front 1 Which of the following is NOT a function of a hormone? A) Regulates chemical composition and volume of the internal environment? B) Regulates metabolism C) Regulates glandular secretions D) Produces electrolytes E) Controls growth and development | back 1 Controls growth and development |
front 2 A type of hormone that acts on neighboring cells without entering the bloodstream. A) Local hormone B) Paracrine C) Autocrine D) Circulating hormone | back 2 Both A& B |
front 3 Which of the following are a group of lipid-soluble hormones derived from cholesterol. A) Steroids B) Thyroid hormones C) Nitric oxide D) Amine hormones E) Peptide hormones | back 3 Steroids |
front 4 Which of the following statements correctly compares water-soluble hormones with lipid-soluble hormones? A) Both types of hormone are carried in the blood attached to a carrier protein. B) Both types of hormone almost always stimulate increases in mRNA transcription. C) Only water-soluble hormones use second messengers D) Only water-soluble hormones require a receptor E) Lipid-soluble hormones are not found in the bloodsteam. | back 4 Only water-soluble hormones use second messengers |
front 5 When one hormone opposes the action of another hormone it is called. A) synergistic effect B) permissive effect C) antagonistic effect D) circulating effect E) local effect | back 5 antagonistic effect |
front 6 Which of the following is NOT a common method of stimulating hormone secretion from an endocrine cell? A) Signals from the nervous system B) Chemical changes in the blood C) Mechanical stretching of the endocrine cell D) Releasing hormones E) Both signals from the nervous system and Chemical changes in the blood. | back 6 Mechanical stretching of the endocrine cell |
front 7 What controls hormone release from the anterior pituitary gland? A) muscle contraction B) The peripheral nervous system C) Hormones released from the hypothalamus D) Action potentials from the thalamus E) Chemical changes in the cerebrospinal fluid | back 7 Hormones released from the hypothalamus |
front 8 Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimuates general body growth. A) growth hormone B) prolactin C) Thyrotropin D) Luteinizing hormone E) Adrenocorticopic hormone | back 8 growth hormone |
front 9 Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulates milk production? A) Luteinzing hormone B) prolactin C) Thyrotropin D) Melanocyte stimulating hormone E) Adrenocorticotropic hormone | back 9 prolactin |
front 10 Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulates the adrenal cortex to secret cortisol? A) Leutinizing hormone B) Prolactin C) Insulin-like growth factors D) Melanocyte-stimulating hormone E) Adrenocorticotropic hormone | back 10 Adrenocorticotropic hormone |
front 11 Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulate the gonads to secrete progesterone and/or testosterone? A) Luteinizing hormone B) TSH D) Melanocyte-stimulating hormone E) Growth hormone | back 11 Luteinizing hormone |
front 12 Which type of anterior pituitary cell secretes human growth hormone? A) Thyrotrophs B) Gonadotrophs C) Somatotrophs D) Lactotrophs E) Corticotrophs | back 12 Somatotrophs |
front 13 Which of the following pairs of hormones are secreted by the posterior pituitary gland? A) Proplactin and growth hormonw B) Melatonin-stimulating hormone and oxytocin C) Oxytocin and anti-diuretic hormone D) Follicle-stimulating hormone and thyroid-stimulating hormone E) Prolactin and ACTH | back 13 Oxytocin and anti-diuretic hormone |
front 14 The amount of ADH that is secreted by the posterior pituitay gland varies with A) blood osmotic pressure B) blood calcium levels C) blood oxygen levels D) blood glucose levels E) All of these choices | back 14 blood osmotic pressure |
front 15 Which of the following hormones opposes the action of parathyroid hormone? A) Thyroid- stimulating hormone B) Testosterone C) Insulin D) Calcitonin E) Calcitriol | back 15 Calcitonin |
front 16 Which of the following statements does NOT describe a step in the synthesis and secretion of T3 and T4? A) Iodide trapping B) Oxidation of iodide C) Coupling of T1 and T2 D) Synthesis of Calcitonin E) Iodination of tyrosine | back 16 Synthesis of Calcitonin |
front 17 Parathyroid hormone is the major regulator of the plasma concentration of which of the following ions? A) Calcium B) Sodium C) Potassium D) Chloride E) Manganese | back 17 Calcium |
front 18 Which of the following conditions would result from hyposecretion of aldosterone? A) Decreased heart rate B) Decreased airway dilation C) dehydration D) Decreased oxygen delivery to the brain E) Metabolic acidosis | back 18 dehydration |
front 19 Which of the following is NOT a common effect of glucocorticoid stimulation? A) Protein and fat breakdown B) Glucose formation C) Depression of immune responses D) Reduction of inflammation E) Increased production of all types of blood cells | back 19 Increased production of all types of blood cells |
front 20 Which blood glucose-lowering hormone is produced by the pancreatic islet cells? A) Insulin B) Glucagon C) Somatostatin D) Thyroid hormoes E) Calcitonin | back 20 Insulin |
front 21 Which of the following hormones promotes incrases in the basal metabolic rate ( BMR) ? A) Insulin B) Adrenocorticoptropic hormone C) Glucagon D) Thyroid hormone E) Calcitonin | back 21 Thyroid hormone |
