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3 Radreview Extremies (181)

front 1

Which of the following fracture classifications describes a small bony fragment pulled from a bony process?
A.
Avulsion fracture
B.
Torus fracture
C.
Comminuted fracture
D.
Compound fracture

back 1

A.
Avulsion fracture

front 2

To demonstrate the glenoid fossa in profile, the patient is positioned
A.
45 degrees oblique, affected side up.
B.
45 degrees oblique, affected side down.
C.
25 degrees oblique, affected side up.
D.
25 degrees oblique, affected side down.

back 2

B.
45 degrees oblique, affected side down.

front 3

Which of the following statements is (are) true with respect to the radiograph shown in Figure 2–26?

The acromion process is seen partially superimposed on the third rib.

This projection is performed to evaluate the scapula.

This projection is performed to evaluate the acromioclavicular articulation.

A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
1 and 2 only
D.
2 and 3 only
Figure 2–26.

back 3

B.
2 only

front 4

Impingement on the wrist's median nerve causing pain and disability of the affected hand and wrist is known as
A.
carpal boss syndrome
B.
carpal tunnel syndrome
C.
carpopedal syndrome
D.
radioulnar syndrome

back 4

B.
carpal tunnel syndrome

front 5

Which of the following shoulder projections can be used to evaluate the lesser tubercle in profile?
A.
External rotation position
B.
Internal rotation position
C.
Neutral rotation position
D.
Inferosuperior axial position

back 5

B.
Internal rotation position

front 6

Knee arthrography may be performed to demonstrate a
1. torn meniscus.
2. Baker's cyst.
3. torn rotator cuff.

A.
1 and 2 only
B.
1 and 3 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 6

A.
1 and 2 only

front 7

For the AP projection of the scapula, the

patient's arm is abducted at right angles to the body.

patient's elbow is flexed.

exposure is made during quiet breathing.

A.
1 and 2 only
B.
1 and 3 only
C.
3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 7

D.
1, 2, and 3

front 8

Muscles that contribute to the formation of the rotator cuff include the

1. subscapularis.

2. infraspinatus.

3. teres minor.
A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 8

D.
1, 2, and 3

front 9

In the AP projection of an asthenic patient whose knee measures less than 19 cm from the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) to tabletop, the CR should be directed
A.
perpendicularly
B.
5 degrees medially
C.
5 degrees cephalad
D.
5 degrees caudad

back 9

D.
5 degrees caudad

front 10

Which of the following statements regarding the Norgaard method, "Ball-Catcher's position," is (are) correct?

Bilateral AP oblique hands are obtained.

It is used for early detection of rheumatoid arthritis.

The hands are obliqued about 45 degrees, palm up.

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 10

D.
1, 2, and 3

front 11

Which of the following is (are) located on the proximal aspect of the humerus?

Intertubercular groove

Capitulum

Coronoid fossa

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
1 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 11

A.
1 only

front 12

The first carpometacarpal joint is formed by the articulation of the base of the first metacarpal and the
A.
distal radius.
B.
distal ulna.
C.
scaphoid.
D.
trapezium.

back 12

D.
trapezium.

front 13

A compression fracture of the posterolateral humeral head and associated with an anterior dislocation of the glenohumeral joint is called a(an)
A.
Hill-Sachs defect.
B.
Bankart lesion.
C.
rotator cuff tear.
D.
adhesive capsulitis.

back 13

A.
Hill-Sachs defect.

front 14

Use your mouse to drag the following bony parts into order (A–D) from most proximal to most distal

A. Linea aspera

B. Intertrochanteric crest

C. Popliteal surface

D. Fovea capitis

back 14

D. Fovea capitis
B. Intertrochanteric crest
A. Linea aspera
C. Popliteal surface

front 15

In the lateral projection of the knee, the central ray is angled 5° cephalad to prevent superimposition of which of the following structures on the joint space?
A.
Lateral femoral condyle
B.
Medial femoral condyle
C.
Patella
D.
Tibial eminence

back 15

B.
Medial femoral condyle

front 16

Which of the following is (are) valid evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the forearm?

The radius and the ulna should be superimposed distally.

The coronoid process and the radial head should be partially superimposed.

The humeral epicondyles should be superimposed.

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 16

D.
1, 2, and 3

front 17

n Figure 2–29, which of the following is represented by the number 7?

Figure 2–29.

A.
Medial border
B.
Lateral border
C.
Inferior angle
D.
Superior angle

back 17

B.
Lateral border

front 18

To demonstrate a profile view of the glenoid fossa, the patient is AP recumbent and obliqued 45 degrees
A.
toward the affected side
B.
away from the affected side
C.
with the arm at the side in the anatomic position
D.
with the arm in external rotation

back 18

A.
toward the affected side

front 19

Which projection of the foot will best demonstrate the longitudinal arch?
A.
Mediolateral
B.
Lateromedial
C.
Lateral weight-bearing
D.
30-degree medial oblique

back 19

C.
Lateral weight-bearing

front 20

Which of the following views would best demonstrate arthritic changes in the knees?
A.
AP recumbent
B.
Lateral recumbent
C.
AP erect
D.
Medial oblique

back 20

C.
AP erect

front 21

The intertrochanteric crest is located on the
A.
proximal posterior femur.
B.
proximal anterior femur.
C.
distal posterior femur.
D.
distal anterior femur.

back 21

A.
proximal posterior femur.

front 22

What projection was used to obtain the image seen in Figure 2–41?

