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Summer Immuno Lecture 1

front 1

A newborn’s intact skin and mucosal surfaces prevent pathogen entry before immune cells are activated. Which immune defense line is being tested?
A. Adaptive immunity
B. Innate immunity
C. Physical barriers
D. Plasma antibodies

back 1

C. Physical barriers

front 2

A patient with a splinter develops rapid neutrophil and macrophage activity before antigen-specific lymphocytes expand. Which defense line is primarily active?
A. Innate immune system
B. Adaptive immune system
C. Physical barrier system
D. Humoral memory system

back 2

A. Innate immune system

front 3

A vaccine generates antigen-specific lymphocyte memory that improves future responses. Which defense line does this represent?
A. Physical barriers
B. Innate immunity
C. Monocyte circulation
D. Adaptive immunity

back 3

D. Adaptive immunity

front 4

The immune system is broadly divided into which two major groups?
A. Humoral and cellular
B. Innate and adaptive
C. Monocytes and lymphocytes
D. Plasma and tissue

back 4

B. Innate and adaptive

front 5

A macrophage surrounds a bacterium and traps it inside an intracellular pouch before digestion. What is the pouch called?
A. Lysosome
B. Endosome
C. Phagosome
D. Peroxisome

back 5

C. Phagosome

front 6

A macrophage internalizes a bacterium, then the bacterium-containing vesicle fuses with an enzyme-rich organelle. Which organelle fuses with it?
A. Ribosome
B. Golgi body
C. Nucleus
D. Lysosome

back 6

D. Lysosome

front 7

A macrophage engulfs a fungal particle and digests it after vesicle fusion with destructive enzymes. What is this overall process called?
A. Phagocytosis
B. Chemotaxis
C. Opsonization
D. Exocytosis

back 7

A. Phagocytosis

front 8

A hematopoietic stem cell divides into two daughter cells. One differentiates, while the other remains a stem cell. What property is demonstrated?
A. Somatic recombination
B. Self-renewal
C. Junctional diversity
D. Clonal deletion

back 8

B. Self-renewal

front 9

White blood cells are “white” rather than red because they lack which molecule?
A. Myosin
B. Albumin
C. Keratin
D. Hemoglobin

back 9

D. Hemoglobin

front 10

A blood cell destined to become a macrophage leaves bone marrow and enters circulation. What is it called at this stage?
A. Monocyte
B. Plasma cell
C. Mast cell
D. Reticulocyte

back 10

A. Monocyte

front 11

Monocytes remains in blood for how long before later becoming a macrophage?
A. 1-3 hours
B. 1-3 months
C. 1-3 days
D. 1-3 weeks

back 11

C. 1-3 days

front 12

A monocyte leaves circulation and enters infected lung tissue. What must happen before it becomes a macrophage?
A. It enters marrow
B. It enters tissue
C. It binds IgE
D. It secretes antibody

back 12

B. It enters tissue

front 13

A macrophage senses bacteria and releases signaling proteins that coordinate nearby immune cells. What are these proteins called?
A. Antigens
B. Immunoglobulins
C. Lysozymes
D. Cytokines

back 13

D. Cytokines

front 14

In immunology, the term “immunoglobulin” is synonymous with which molecule?
A. Cytokine
B. Antigen
C. Antibody
D. Complement

back 14

C. Antibody

front 15

A student remembers antibody classes using “______”

back 15

GAMED

front 16

A bacterial surface molecule triggers B cells to produce antibodies against it. What is that molecule called?
A. Cytokine
B. Receptor
C. Constant region
D. Antigen

back 16

D. Antigen

front 17

A patient develops high levels of circulating antibodies after infection. Which cells directly produce these antibodies?
A. Helper T cells
B. Plasma B cells
C. Macrophages
D. Monocytes

back 17

B. Plasma B cells

front 18

An antibody contains two pairs of structurally different protein chains. Which pair is correct?
A. Alpha and beta chains
B. Variable and joining chains
C. Heavy and light chains
D. Fab and Fc chains

back 18

C. Heavy and light chains

front 19

A researcher mutates the antibody region that directly binds microbial surface molecules. Which region was altered?
A. Fab region
B. Constant region
C. Fc receptor
D. Heavy tail