front 22 Which of the following hormones play key regulatory roles in the body's long-term response to stress? A) Insulin, Glucagon, Thyroid hormone B) hGH, Insulin, Aldosterone C) Cortisol, hGH Thyroid horone D) Parathyroid hormone, Cortisol, hGH E) Calcitonin, Thyroid hormone, Insulin | back 22 Cortisol, hGH Thyroid horone |
front 23 Which of the following is NOT a common response of the body to long-term stress A) Increased lipolysis B) Increased glycogenesis C) Increased gluconeogensis D) Increased digestive activities E) Increased breakdown of proteins | back 23 Increased digestive activities |
front 24 Which of the following hormones is an amine hormone derived from serotonic? A) Melatonin B) Melanin C) Glucose D) Glucocorticoid E) Eicosanoid | back 24 Melatonin |
front 25 Which of the following glands is NOT an endocrine gland? A) pituitary gland B) throid gland C) adrenal gland D) sebaceous gland E) pineal gland | back 25 sebaceous gland |
front 26 Since insulin released from the pancreas is carried in the bloodstream to distant target cells, like muscle cells, it is considered to be a A) local hormone B) circulating hormone C) panacrine D) autocrine E) neurotramitter | back 26 circulating hormone |
front 27 Which of the following is an example of hormone that is secreted from an endocrine gland in response to a chemical change in the blood? A) Parathyroid hormone release from the parathryroid gland B) insulin release from the pancreas C) glucagon release from the pancreas D) ADH release from the posterior pituitary gland E) all of the answer selection are correct | back 27 all of the answer selection are correct |
front 28 Which hormonal influence on the muscular system is correctly described? A) Thyroid hormone decreases muscle mass B) Calcitonin is the primary regulator of CA2+ needed for contraction C) Epinephrine helps increase blood flow to exercising muscle D) Erythropoietin blocks formation of erythrocytes E) ADH promotes water loss | back 28 Epinephrine helps increase blood flow to exercising muscle |
front 29 Which of the following is NOT a major function of the blood? A) Transportation of nutrients B) Regulation of blood pH C) Protection against infectious disease D) Transportation of heat E) Production of oxygen | back 29 Production of oxygen |
front 30 The normal average temperature of blood is around A) 98.6 B) 100.4 C) 90.8 D) 89.6 E) 101.6 | back 30 100.4 |
front 31 The normal pH range for blood is A) 7.35-8.50 B) 7.35-9.45 C) 6.35-7.35 D) 6.35-9.35 E) 7.35-7.45 | back 31 7.35-7.45 |
front 32 The hematocrit is a measure of the percentage of whole blood occupied by A) WBCs B) platelets C) RBCs D) plasma E) plasma proteins | back 32 RBCs |
front 33 What percentage of blood plasma is water A) 95.1 B) 91.5 C) 88.5 D) 4.9 E) 8.5 | back 33 91.5 |
front 34 Which of the following plasma proteins play a role in disease resistance? A) albumin B) Globulins C) Fibrinogen D) Myoglobin E) Hemoglobin | back 34 Globulins |
front 35 Which of the following plasma proteins plays a role in blood clotting? A) Albumin B) globulins C) Fibrinogen D) Prostaglandins E) None of these choices | back 35 Fibrinogen |
front 36 The process by which the formed elements of the blood develop is called A) hematospermia B) hemopoiesis C) thrombocytosis D) hemostastis E) polycythemia | back 36 hemopoiesis |
front 37 During hemopoiesis, some of the myeloid stem cells will eventually develop into A) proerythroblsts B) T lymphoblasts C) B lymphoblasts D) NK lymphoblasts E) all of these choices | back 37 proerythroblsts |
front 38 The major function of red blood cells is A) nutrient transport B) cytokine stimulation C) blood cell proliferation D) gas transport E) disease resistance | back 38 gas transport |
front 39 Towards the end of erythropoiesis in the bone marrow, a red blood cell loses its nucleus and becomes a A) proerythroblast B) megakarycyte C) progenitor cell D) mature erythrocyte E) reticulocyte | back 39 reticulocyte |
front 40 Which of the following blood cells is involved in reducing blood loss from a damaged blood vessel. A) Erythrocyte B) platelet C) lymphocyte D) Basophil E) Neutrophil | back 40 platelet |
front 41 Which of the following blood cells release granules that intensify the inflammatory response and promote hypersensitivity ( allergic0 reactions? A) eosinophil B) monovyte C) lymphocyte D) basophil E) neutrophil | back 41 basophil |
front 42 Which of the following blood cells are the main soldiers in the immune system defense of the body against microbial invaders A) eosinphil B) macrophase C) lymphocyte D) basophil E) platelet | back 42 lymphocyte |
front 43 The process of a while blood cell squeezing between endothelial cells to exit a blood vessel is called A) emigration B) diaphysis C) adhesion D) opsonization E) phagocytosis | back 43 emigration |
front 44 Which of the following chemical substances are NOT commonly released by mast cells? A) Heparin B) Histamine C) Nitric oxide D) proteases E) all of the choices | back 44 Nitric oxide |
front 45 Which of following correctly lists the sequence of steps that occur during hemostasis in response to a damaged blood vessel? A) vascular spasm, clotting, polycythemia B) hemolysis, vascular spasm, platelet plug formation C) emigration, clotting, hemolysis D) vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, clotting E) anemia, hemogenesis, platelet plug formation | back 45 vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, clotting |