Figure 2–41.
A.
AP, internal rotation
B.
AP, external rotation
C.
AP, neutral position
D.
AP axial

back 22

B.
AP, external rotation

front 23

Which of the following is (are) located on the anterior aspect of the femur?

Patellar surface

Intertrochanteric crest

Linea aspera

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 23

A.
1 only

front 24

What does the number 8 in Figure 6–14 identify?

Figure 6–14.
A.
Medial malleolus
B.
Lateral malleolus
C.
Medial cuneiform
D.
Talus

back 24

A.
Medial malleolus

front 25

In which of the following tangential axial projections of the patella is complete relaxation of the quadriceps femoris required for an accurate diagnosis?

Supine flexion 45 degrees (Merchant)

Prone flexion 90 degrees (Settegast)

Prone flexion 55 degrees (Hughston)

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3 only

back 25

A.
1 only

front 26

With the patient positioned as shown in Figure 6–13, how should the CR be directed to best demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa?

Figure 6–13.
A.
Perpendicular to the popliteal depression
B.
40 degrees caudad to the popliteal depression
C.
Perpendicular to the long axis of the femur
D.
40 degrees cephalad to the popliteal depression

back 26

B.
40 degrees caudad to the popliteal depression

front 27

To better visualize the knee-joint space in the radiograph in Figure 2–31, the radiographer should

Figure 2–31.

A.
flex the knee more acutely
B.
flex the knee less acutely
C.
angle the CR 5 to 7 degrees cephalad
D.
angle the CR 5 to 7 degrees caudad

back 27

C.
angle the CR 5 to 7 degrees cephalad

front 28

AP stress studies of the ankle may be performed

to demonstrate fractures of the distal tibia and fibula

following inversion or eversion injuries

to demonstrate a ligament tear

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 28

C.
2 and 3 only

front 29

Which position of the shoulder demonstrates the lesser tubercle in profile medially?
A.
AP
B.
External rotation
C.
Internal rotation
D.
Neutral position

back 29

C.
Internal rotation

front 30

Which of the following is recommended to better demonstrate the tarsometatarsal joints in a dorsoplantar projection of the foot?
A.
Invert the foot.
B.
Evert the foot.
C.
Angle the CR 10 degrees posteriorly.
D.
Angle the CR 10 degrees anteriorly.

back 30

C.
Angle the CR 10 degrees posteriorly.

front 31

What is the structure labeled number 5 in Figure 2–37?

Figure 2–37.
A.
Trapezium
B.
Scaphoid
C.
Ulnar styloid

back 31

D.
Radial styloid

front 32

Which of the following is (are) located on the distal aspect of the humerus?
1. Capitulum
2. Intertubercular groove
3. Coronoid fossa

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
1 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 32

C.
1 and 3 only

front 33

Which of the following is (are) valid criteria for a lateral projection of the forearm?
1. The radius and ulna should be superimposed proximally and distally.
2. The coronoid process and radial head should be superimposed.
3. The radial tuberosity should face anteriorly.

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 33

C.
2 and 3 only

front 34

Which of the following is (are) distal to the tibial plateau?

Intercondyloid fossa

Tibial condyles

Tibial tuberosity

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 34

C.
2 and 3 only

front 35

Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint?
1. Scapular Y projection
2. Inferosuperior axial
3. Transthoracic lateral

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 35

D.
1, 2, and 3

front 36

All the following can be associated with the elbow joint except
A.
the capitulum.
B.
the trochlea.
C.
the tubercles.
D.
the epicondyles.

back 36

C.
the tubercles.

front 37

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the radiograph in Figure 2–12?

Figure 2–12.

The patient is placed in an RAO position.

The midcoronal plane is about 60 degrees to the IR.

The acromion process is free of superimposition.

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 37

D.
1, 2, and 3

front 38

The tarsals and metatarsals are arranged to form the
1. transverse arch.
2. longitudinal arch.
3. oblique arch.

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 38

B.
1 and 2 only

front 39

In Figure 2–29, which of the following is represented by the number 3?

Figure 2–29.
A.
Acromion process
B.
Scapular spine
C.
Coracoid process
D.
Acromioclavicular joint

back 39

A.
Acromion process

front 40

Movement of a part toward the midline of the body is termed
A.
eversion
B.
inversion
C.
abduction
D.
adduction

back 40

D.
adduction

front 41

The following procedure can be employed to better demonstrate the carpal scaphoid:
1. elevate hand and wrist 20°.
2. place wrist in ulnar deviation.
3. angle CR 20° distally (toward fingers).

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
1 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 41

B.
1 and 2 only

front 42

Which of the following correctly identifies the radial styloid process in the illustration in Figure A?
Figure A. Reproduced with permission from Saia DA. Radiography: Program Review and Examination Preparation, 2nd ed. Stamford, CT: Appleton & Lange, 1999.
A.
Number 1
B.
Number 4
C.
Number 10
D.
Number 11

back 42

D.
Number 11

front 43

Which of the following is an important consideration to avoid excessive metacarpal joint overlap in the oblique projection of the hand?
A.
Oblique the hand no more than 45 degrees.
B.
Use a support sponge for the phalanges.
C.
Clench the fist to bring the carpals closer to the IR.
D.
Use ulnar flexion.

