen

front 93

What must be correctly labeled. The STSR should confirm the identity of the specimen (name) and origin (left arm) with surgeon, and the circulator should confirm this information with the surgeon. Additionally, the orientation of the specimen becomes important when the margins of the wound must be proven to be free of tumor. The surgeon may mark the edges with suture and the STSR should accurately communicate the information to the circulator, e.g., “left breast biopsy, suture marker on superior quadrant of biopsy.”

back 93

Correct specimen labelling

front 94

What must NEVER be used for passing off and transporting a specimen

back 94

A counted sponge

front 95

What is the name of fluid with cells that are fixed on a microscopic slide, done during endoscopic procedures

back 95

Smear and Brush Biopsy

front 96

What is the removal of fluid through a needle attached to a syringe, for example fluid taken from a cyst, a joint such as the knee joint, a body cavity such as the peritoneal cavity, or a solid lesion in the breast, thyroid or lymph nodes

back 96

Aspiration biopsy

front 97

What is the name for the removal of a portion of the tissue mass or lesion for pathological study

back 97

Incisional biopsy

front 98

What biopsy section allows for an immediate diagnosis; however, the method is not 100% accurate and the final diagnosis is determined by the permanent section performed by the pathologist

back 98

Frozen section

front 99

What section analysis will the pathologist report the results directly to the surgeon in the OR via telephone. Sensitivity is required if the patient is under local anesthesia and awake

back 99

Frozen section

front 100

What sections are placed in a preservative such as formalin and sliced into thin sections by the pathologists, these findings are delivered after the case has concluded

back 100

Permanent sections

front 101

What must be sent to pathology dry. If a preservative is added it will dissolve the stones or permanently alter them.

back 101

Calculi (gallstones, kidney stones)

front 102

What are sent to the pathology department dry. They are carefully bagged and wrapped for transfer. They may be returned to the family if the patient passes for burial purposes

back 102

Amputated limbs

front 103

What must be handled carefully. Do not use forceps or clamps to handle them because the instrument could scratch the material

back 103

Bullets

front 104

What orthopedic implant should be kept dry and sent to pathology

back 104

Removed prostheses (orthopedic implants)

front 105

What bacteriological test is performed on tissue or fluid that is suspected of being infected, it may be cultured so that the pathogen can be identified and treated

back 105

Culture and sensitivity

front 106

Which bacteria die quickly if exposed to air

back 106

Anaerobic bacteria

front 107

What bacteriological test developed in 1844, remains a valuable tool in identifying bacteria

back 107

The Gram stain

front 108

Bacteria that retain the blue dye are called .......

back 108

Gram positive

front 109

Bacteria that fade to pink are

back 109

Gram negative

front 110

What bacteriological test involves the placement of a needle into a posterior portion of the pleural space for the analysis of pleural effusion

back 110

Thoracentesis

front 111

What procedure elevates fluid accumulations within thoracic cavity

back 111

Therapeutic thoracentesis

front 112

What are the studies described as "The body consists of cells that contain polarized molecules, and the communication systems of the body are bioelectrical or biochemical. Microelectrical impulses can be measured and provide useful diagnostic information:

back 112

Electrodiagnostic Studies

front 113

What is a valuable tool for the detection and evaluation of all forms of heart disease, especially myocardial infarction

back 113

Electrocardiogram (ECG)

front 114

What is performed by placing a number of electrodes in predetermined locations on the skin of the arms, legs, and torso to record the electrical activity of the heart.

back 114

Electrocardiography

front 115

What allows 24-hour monitoring for asymptomatic and symptomatic dysrhythmias

back 115

The Holter monitor

front 116

What is a display and recording of the electrical activity of the brain by measurement of changes in electric potentials

back 116

Electroencephalography (EEG)

front 117

What is used to help diagnose seizure disorder, brain tumor, epilepsy, and other diseases and injury to the brain. In addition, it is used intraoperatively during certain cranial, spinal, and vascular procedures for monitoring of neurological function.

back 117

Electroencephalography (EEG)

front 118

What is the study and recording of the electrical activity of skeletal muscle. Electric stimulation is applied to the muscle via a probe that is inserted through the skin into the muscle. Information about muscle contractility and inner-vation can be assembled.

back 118

Electromyography (EMG)

front 119

What is a test used to measure the oxygen level (oxygen saturation) of the blood

back 119

Pulse Oximetry

front 120

What is the normal oxygen saturation in percentages

back 120

95%-97%.

front 121

What is the normal blood pH range

back 121

7.35 and 7.45

front 122

What was designed to estimate arterial levels of carbon dioxide noninvasively for surgical patients requiring mechanical ventilation

back 122

Capnography

front 123

What is the name for the level of carbon dioxide released at the end of an exhaled breath (expiration)

back 123

end-tidal CO2

front 124

What is a functional test of the lungs

back 124

Spirometry

front 125

What is a useful test for detecting leaks in the ventilatory system and patient conditions such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).

back 125

Spirometry

front 126

What is useful in patients with diffuse small vessel arterial disease, especially diabetics

back 126

Plethysmography

front 127

What is an instrument for determining and registering variations in the volume of an extremity and in the amount of blood present in the extremity or passing through it

back 127

A plethysmograph

front 128

What is a well-established technique for the noninvasive diagnosis of deep venous thrombosis of the lower extremity

back 128

Phleborheography