front 46 Which of the following situations could result in maternal antibodies attacking fetal blood cells during a second pregnancy? A) Mom is Rh negative and fetus is Rh negative B) Mom is Rh negative and fetus is Rh positive C) Mom is Rh positive and fetus is Rh negative D) Mom is Rh positive and fetus is Rh positive | back 46 Mom is Rh negative and fetus is Rh positive |
front 47 Which of the following substances is an anticoagulant produced by mast cells and basophils? A) Heparin B) Fibrinogen C) Thromboxane A2 D) Prostacyclin E) Plasmin | back 47 Fibrinogen |
front 48 Ferritin is a protein used to A) transport ion in the blood B) store iron in the liver C) oxidize iron in the peroxisomes D) synthesize iron E) absorb iron across intestinal cells | back 48 store iron in the liver |
front 49 Approximately, how many hemoglobin molecules are found in each RBC A) 50 million B) 100 million C) 280 million D) 320 million E) 430 million | back 49 280 million |
front 50 A megakaryoblast will develop into A) a red blood cell B) a while blood cell C) a platelet D) either a white blood or a platelet E) none of these choices | back 50 a red blood cell |
front 51 Normal heart sounds are caused by which of the following event A) closure of the heart valves B)friction of blood against the chamber walls C)excitation of the SA node D) opening and closing of the heart valves | back 51 closure of the heart valves |
front 52 Hemorrhage with a large loss of blood causes ________. A) a lowering of blood pressure due to change in cardiac output B) a rise in blood pressure due to change in cardiac output C)no change in blood pressure but a change in respiration D) no change in blood pressure but a slower heart rate | back 52 a lowering of blood pressure due to change in cardiac output |
front 53 Which of the events below does not occur when the semilunar valves are open? A) Blood enters pulmonary arteries and the aorta. B)Ventricles are in systole. C)AV valves are closed. D)Ventricles are in diastole. | back 53 Ventricles are in diastole. |
front 54 The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall in order to ________. A) pump blood with greater pressure B) accommodate a greater volume of blood C) pump blood through a smaller valve D) expand the thoracic cage during diastole | back 54 pump blood with greater pressure |
front 55 Damage to the ________ is referred to as heart block. A) AV node B) SA node C) AV bundle D) AV valves | back 55 AV node |
front 56 Blood within the pulmonary veins returns to the ________. A) right ventricle | back 56 left atrium |
front 57 The condition where fluid compresses the heart and limits its ability to contract is called ________ A) myocardial infarction C) angina pectoris | back 57 cardiac tamponade |
front 58 The source of blood carried to capillaries in the myocardium would be the ________. A) coronary arteries C) coronary veins | back 58 coronary arteries |
front 59 The fact that the left ventricle of the heart is thicker than the right ventricle reveals that it ________. A) sends blood through a smaller valve C) pumps a greater volume of blood | back 59 pumps blood against a greater resistance |
front 60 Which of the following factors does not influence heart rate? A) gender C) body temperature | back 60 gender |
front 61 If cardiac muscle is deprived of its normal blood supply, damage would primarily result from ________. A) a lack of nutrients to feed into metabolic pathways B) a decrease in the number of available mitochondria for energy production C) an inadequate supply of lactic acid D) decreased delivery of oxygen | back 61 decreased delivery of oxygen |
front 62 A foramen ovale ________. A) is a shallow depression in the interventricular septum B) is a connection between the pulmonary trunk and the aorta in the fetus C) connects the two atria in the fetal heart D) is a condition in which the heart valves do not completely close | back 62 connects the two atria in the fetal heart |
front 63 Which vessel(s) of the heart receive(s) blood during right ventricular systole? A) pulmonary veins C) venae cavae | back 63 pulmonary trunk |
front 64 Which of the following is not part of the conduction system of the heart? A) SA node | back 64 AV Valve |
front 65 When viewing a dissected heart, it is easy to visually discern the right and left ventricles by ________. A) tracing out where the auricles connect B) finding the papillary muscles C) noticing the thickness of the ventricle walls D) locating the apex | back 65 noticing the thickness of the ventricle walls |
front 66 Select the correct statement about the heart valves. A) The tricuspid valve divides the left atrium from the left ventricle. B) Aortic and pulmonary valves control the flow of blood into the heart. C) The mitral valve separates the right atrium from the right ventricle. D) The AV valves are supported by chordae tendineae so that regurgitation of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction does not occur. | back 66 The AV valves are supported by chordae tendineae so that regurgitation of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction does not occur. |