back 43

A.
Oblique the hand no more than 45 degrees.

front 44

Standard radiographic protocols may be reduced to include two views, at right angles to each other, in which of the following situations?
A.
Barium examinations
B.
Spine radiography
C.
Skull radiography
D.
Emergency and trauma radiography

back 44

D.
Emergency and trauma radiography

front 45

Which of the following is used to obtain a lateral projection of the upper humerus on patients who are unable to abduct their arm?
A.
Bicipital groove projection
B.
Superoinferior lateral
C.
Inferosuperior axial
D.
Transthoracic lateral

back 45

D.
Transthoracic lateral

front 46

Examples of synovial pivot articulations include the

atlantoaxial joint

radioulnar joint

temporomandibular joint

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3 only

back 46

B.
1 and 2 only

front 47

The best projection to demonstrate the articular surfaces of the femoropatellar articulation is the
A.
AP knee.
B.
PA knee.
C.
tangential ("sunrise") projection.
D.
tunnel view.

back 47

C.
tangential ("sunrise") projection.

front 48

Which of the following anatomic structures is indicated by the number 2 in Figure 2–7?

Figure 2–7.
A.
medial epicondyle
B.
trochlea
C.
capitulum
D.
olecranon process

back 48

D.
olecranon process

front 49

What is the structure labeled number 2 in Figure 2–37?

Figure 2–37.

A.
Base of the 2nd metacarpal
B.
Pisiform
C.
Trapezium
D.
Trapezoid

back 49

C.
Trapezium

front 50

Which surface of the forearm must be adjacent to the IR to obtain a lateral projection of the fourth finger with optimal recorded detail?
A.
Anterior
B.
Posterior
C.
Medial
D.
Lateral

back 50

C.
Medial

front 51

The structure labeled number 4 in Figure 2–41 is the

Figure 2–41.
A.
acromion process
B.
coracoid process
C.
coronoid process
D.
glenoid process

back 51

B.
coracoid process

front 52

In the lateral projection of the scapula, the

vertebral and axillary borders are superimposed.

acromion and coracoid processes are superimposed.

inferior angle is superimposed on the ribs.

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
1 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 52

A.
1 only

front 53

The term that refers to parts away from the source or beginning is
A.
cephalad
B.
proximal
C.
distal
D.
lateral

back 53

C.
distal

front 54

Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the proximal tibiofibular articulation?
A.
AP
B.
90 degrees mediolateral
C.
45-degree internal rotation
D.
45-degree external rotation

back 54

C.
45-degree internal rotation

front 55

Ulnar deviation will best demonstrate which carpal(s)?

Medial carpals

Lateral carpals

Scaphoid

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 55

C.
2 and 3 only

front 56

All the following can be associated with the distal radius except
A.
head.
B.
styloid process.
C.
ulnar notch.
D.
radioulnar joint.

back 56

A.
head.

front 57

What is the best position/projection to demonstrate the longitudinal arch of the foot?
A.
Mediolateral
B.
Lateromedial
C.
Mediolateral weight-bearing lateral
D.
Lateromedial weight-bearing lateral

back 57

D.
Lateromedial weight-bearing lateral

front 58

Tangential axial projections of the patella can be obtained in which of the following positions?
1. supine flexion 45° (Merchant)
2. prone flexion 90° (Settegast)
3. prone flexion 55° (Hughston)

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3 only

back 58

D.
1, 2, and 3 only

front 59

The term varus refers to
A.
turned outward
B.
turned inward
C.
rotated medially
D.
rotated laterally

back 59

B.
turned inward

front 60

All the following structures are associated with the posterior femur except
A.
popliteal surface
B.
intercondyloid fossa
C.
intertrochanteric line
D.
linea aspera

back 60

C.
intertrochanteric line

front 61

Which of the following articulates with the base of the first metatarsal?
A.
First cuneiform
B.
Third cuneiform
C.
Navicular
D.
Cuboid

back 61

A.
First cuneiform

front 62

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the images shown in Figure 2–33?

Figure 2–33A&B.

Image A is positioned in internal rotation.

Image B is positioned in internal rotation.

The greater tubercle is better demonstrated in image A.

A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
1 and 3 only
D.
2 and 3 only

back 62

D.
2 and 3 only

front 63

Which of the following projection(s) require(s) that the shoulder be placed in internal rotation?
1. AP humerus
2. Lateral forearm
3. Lateral humerus

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 63

C.
3 only

front 64

Which of the following articulations may be described as diarthrotic?

Knee

Intervertebral joints

Temporomandibular joint (TMJ)

A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
1 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 64

C.
1 and 3 only

front 65

Which of the labeled bones in Figure 6–14 identifies the tarsal navicular?

Figure 6–14.
A.
Number 2
B.
Number 3
C.
Number 6
D.
Number 7

back 65

C.
Number 6

front 66

Valid evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the forearm requires that

the epicondyles be parallel to the IR.

the radius and ulna be superimposed distally.

the radial tuberosity should face anteriorly.

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 66

C.
2 and 3 only

front 67

To demonstrate the entire circumference of the radial head, the required exposure(s) must include

epicondyles perpendicular to the IP

hand pronated

hand supinated as much as possible

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
1 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 67

A.
1 only

front 68

Which of the following correctly identifies the head of the ulna in the illustration in Figure 6–22?