front 67 Select the correct statement about the function of myocardial cells. A) The influx of potassium ions from extracellular sources is the initiating event in cardiac muscle contraction. B) The entire heart contracts as a unit or it does not contract at all. C) Cardiac muscle cells are innervated by sympathetic, parasympathetic, and somatic nerve fibers so that the nervous system can increase heart rate. D) The refractory period in skeletal muscle is much longer than that in cardiac muscle. | back 67 The entire heart contracts as a unit or it does not contract at all. |
front 68 Select the correct statement about cardiac output. A) Stroke volume increases if end diastolic volume decreases. B) If a semilunar valve were partially obstructed, the end systolic volume in the affected ventricle would be decreased. C) Decreased venous return will result in increased end diastolic volume. D) A slow heart rate increases end diastolic volume, stroke volume, and force of contraction. | back 68 A slow heart rate increases end diastolic volume, stroke volume, and force of contraction. |
front 69 Which of the following is not one of the three main factors influencing blood pressure? A) emotional state C) peripheral resistance | back 69 emotional state |
front 70 Which of the following chemicals does not help regulate blood pressure? A) ADH C) atrial natriuretic peptide | back 70 nitric acid |
front 71 Which statement best describes arteries? A) Only large arteries are lined with endothelium. B) All contain valves to prevent the backflow of blood. C) All carry oxygenated blood to the heart. D) All carry blood away from the heart. | back 71 All carry blood away from the heart. |
front 72 Permitting the exchange of nutrients and gases between the blood and tissue cells is the primary function of ________. A) arteries | back 72 capillaries |
front 73 The arteries that are also called distributing arteries are the ________. A) capillaries C) muscular arteries | back 73 muscular arteries |
front 74 Aldosterone will ________. A) result in a larger output of urine C) decrease sodium reabsorption | back 74 promote an increase in blood pressure |
front 75 Which of the following signs of hypovolemic shock is a relatively late sign? A) increased heart rate C) rapidly falling blood pressure | back 75 rapidly falling blood pressure |
front 76 Which of the following is true about veins? A) Up to 35% of total body blood is in venous circulation at any given time. B) Veins have a small lumen in relation to the thickness of the vessel wall. C) Venous valves are formed from the tunica media. D) Veins are called capacitance vessels or blood reservoirs. | back 76 Veins are called capacitance vessels or blood reservoirs. |
front 77 Which of the following processes provides a long-term response to changes in blood pressure? A) renal regulation C) baroreceptor-initiated reflexes | back 77 renal regulation |
front 78 Peripheral resistance ________. A) increases as blood vessel diameter increases B) decreases with increasing length of the blood vessel C) is not a major factor in blood pressure in healthy individuals D) increases as blood viscosity increases | back 78 increases as blood viscosity increases |
front 79 Which of the choices below reflects the balance (or imbalance) between the direction and amount of fluid that flows across the capillary walls? A) plasma and formed element concentration B) hydrostatic pressure only C) hydrostatic and osmotic pressure D) blood volume and viscosity | back 79 hydrostatic and osmotic pressure |
front 80 Which tunic of an artery is most responsible for maintaining blood
pressure and continuous blood circulation? C) tunica adventitia | back 80 tunica media |
front 81 Which of the following is the most significant source of blood flow resistance? A) total blood vessel length C) blood vessel diameter | back 81 blood vessel diameter |
front 82 Which of the following are involved directly in pulmonary circulation? A) right atrium, aorta, and left ventricle B) right ventricle, pulmonary artery, and left atrium C) left ventricle, aorta, and inferior vena cava D) superior vena cava, right atrium, and left ventricle | back 82 right ventricle, pulmonary artery, and left atrium |
front 83 The arteries that directly feed into the capillary beds are called ________. A) elastic arteries C) arterioles | back 83 arterioles |
front 84 Which of the following blood pressure readings would be indicative of hypertension? A) 110/60 in a 20-year-old woman C) 120/80 in a 30-year-old man | back 84 170/96 in a 50-year-old man |
front 85 A thrombus (blood clot) in the first branch of the arch of the aorta would affect the flow of blood to the ________. A) left upper arm B) myocardium of the heart C) left side of the head and neck D) right side of the head and neck and right upper arm | back 85 right side of the head and neck and right upper arm |
front 86 The baroreceptors in the carotid sinus and aortic arch are sensitive to which of the following? A) changes in arterial pressure C) an increase in oxygen levels | back 86 changes in arterial pressure |
front 87 True/False Whereas diffusion is more important for solute exchange between plasma and interstitial fluid, bulk flow is more important for regulation of the relative volumes of blood and interstitial fluid. | back 87 True |
front 88 True/False An increase in blood viscosity will cause an increase in peripheral resistance. | back 88 True |
front 89 True/False An obstruction in the superior vena cava would decrease the flow of blood from the head and neck to the heart. | back 89 True |
front 90 True/False Vasodilation is a widening of the lumen due to smooth muscle contraction. | back 90 False |
front 91 True/False Hypotension is generally considered systolic blood pressure that is below 100 mm Hg. | back 91 True |
front 92 True/False The outermost layer of a blood vessel is the tunica intima. | back 92 False |
front 93 True/False Osmotic pressure is created by the presence in a fluid of small diffusible molecules that easily move through the capillary membrane. | back 93 False |
front 94 True/False Arterial pressure in the pulmonary circulation is much higher than in the systemic circulation because of its proximity to the heart. | back 94 False |
front 95 True/False The adjustment of blood flow to each tissue in proportion to its requirements at any point in time is termed autoregulation. | back 95 True |
front 96 The mechanical and chemical receptors that control digestive activity are located ________. A) in the walls of the tract organs B) in the pons and medulla C) in the oral cavity D) in the glandular tissue that lines the organ lumen | back 96 in the walls of the tract organs |
front 97 The chemical and mechanical processes of food breakdown are called ________ A) secretion | back 97 digestion |
front 98 When we ingest large molecules such as lipids, carbohydrates, and proteins, they must undergo catabolic reactions whereby enzymes split these molecules. This series of reactions is called ________. A) mechanical digestion C) secretion | back 98 chemical digestion |
front 99 The sheets of peritoneal membrane that hold the digestive tract in place are called ________. A) serosal lining | back 99 mesenteries |
front 100 From the esophagus to the anal canal, the walls of every organ of the alimentary canal are made up of the same four basic layers. Arrange them in order from the lumen. A) submucosa, serosa, muscularis externa, and mucosa B) mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, and serosa C) muscularis externa, serosa, mucosa, and submucosa D) serosa, mucosa, submucosa, and muscularis externa | back 100 mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, and serosa |
front 101 What part of the tooth bears the force of chewing? A) cementum | back 101 enamel |
front 102 Which hormone causes an increased output of enzyme-rich pancreatic juice and stimulates gallbladder contraction to release bile? A) secretin C) gastric inhibitor peptide | back 102 cholecystokinin |
front 103 The absorptive effectiveness of the small intestine is enhanced by increasing the surface area of the mucosal lining. Which of the following accomplish this task? A) Brunner's glands and Peyer Patches C) the rugae and haustra | back 103 plicae circulares, villi, and microvilli |
front 104 The salivary glands are composed of which two types of secretory cells? A) parietal cells and glial cells B) serous cells and mucous cells C) cuboidal epithelium and ciliated columnar cells D) goblet cells and squamous epithelial cells | back 104 serous cells and mucous cells |
front 105 In addition to storage and mechanical breakdown of food, the stomach ________. A) is the first site where chemical digestion of starch takes place B) is the only place where fats are completely digested C) initiates protein digestion and denatures proteins D) is the first site where absorption takes place | back 105 initiates protein digestion and denatures proteins |
front 106 Chyme is created in the ________. A) esophagus | back 106 stomach |
front 107 Hydrochloric acid is secreted by which of the secretory cells of the stomach? A) serous cells C) parietal cells | back 107 parietal cells |
front 108 There are three phases of gastric secretion. The cephalic phase occurs ________. A) immediately after food enters the stomach, preparing the small intestine for the influx of a variety of nutrients B) when the meal is excessively high in acids and neutralization is required C) before food enters the stomach and is triggered by aroma, sight, or thought D) at the end of a large meal, and the juices secreted are powerful and remain in the GI tract for a long period of time | back 108 before food enters the stomach and is triggered by aroma, sight, or thought |
front 109 Peristaltic waves are ________. A) churning movements of the gastrointestinal tract B) segmental regions of the gastrointestinal tract C) waves of muscular contractions that propel contents from one point to another D) pendular movements of the gastrointestinal tract | back 109 waves of muscular contractions that propel contents from one point to another |
front 110 Pepsinogen, a digestive enzyme, is secreted by the ________. A) Brunner's glands C) chief cells of the stomach | back 110 chief cells of the stomach |
front 111 You have just eaten a meal high in complex carbohydrates. Which of the following enzymes will help to digest the meal? A)trypsin | back 111 amylase |
front 112 The ducts that deliver bile and pancreatic juice from the liver and pancreas, respectively, unite to form the ________. A)pancreatic acini C) bile canaliculus | back 112 hepatopancreatic ampulla |