Figure 6–22.
A.
Number 3
B.
Number 4
C.
Number 5
D.
Number 9

back 68

D.
Number 9

front 69

Demonstration of the posterior fat pad on the lateral projection of the adult elbow can be caused by

trauma or other pathology

greater than 90-degree flexion

less than 90-degree flexion

A.
1 only
B.
3 only
C.
1 and 2 only
D.
1 and 3 only

back 69

D.
1 and 3 only

front 70

All the following are posterior structures except
A.
the linea aspera.
B.
the intertrochanteric line.
C.
the popliteal surface.
D.
the intercondyloid fossa.

back 70

B.
the intertrochanteric line.

front 71

With which of the following does the trapezium articulate?
A.
Fifth metacarpal
B.
First metacarpal
C.
Distal radius
D.
Distal ulna

back 71

B.
First metacarpal

front 72

Which of the following is proximal to the carpal bones?
A.
Distal interphalangeal joints
B.
Proximal interphalangeal joints
C.
Metacarpals
D.
Radial styloid process

back 72

D.
Radial styloid process

front 73

Which of the following projections of the elbow should demonstrate the coronoid process free of superimposition and the olecranon process within the olecranon fossa?
A.
AP
B.
Lateral
C.
Medial oblique
D.
Lateral oblique

back 73

C.
Medial oblique

front 74

Which of the following are components of a trimalleolar fracture?

Fractured lateral malleolus

Fractured medial malleolus

Fractured posterior tibia

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 3 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 74

D.
1, 2, and 3

front 75

Which of the following projections require(s) that the humeral epicondyles be perpendicular to the IR?

AP humerus

Lateral forearm

Internal rotation shoulder

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 75

C.
2 and 3 only

front 76

In the AP projection of the ankle, the

plantar surface of the foot is vertical.

fibula projects more distally than the tibia.

calcaneus is well visualized.

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 76

B.
1 and 2 only

front 77

Which of the following correctly identifies the letter T in the radiograph shown in Figure 7–13?

Figure 7–13.
A.
Gliding joint
B.
Pivot joint
C.
Diarthrotic joint
D.
Amphiarthrotic joint

back 77

C.
Diarthrotic joint

front 78

The fifth metacarpal is located on which aspect of the hand?
A.
Medial
B.
Lateral
C.
Radial
D.
Volar

back 78

A.
Medial

front 79

Identify the structure labeled 1 in the AP projection of the knee shown in Figure 2–16.

Figure 2–16

A.
Lateral condyle
B.
Lateral epicondyle
C.
Medial condyle
D.
Medial epicondyle

back 79

D.
Medial epicondyle

front 80

Which of the following should be demonstrated in a true AP projection of the clavicle?

Clavicular body

Acromioclavicular joint

Sternocostal joint

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 80

B.
1 and 2 only

front 81

Which of the following is most useful for bone age evaluation?
A.
Lateral skull
B.
PA chest
C.
AP pelvis
D.
PA hand

back 81

D.
PA hand

front 82

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back 82

D.
Radial notch

front 83

All the following can be associated with the distal ulna except
A.
head.
B.
radioulnar joint.
C.
styloid process.
D.
trochlear notch.

back 83

D.
trochlear notch.

front 84

When examining a patient whose elbow is in partial flexion,
A.
the AP projection requires two separate positions and exposures.
B.
the AP projection is made through the partially flexed elbow, resting on the olecranon process, CR perpendicular to IR.
C.
the AP projection is made through the partially flexed elbow, resting on the olecranon process, CR parallel to the humerus.
D.
the AP projection is eliminated from the routine.

back 84

A.
the AP projection requires two separate positions and exposures.

front 85

A patient unable to extend his or her arm is seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 90 degrees. The CR is directed 45 degrees medially. Which of the following structures will be demonstrated best?

Radial head

Capitulum

Coronoid process

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 85

B.
1 and 2 only

front 86

Which of the following projections/positions would best demonstrate structure number 6 seen in Figure 7–7?

Figure 7–7.
A.
PA projection
B.
Lateral projection
C.
AP external oblique
D.
AP internal oblique

back 86

B.
Lateral projection

front 87

The AP oblique projection (medial rotation) of the elbow demonstrates which of the following?
1. Radial head free of superimposition
2. Olecranon process within the olecranon fossa
3. Coronoid process free of superimposition

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 87

C.
2 and 3 only

front 88

Evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the humerus include

epicondyles parallel to the IR

lesser tubercle in profile

superimposed epicondyles

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 3 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 88

C.
2 and 3 only

front 89

In which of the following projections is the talofibular joint best demonstrated?
A.
AP
B.
Lateral oblique
C.
Medial oblique
D.
Lateral

back 89

C.
Medial oblique

front 90

In the 45-degree medial oblique projection of the ankle, the

talotibial joint is visualized

tibiofibular joint is visualized

plantar surface should be vertical

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 90

C.
2 and 3 only

front 91

What is the structure indicated by the letter A in Figure 7–3?

Figure 7–3.
A.
greater tubercle
B.
coronoid process
C.
coracoid process
D.
acromion process

back 91

D.
acromion process

front 92

The secondary center of ossification in long bones is the
A.
diaphysis
B.
epiphysis
C.
metaphysis
D.
apophysis

back 92

B.
epiphysis

front 93

Posterior displacement of a tibial fracture would be best demonstrated in the
A.
AP projection.
B.
lateral projection.
C.
medial oblique projection.
D.
lateral oblique projection.

back 93

B.
lateral projection.

front 94

What could be done to improve the mediolateral projection of the knee seen in Figure 2–3?