front 113 The enzymatic breakdown of any type of food molecule is called ________. A)hydrolysis | back 113 hydrolysis |
front 114 Parietal cells of the stomach produce ________. A) hydrochloric acid C) pepsinogen | back 114 hydrochloric acid |
front 115 Which vitamin requires intrinsic factor in order to be absorbed? A) K | back 115 B12 |
front 116 Chemical digestion reduces large complex molecules to simpler compounds by the process of ________. A) fermentation | back 116 catabolism |
front 117 The function of goblet cells is to ________. A) secrete buffers in order to keep the pH of the digestive tract close to neutral B) provide protection against invading bacteria and other disease-causing organisms that enter the digestive tract in food C) absorb nutrients from digested food and store them for future use D) produce mucus that protects parts of the digestive organs from the effects of powerful enzymes needed for food digestion | back 117 produce mucus that protects parts of the digestive organs from the effects of powerful enzymes needed for food digestion |
front 118 Which of the following produce intrinsic factor? A) zymogenic cells C) mucous neck cells | back 118 parietal cells |
front 119 A fluid secreted into the small intestine during digestion that contains cholesterol, emulsification agents, and phospholipids is ________. A) intestinal juice | back 119 bile |
front 120 How are most nutrients absorbed through the mucosa of the intestinal villa? A) active transport C) facilitated diffusion | back 120 active transport |
front 121 Select the correct statement about digestive processes. A) All commonly ingested substances are significantly absorbed by the mucosa of the stomach. B) Enterogastrone is a hormone that helps increase gastric motility. C) Pepsin is an enzyme produced by the stomach for the purpose of starch digestion. D) Chyme entering the duodenum can decrease gastric motility via the enterogastric reflex. | back 121 Chyme entering the duodenum can decrease gastric motility via the enterogastric reflex. |
front 122 The mechanism that establishes the medullary osmotic gradient depends most on the permeability properties of the ________ A) collecting duct C) nephron loop | back 122 nephron loop |
front 123 An increase in the permeability of the cells of the collecting tubule to water is due to a(n) ________. A) increase in the production of ADH B) decrease in the production of ADH C) increase in the production of aldosterone D) decrease in the concentration of the blood plasma | back 123 increase in the production of ADH |
front 124 The urinary bladder is composed of ________ epithelium. A) simple squamous C) stratified squamous | back 124 transitional |
front 125 The kidneys are stimulated to produce renin ________. A) when the specific gravity of urine rises above 1.10 B) when the pH of the urine decreases C) by a decrease in the blood pressure D) when the peritubular capillaries are dilated | back 125 by a decrease in the blood pressure |
front 126 Which of the choices below is not a function of the urinary system? A) maintains blood osmolarity B) helps maintain homeostasis by controlling the composition, volume, and pressure of blood C) eliminates solid, undigested wastes and excretes carbon dioxide, water, salts, and heat D) regulates blood glucose levels and produces hormones | back 126 eliminates solid, undigested wastes and excretes carbon dioxide, water, salts, and heat |
front 127 The fatty tissue surrounding the kidneys is important because it ________. A) stabilizes the position of the kidneys by holding them in their normal position B) ensures adequate energy for the adrenal glands to operate efficiently C) is necessary as a barrier between the adrenal glands and kidneys D) produces vitamin D and other chemicals needed by the kidney | back 127 stabilizes the position of the kidneys by holding them in their normal position |
front 128 The renal corpuscle is made up of ________. A) the renal papilla C) Bowman's capsule and glomerulus | back 128 Bowman's capsule and glomerulus |
front 129 The functional and structural unit of the kidneys is the ________. A) glomerular capsule C) nephron loop | back 129 nephron |
front 130 The chief force pushing water and solutes out of the blood across the filtration membrane is ________. A) the ionic electrochemical gradient B) protein-regulated diffusion C) the size of the pores in the basement membrane of the capillaries D) glomerular hydrostatic pressure (glomerular blood pressure) | back 130 glomerular hydrostatic pressure (glomerular blood pressure) |
front 131 The mechanism of water reabsorption by the renal tubules is ________. A) osmosis C) filtration | back 131 osmosis |
front 132 Alcohol acts as a diuretic because it ________. A) is not reabsorbed by the tubule cells C) increases the rate of glomerular filtration | back 132 inhibits the release of ADH |
front 133 A disease caused by inadequate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) by the pituitary gland with symptoms of polyuria is ________. A) diabetic acidosis C) diabetes mellitus | back 133 diabetes insipidus |
front 134 Place the following in correct sequence from the formation of a drop of urine to its elimination from the body.