Figure 2–3.
A.
Rotate the pelvis slightly forward/anteriorly.
B.
Rotate the pelvis slightly backward/posteriorly.
C.
Angle the x-ray tube 5 degrees cephalad.
D.
Angle the x-ray tube 5 degrees caudad.

back 94

B.
Rotate the pelvis slightly backward/posteriorly.

front 95

Synovial fluid is associated with the
A.
brain.
B.
spinal canal.
C.
peritoneal cavity.
D.
bony articulations.

back 95

D.
bony articulations.

front 96

Adult orthoroentgenography, or radiographic measurement of long bones of an upper or lower extremity, requires which of the following accessories?

Bell-Thompson scale

Bucky tray

Cannula

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
1 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 96

B.
1 and 2 only

front 97

What is the anatomic structure indicated by number 3 in the radiograph in Figure 6–20?

Figure 6–20.
A.
Mandibular angle
B.
Coronoid process
C.
Zygomatic arch
D.
Maxillary sinus

back 97

B.
Coronoid process

front 98

Which of the following articulations participate(s) in formation of the ankle mortise?

Talotibial

Talocalcaneal

Talofibular

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 3 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
3 only

back 98

B.
1 and 3 only

front 99

In a lateral projection of the normal knee, the

fibular head should be somewhat superimposed on the proximal tibia.

patellofemoral joint should be visualized.

femoral condyles should be superimposed.

A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
1 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 99

D.
1, 2, and 3

front 100

A lateral projection of the hand in extension is often recommended to evaluate

a fracture

a foreign body

soft tissue

A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1 and 3 only

back 100

C.
2 and 3 only

front 101

Which of the following positions will separate the radial head, neck, and tuberosity from superimposition on the ulna?
A.
AP
B.
Lateral
C.
Medial oblique
D.
Lateral oblique

back 101

D.
Lateral oblique

front 102

Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the tarsal navicular free of superimposition?
A.
AP oblique, medial rotation
B.
AP oblique, lateral rotation
C.
Mediolateral
D.
Lateral weight-bearing

back 102

A.
AP oblique, medial rotation

front 103

The primary center of ossification in long bones is the
A.
diaphysis.
B.
epiphysis.
C.
metaphysis.
D.
apophysis

back 103

A.
diaphysis

front 104

What is the most superior structure of the scapula?
A.
Apex
B.
Acromion process
C.
Coracoid process
D.
Superior angle

back 104

B.
Acromion process

front 105

Which of the following projections is most likely to demonstrate the carpal pisiform free of superimposition?
A.
Radial flexion/deviation
B.
Ulnar flexion/deviation
C.
AP (medial) oblique
D.
AP (lateral) oblique

back 105

C.
AP (medial) oblique

front 106

In which projection of the foot are the sinus tarsi, cuboid, and tuberosity of the fifth metatarsal best demonstrated?
A.
Lateral oblique foot
B.
Medial oblique foot
C.
Lateral foot
D.
Weight-bearing foot

back 106

B.
Medial oblique foot

front 107

Which of the following statements regarding the scapular Y projection of the shoulder is (are) true?

The midsagittal plane should be about 60 degrees to the IR.

The scapular borders should be superimposed on the humeral shaft.

An oblique projection of the shoulder is obtained.

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 107

C.
2 and 3 only

front 108

When examining a patient whose elbow is in partial flexion, how should an AP projection be obtained?

With humerus parallel to IR, CR perpendicular

With forearm parallel to IR, CR perpendicular

Through the partially flexed elbow, resting on the olecranon process, CR perpendicular

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 108

B.
1 and 2 only

front 109

Which of the following projections require(s) that the shoulder be placed in external rotation?

AP humerus

Lateral forearm

Lateral humerus

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 109

A.
1 only

front 110

The secondary center of ossification in long bones is the
A.
periosteum.
B.
endosteum.
C.
epiphysis.
D.
diaphysis.

back 110

C.
epiphysis.

front 111

With the patient seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 80 degrees, and the CR directed 45 degrees laterally from the shoulder to the elbow joint, which of the following structures will be demonstrated best?
A.
Radial head
B.
Ulnar head
C.
Coronoid process
D.
Olecranon process

back 111

C.
Coronoid process

front 112

Figure A was made in which of the following positions?
Figure A. Reproduced with permission from Saia DA. Radiography: Program Review and Examination Preparation, 2nd ed. Stamford, CT: Appleton & Lange, 1999.
A.
AP
B.
Medial oblique
C.
Lateral oblique
D.
Partial flexion

back 112

C.
Lateral oblique

front 113

To evaluate the interphalangeal joints in the oblique and lateral positions, the fingers
A.
rest on the cassette for immobilization
B.
must be supported parallel to the IR
C.
are radiographed in natural flexion
D.
are radiographed in palmar flexion

back 113

B.
must be supported parallel to the IR

front 114

What process is best seen using a perpendicular CR with the elbow in acute flexion and with the posterior aspect of the humerus adjacent to the image receptor?
A.
Coracoid
B.
Coronoid
C.
Olecranon
D.
Glenoid

back 114

C.
Olecranon

front 115

In which of the following positions/projections will the talocalcaneal joint be visualized?
A.
Dorsoplantar projection of the foot
B.
Plantodorsal projection of the os calcis
C.
Medial oblique position of the foot
D.
Lateral foot

back 115

B.
Plantodorsal projection of the os calcis

front 116

Which of the following articulate(s) with the bases of the metatarsals?