A) 2, 1, 3, 6, 5, 4 B) 6, 3, 2, 1, 5, 4 D)3, 1, 2, 6, 5, 4 | back 134 3, 1, 2, 6, 5, 4 |
front 135 Small organs associated with lymphatic vessels are termed ________. A) lymph nodes | back 135 lymph nodes |
front 136 Which of the following would not be classified as a lymphatic structure? A) spleen C) pancreas | back 136 pancreas |
front 137 Lymph transport involves all but which of the following? A) milking action of active muscle fibers B) thorax pressure changes during breathing C) lymph capillary minivalve action D) smooth muscle contraction in the lymph capillary walls | back 137 smooth muscle contraction in the lymph capillary walls |
front 138 The thymus is most active during ________. A) old age C) childhood | back 138 childhood |
front 139 Which lymphatic structure drains lymph from the right upper limb and the right side of the head and thorax? A) cisterna chyli C) right lymphatic duct | back 139 right lymphatic duct |
front 140 Which of the following is not a part of the lymphatic system? A) erythrocytes C) lymph | back 140 erythrocytes |
front 141 The lymphatic capillaries are ________. A) as permeable as blood capillaries C) completely impermeable | back 141 more permeable than blood capillaries |
front 142 Antibodies that act against a particular foreign substance are released by ________. A) plasma cells C) T lymphocytes | back 142 plasma cells |
front 143 Lymph leaves a lymph node via ________. A) afferent lymphatic vessels C) the subcapsular sinus | back 143 efferent lymphatic vessels |
front 144 Which cells become immunocompetent due to thymic hormones? A) lymphocytes | back 144 lymphocytes |
front 145 Select the correct statement about lymph transport. A) Lymph transport is faster than that occurring in veins. B) Lymph transport depends on the movement of adjacent tissues, such as skeletal muscles. C) Under normal conditions, lymph vessels are very high-pressure conduits. D) Lymph transport is only necessary when illness causes tissue swelling. | back 145 Lymph transport depends on the movement of adjacent tissues, such as skeletal muscles. |
front 146 Select the correct statement about lymphocytes. A) T cells are the only form of lymphocyte found in lymphoid tissue. B) T cells are the precursors of B cells. C) The two main types are T cells and macrophages. D) B cells produce plasma cells, which secrete antibodies into the blood. | back 146 B cells produce plasma cells, which secrete antibodies into the blood. |
front 147 Lymphoid tissue that appears as a swelling of the mucosa in the oral cavity is called a(n) ________. A.thymus | back 147 tonsil |
front 148 Which of the following does not contain a mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue? A) Peyer's patch | back 148 thymus |
front 149 Peyer's patches are found in the ________. A) jejunum of the small intestine C) duodenum of the small intestine | back 149 ileum of the small intestine |
front 150 Lymph capillaries are absent in all except which of the following? A) bone marrow C) CNS | back 150 digestive organs |
front 151 Large clusters of lymph nodes occur in all of the following locations except the ________. A) inguinal region C) axillary region | back 151 lower extremities |
front 152 Digestive tract-associated lymphatic tissue includes all of the following except ________. A) palatine tonsils C) Peyer's patches | back 152 islets of Langerhans |
front 153 The tonsils located at the base of the tongue are the ________. A) pharyngeal tonsils C) Peyer's tonsils | back 153 lingual tonsils |
front 154 Which of the following is not a function of the lymphatic system? A) transporting dietary fats C) carrying out immune responses | back 154 transporting respiratory gases |
front 155 Which of the following is not a function of lymph nodes? A) produce lymph fluid and cerebrospinal fluid B) produce lymphoid cells and house granular WBCs C) serve as antigen surveillance areas D) act as lymph filters and activate the immune system | back 155 produce lymph fluid and cerebrospinal fluid |
front 156 Which of the following is associated with passive immunity? A) infusion of weakened viruses B) passage of IgG antibodies from a pregnant mother to her fetus C) booster shot of vaccine D) exposure to an antigen | back 156 passage of IgG antibodies from a pregnant mother to her fetus |
front 157 Which of the following is not a type of T cell? A) regulatory | back 157 antigenic |
front 158 B lymphocytes develop immunocompetence in the ________. A) spleen | back 158 bone marrow |