The heads of the first row of phalanges

The cuboid

The cuneiforms

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 116

C.
2 and 3 only

front 117

All elbow fat pads are best demonstrated in which position?
A.
AP
B.
Lateral
C.
Acute flexion
D.
AP partial flexion

back 117

B.
Lateral

front 118

Which of the following criteria is (are) required for visualization of the greater tubercle in profile?
1. Epicondyles parallel to the IR
2. Arm in external rotation
3. Humerus in AP position

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 3 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 118

D.
1, 2, and 3

front 119

The tissue that occupies the central cavity within the shaft of a long bone in an adult is
A.
red marrow
B.
yellow marrow
C.
cortical tissue
D.
cancellous tissue

back 119

B.
yellow marrow

front 120

Which of the following articulates with the base of the fifth metatarsal?
A.
First cuneiform
B.
Third cuneiform
C.
Navicular
D.
Cuboid

back 120

D.
Cuboid

front 121

In which of the following projections was the image in Figure 2–7 made?

Figure 2–7.

A.
AP
B.
medial oblique
C.
lateral oblique
D.
acute flexion

back 121

B.
medial oblique

front 122

Which of the following positions would be the best choice for a right shoulder examination to rule out fracture?
A.
Internal and external rotation
B.
AP and tangential
C.
AP and AP axial
D.
AP and scapular Y

back 122

D.
AP and scapular Y

front 123

What should be done to better demonstrate the coracoid process shown in Figure 2–22?

Figure 2–22.
A.
Use a perpendicular CR.
B.
Angle the CR about 30 degrees cephalad.
C.
Angle the CR about 30 degrees caudad.
D.
Angle the MSP 15 degrees toward the affected side.

back 123

B.
Angle the CR about 30 degrees cephalad.

front 124

In which type of fracture are the splintered ends of bone forced through the skin?
A.
Closed
B.
Compound
C.
Compression
D.
Depressed

back 124

B.
Compound

front 125

Which of the following projections of the ankle would best demonstrate the distal tibiofibular joint?
A.
Medial oblique 15° to 20°
B.
Lateral oblique 15° to 20°
C.
Medial oblique 45°
D.
Lateral oblique 45°

back 125

C.
Medial oblique 45°

front 126

Which of the following projections of the elbow should demonstrate the radial head free of ulnar superimposition?
A.
AP
B.
Lateral
C.
Medial oblique
D.
Lateral oblique

back 126

D.
Lateral oblique

front 127

The radiograph shown in Figure 7–12 can be produced with the

Figure 7–12.
long axis of the plantar surface perpendicular to the IR

CR 40 degrees cephalad to the base of the third metatarsal

CR 20 degrees cephalad to the talotibial joint

A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
1 and 2 only
D.
1 and 3 only

back 127

C.
1 and 2 only

front 128

Which of the following is (are) true regarding radiographic examination of the acromioclavicular joints?

The procedure is performed in the erect position.

Use of weights can improve demonstration of the joints.

The procedure should be avoided if dislocation or separation is suspected.

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
1 and 3 only
D.
2 and 3 only

back 128

B.
1 and 2 only

front 129

All of the following statements regarding the inferosuperior axial (nontrauma, Lawrence method) projection of the shoulder are true, except
A.
the coracoid process and lesser tubercle are seen in profile.
B.
the arm is abducted about 90° from the body.
C.
the arm should be in internal rotation.
D.
the CR is directed medially 25° to 30° through the axilla.

back 129

C.
the arm should be in internal rotation.

front 130

The scapula shown in Figure 2–29 demonstrates

Figure 2–29.
its posterior aspect

its costal surface

its sternal articular surface

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
1 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 130

A.
1 only

front 131

A spontaneous fracture most likely would be associated with
A.
pathology.
B.
crepitus.
C.
trauma.
D.
metabolism.

back 131

A.
pathology.

front 132

Use your mouse to drag the following structures into order (A–D) from medial to lateral.

A. Coracoid process

B. Scapular notch

C. Acromion process

D. Vertebral border

back 132

D. Vertebral border
B. Scapular notch
A. Coracoid process
C. Acromion process

front 133

All of the following bones are associated with condyles except the
A.
femur.
B.
tibia.
C.
fibula.
D.
mandible.

back 133

C.
fibula.

front 134

Which of the following can be used to demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa?

Prone, knee flexed 40 degrees, CR directed caudad 40 degrees to the popliteal fossa

Supine, IR under flexed knee, CR directed cephalad to knee, perpendicular to tibia

Prone, patella parallel to IR, heel rotated 5 to 10 degrees lateral, CR perpendicular to knee joint

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 134

B.
1 and 2 only

front 135

Cells concerned with the formation and repair of bone are
A.
osteoblasts.
B.
osteoclasts.
C.
osteomas.
D.
osteons.

back 135

A.
osteoblasts.

front 136

An axiolateral inferosuperior projection of the femoral neck is particularly useful
1. when the "cross-table" axiolateral is contraindicated.
2. for patients with bilateral hip fractures.
3. for patients with limited movement of the unaffected leg.

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
1 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 136

D.
1, 2, and 3

front 137

Which of the following indicates the scapular costal surface seen in Figure 7–3?