front 159 Which of the following is not a function of the inflammatory response? A) sets the stage for repair processes B) disposes of cellular debris and pathogens C) replaces injured tissues with connective tissue D) prevents the spread of the injurious agent to nearby tissue | back 159 replaces injured tissues with connective tissue |
front 160 The redness and heat of an inflamed area are due to a local hyperemia caused by ________. A) complement production C) phagocyte mobilization | back 160 vasodilation |
front 161 The process whereby neutrophils and other white blood cells are attracted to an inflammatory site is called ________. A) chemotaxis | back 161 chemotaxis |
front 162 Which of the following cells predominate at the sites of chronic infections? A) Macrophages | back 162 Macrophages |
front 163 interferons ________. A) are virus-specific, so that an interferon produced against one virus could not protect cells against another virus B) are routinely used in nasal sprays for the common cold C) act by increasing the rate of cell division D) interfere with viral replication within cells | back 163 interfere with viral replication within cells |
front 164 Which of the following is a part of the second line of defense against microorganisms? A) gastric juice | back 164 phagocytes |
front 165 Phagocyte mobilization involves ________ A) diapedesis, during which cells line up against the capillary wall B) mainly neutrophil and macrophage migration into inflamed areas C) monocytes as the most active phagocyte D) margination, which is the process of white cell movement through the walls of capillaries into injured tissues | back 165 mainly neutrophil and macrophage migration into inflamed areas |
front 166 Fever ________. A) causes the liver to release large amounts of iron, which seems to inhibit bacterial replication B) is a higher-than-normal body temperature that is always dangerous C) production is regulated by chemicals that reset the body's thermostat to a higher setting D) decreases the metabolic rate of the body to conserve energy | back 166 production is regulated by chemicals that reset the body's thermostat to a higher setting |
front 167 The main site of gas exchange is the ________. A) alveolar sacs C) respiratory bronchiole | back 167 alveoli |
front 168 The loudness of a person's voice depends on the ________. A) thickness of vestibular folds B) force with which air rushes across the vocal folds C) length of the vocal folds D) strength of the intrinsic laryngeal muscles | back 168 force with which air rushes across the vocal folds |
front 169 Complete the following statement using the choices below. Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is ________. A) greater than the intra-alveolar pressure B) less than the pressure in the atmosphere C) equal to the pressure in the atmosphere D) greater than the pressure in the atmosphere | back 169 greater than the pressure in the atmosphere |
front 170 Which of the following maintains the patency (openness) of the trachea? A) surface tension of water C) C-shaped cartilage rings | back 170 C-shaped cartilage rings |
front 171 Intrapulmonary pressure is the ________. A) pressure within the pleural cavity B) difference between atmospheric pressure and respiratory pressure C) pressure within the alveoli of the lungs D) negative pressure in the intrapleural space | back 171 pressure within the alveoli of the lungs |
front 172 The relationship between gas pressure and gas volume is described by ________. A) Henry's law | back 172 Boyle's law |
front 173 The most powerful respiratory stimulus for breathing in a healthy person is ________. A) alkalosis C) acidosis | back 173 increase of carbon dioxide |
front 174 Tidal volume is air ________ A) exchanged during normal breathing B) inhaled after normal inspiration C) remaining in the lungs after forced expiration D) forcibly expelled after normal expiration | back 174 exchanged during normal breathing |
front 175 Possible causes of hypoxia include ________. A) too little oxygen in the atmosphere C) getting very cold | back 175 taking several rapid deep breaths |
front 176 Respiratory control centers are located in the ________. A) midbrain and medulla C) medulla and pons | back 176 medulla and pons |
front 177 The amount of air that can be inspired above the tidal volume is called ________. A) expiratory capacity C) inspiratory reserve | back 177 inspiratory reserve |