Figure 7–3.
A.
D
B.
H
C.
K
D.
M

back 137

C.
K

front 138

In which position of the shoulder is the greater tubercle seen superimposed on the humeral head?
A.
AP
B.
External rotation
C.
Internal rotation
D.
Neutral position

back 138

C.
Internal rotation

front 139

The radiograph shown in Figure 2–15 demonstrates the articulation between the

Figure 2–15.
talus and the calcaneus

calcaneus and the cuboid

talus and the navicular

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 139

C.
2 and 3 only

front 140

Which of the following is (are) accurate positioning or evaluation criteria for an AP projection of the normal knee?

Femorotibial interspaces equal bilaterally.

Patella superimposed on distal tibia.

CR enters 1/2 in. distal to base of patella.

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
1 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 140

A.
1 only

front 141

In the lateral projection of the ankle, the

talotibial joint is visualized.

talofibular joint is visualized.

tibia and fibula are superimposed.

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
1 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 141

C.
1 and 3 only

front 142

Medial displacement of a tibial fracture would be best demonstrated in the
A.
AP projection
B.
lateral projection
C.
medial oblique projection
D.
lateral oblique projection

back 142

A.
AP projection

front 143

Which of the following projections or positions will best demonstrate subacromial or subcoracoid dislocation?
A.
Tangential
B.
AP axial
C.
Transthoracic lateral
D.
PA oblique scapular Y

back 143

D.
PA oblique scapular Y

front 144

Which of the following conditions is limited specifically to the tibial tuberosity?
A.
Ewing sarcoma
B.
Osgood–Schlatter disease
C.
Gout
D.
Exostosis

back 144

B.
Osgood–Schlatter disease

front 145

Which of the following correctly identifies the letter L in the radiograph shown in Figure 7–13?

Figure 7–13.
A.
Hamate
B.
Lunate
C.
Scaphoid
D.
Trapezium

back 145

B.
Lunate

front 146

Which of the following projections will best demonstrate acromioclavicular separation?
A.
AP recumbent, affected shoulder
B.
AP recumbent, both shoulders
C.
AP erect, affected shoulder
D.
AP erect, both shoulders

back 146

D.
AP erect, both shoulders

front 147

Which of the following positions is used to demonstrate vertical patellar fractures and the patellofemoral articulation?
A.
AP knee
B.
Lateral knee
C.
Tangential patella
D.
Tunnel view

back 147

C.
Tangential patella

front 148

Important considerations for radiographic examinations of traumatic injuries to the upper extremity include

the joint closest to the injured site should be supported during movement of the limb.

both joints must be included in long bone studies.

two views, at 90 degrees to each other, are required.

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 148

C.
2 and 3 only

front 149

Which of the following projections of the ankle would best demonstrate the mortise?
A.
Medial oblique 15 to 20 degrees
B.
Lateral oblique 15 to 20 degrees
C.
Medial oblique 45 degrees
D.
Lateral oblique 45 degrees

back 149

A.
Medial oblique 15 to 20 degrees

front 150

In the 15° medial oblique projection of the ankle, the
1. tibiofibular joint is visualized.
2. talotibial joint is visualized.
3. malleoli demonstrated in profile.

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 150

C.
2 and 3 only

front 151

With which of the following does the lateral extremity of the clavicle articulate?
A.
Manubrium
B.
Coracoid process
C.
Coronoid process
D.
Acromion process

back 151

D.
Acromion process

front 152

How can OID be reduced for a PA projection of the wrist?
A.
Extend the fingers.
B.
Flex the metacarpophalangeal joints.
C.
Extend the forearm.
D.
Oblique the metacarpals 45 degrees.

back 152

B.
Flex the metacarpophalangeal joints.

front 153

Which of the labeled bones in Figure A identifies the tarsal navicular?
A.
Number 2
B.
Number 3
C.
Number 6
D.
Number 7

back 153

C.
Number 6

front 154

The structure labeled number 5 in Figure 2–41 is the

Figure 2–41.
A.
sternoclavicular joint
B.
acromioclavicular joint
C.
glenohumeral joint
D.
acromiohumeral joint

back 154

C.
glenohumeral joint

front 155

Which of the following articulations participate in the formation of the elbow joint?

1. Between the humeral trochlea and the semilunar/trochlear notch

2. Between the capitulum and the radial head

3. The proximal radioulnar joint
A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 155

D.
1, 2, and 3

front 156

With the patient and the x-ray tube positioned as illustrated in Figure 2–2, which of the following will be visualized?

Figure 2–2.
Intercondyloid fossa

Patellofemoral articulation

Tangential patella

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 156

C.
2 and 3 only

front 157

For an AP projection of the knee on a patient whose measurement from ASIS to tabletop is 21 cm, which CR direction will best demonstrate the knee joint?
A.
5 degrees caudad
B.
10 degrees caudad
C.
5 degrees cephalad
D.
0 degrees (perpendicular)

back 157

D.
0 degrees (perpendicular)

front 158

What is the name of the structure indicated as number 5 in Figure 7–7?

Figure 7–7.
A.
Coronoid fossa
B.
Coracoid fossa
C.
Olecranon fossa
D.
Trochlear/semilunar notch

back 158

C.
Olecranon fossa

front 159

Which of the following bones participate(s) in the formation of the knee joint?

Femur

Tibia

Patella

A.
1 and 2 only
B.
1 and 3 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 159

A.
1 and 2 only

front 160

The bone labeled number 3 in Figure 7–15 is the

Figure 7–15.
A.
talus
B.
cuboid
C.
navicular
D.
lateral cuneiform

back 160

B.
cuboid

front 161

The functions of which body system include mineral homeostasis, protection, and triglyceride storage?
A.
Endocrine
B.
Integumentary
C.
Skeletal
D.
Muscular

back 161

C.
Skeletal

front 162

The greater tubercle should be visualized in profile in which of the following?
A.
AP shoulder, external rotation
B.
AP shoulder, internal rotation
C.
AP elbow
D.
Lateral elbow

back 162

A.
AP shoulder, external rotation

front 163

Skeletal conditions characterized by faulty bone calcification include
1. osteoarthritis.
2. osteomalacia.
3. rickets.

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 163

C.
2 and 3 only

front 164

The mediolateral projection of the knee shown in Figure 6–1 could best be improved by

Figure 6–1.
A.
rotating the patient forward
B.
rotating the patient backward
C.
angling the central ray (CR) about 5 degrees caudad
D.
angling the CR about 5 degrees cephalad

back 164

D.
angling the CR about 5 degrees cephalad

front 165

Use your mouse to drag the following bony structures into order (A–D) from lateral to medial.

A. Trapezoid

B. Capitate

C. Hamate

D. Trapezium

back 165

D. Trapezium
A. Trapezoid
B. Capitate
C. Hamate

front 166

Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint?

Scapular Y projection

Inferosuperior axial

Transthoracic lateral

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 166

D.
1, 2, and 3

front 167

The carpal scaphoid can be demonstrated in which of the following projection(s) of the wrist?

PA oblique

PA with radial flexion

PA with elbow elevated 20 degrees

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
1 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 167

A.
1 only

front 168

In the lateral projection of the foot, the

plantar surface should be perpendicular to the IR.

metatarsals are superimposed.

talofibular joint should be visualized.

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 168

B.
1 and 2 only

front 169

Which of the following is (are) associated with a Colles' fracture?

Transverse fracture of the radial head

Chip fracture of the ulnar styloid

Posterior or backward displacement

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 3 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 169

C.
2 and 3 only

front 170

To obtain an exact axial projection of the clavicle, place the patient
A.
supine and angle the central ray 30° caudally.
B.
prone and angle the central ray 30° cephalad.
C.
supine and angle the central ray 15° cephalad.
D.
in a lordotic position and direct the central ray at right angles to the coronal plane of the clavicle

back 170

D.
in a lordotic position and direct the central ray at right angles to the coronal plane of the clavicle.

front 171

In which projection of the foot are the interspaces between the first and second cuneiforms best demonstrated?
A.
Lateral oblique foot
B.
Medial oblique foot
C.
Lateral foot
D.
Weight-bearing foot

back 171

A.
Lateral oblique foot

front 172

The coronoid process should be visualized in profile in which of the following positions?
A.
Scapular Y
B.
AP scapula
C.
Medial oblique elbow
D.
Lateral oblique elbow

back 172

C.
Medial oblique elbow

front 173

Which of the following statements regarding the radiograph in Figure A is (are) true?
1. The tibial eminences are well visualized.
2. The intercondyloid fossa is demonstrated between the femoral condyles.
3. The femorotibial articulation is well demonstrated.

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
1 and 3 only
D.
2 and 3 only

back 173

C.
1 and 3 only

front 174

What projection of the os calsis is obtained with the leg extended, the plantar surface of the foot vertical and perpendicular to the IR, and the CR directed 40 degrees cephalad?
A.
Axial plantodorsal projection
B.
Axial dorsoplantar projection
C.
Lateral projection
D.
Weight-bearing lateral projection

back 174

A.
Axial plantodorsal projection

front 175

Which of the following projections is most likely to demonstrate the carpal pisiform free of superimposition?
A.
Radial flexion/deviation
B.
Ulnar flexion/deviation
C.
AP (medial) oblique
D.
AP (lateral) oblique

back 175

C.
AP (medial) oblique

front 176

Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the carpal scaphoid?
A.
Lateral wrist
B.
Ulnar flexion/deviation
C.
Radial flexion/deviation
D.
Carpal tunnel

back 176

B.
Ulnar flexion/deviation

front 177

With the patient positioned as illustrated in Figure 2–20, which of the following structures is best demonstrated?

Figure 2–20.
A.
Patella
B.
Patellofemoral articulation
C.
Intercondyloid fossa
D.
Tibial tuberosity

back 177

C.
Intercondyloid fossa

front 178

In which of the following positions can the sesamoid bones of the foot be demonstrated to be free of superimposition with the metatarsals or phalanges?
A.
Dorsoplantar metatarsals/toes
B.
Tangential metatarsals/toes
C.
30-degree medial oblique foot
D.
30-degree lateral oblique foot

back 178

B.
Tangential metatarsals/toes

front 179

What portion of the humerus articulates with the ulna to help form the elbow joint?
A.
Semilunar/trochlear notch
B.
Radial head
C.
Capitulum
D.
Trochlea

back 179

D.
Trochlea

front 180

Which of the following is most likely to be the correct routine for a radiographic examination of the forearm?
A.
PA and medial oblique
B.
AP and lateral oblique
C.
PA and lateral
D.
AP and lateral

back 180

D.
AP and lateral

front 181

An AP oblique (lateral rotation) of the elbow demonstrates which of the following?

Radial head free of superimposition

Capitulum of the humerus

Olecranon process within the olecranon fossa

A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3

back 181

B.
1 and 2 only