back 19

A. Fab region

front 20

The Fab region of an antibody is best described as the region that binds which target?
A. Cytokines
B. Receptors
C. Lysosomes
D. Antigens

back 20

D. Antigens

front 21

A macrophage receptor interacts with the non-antigen-binding portion of an antibody. Which antibody region is involved?
A. Fab region
B. Constant region
C. Light chain
D. Junctional site

back 21

B. Constant region

front 22

A B cell switches from producing IgM to IgG while preserving antigen specificity. Which antibody region determines class?
A. Fab region
B. Light chain
C. Constant region
D. Phagosome region

back 22

C. Constant region

front 23

A B cell generates antibody diversity by recombining inherited DNA segments. Which gene segments are involved?
A. A, B, C, D
B. H, L, F, C
C. G, A, M, E
D. V, D, J, C

back 23

D. V, D, J, C

front 24

A developing B cell pastes different antibody gene segments together to generate many receptor possibilities. What is this strategy called?
A. Modular design
B. Clonal deletion
C. Antigen presentation
D. Cytokine signaling

back 24

A. Modular design

front 25

During antibody gene recombination, nucleotide bases are added or removed at segment junctions, creating extra variability. What is this called?
A. Somatic expansion
B. Class switching
C. Junctional diversity
D. Receptor editing

back 25

C. Junctional diversity

front 26

Why does the immune system use modular design and junctional diversity to make antibodies?
A. To reduce antigen exposure
B. To create massive diversity
C. To destroy stem cells
D. To prevent cytokine release

back 26

B. To create massive diversity

front 27

Roughly how many different antibodies are needed to protect against possible invaders?
A. 100 million
B. 100 thousand
C. 25 thousand
D. 20 million

back 27

A. 100 million

front 28

Humans generate millions of unique antibodies using only a ____ amount of DNA through a highly efficient process called ____ recombination

back 28

Humans generate millions of unique antibodies using only a limited amount of DNA through a highly efficient process called VDJ recombination

front 29

After a B cell creates its antibody “recipe,” where are small batches of antibody displayed?
A. Inside lysosomes
B. Within phagosomes
C. On the B-cell surface
D. Inside macrophages

back 29

C. On the B-cell surface

front 30

Surface antibodies on a B cell function as which receptor?
A. Fc receptor
B. B cell receptor
C. Cytokine receptor
D. Lysosome receptor

back 30

B. B cell receptor

front 31

On a B cell receptor, which region faces outward to search for matching antigen?
A. Fab region
B. Constant region
C. Heavy tail
D. Fc region

back 31

A. Fab region

front 32

The specific molecule that fits a B cell’s antigen-binding region is called what?
A. Junctional antigen
B. Constant antigen
C. Innate antigen
D. Cognate antigen

back 32

D. Cognate antigen

front 33

A naive B cell encounters the exact antigen fitting its surface receptor. What is the expected result?
A. Hemoglobin production
B. Macrophage maturation
C. B-cell proliferation
D. Lysosome destruction

back 33

C. B-cell proliferation

front 34

Following the initial encounter with its cognate antigen, it generally takes about ___ to ___ days for a naïve B cell to undergo massive clonal expansion and differentiate into antibody-secreting effector cells (plasma cells).

back 34

4 to 5 days

front 35

After finding its cognate antigen, a B cell expands into approximately how many clones?
A. 2,000 clones
B. 20,000 clones
C. 100,000 clones
D. 1 million clones

back 35

B. 20,000 clones

front 36

A plasma cell is working at maximum antibody-secreting capacity during an acute infection. How many antibodies can it produce per second?
A. 200
B. 2,000
C. 20,000
D. 100,000

back 36

B. 2,000

front 37

The main defensive role of antibodies against foreign invaders is best described as which function?
A. Destroy host cells directly
B. Mature inside thymus
C. Tag invaders for destruction
D. Form class I MHC

back 37

C. Tag invaders for destruction

front 38

A bacterium becomes coated with antibodies, making it easier for phagocytes to recognize and destroy it. What is this process called?
A. Neutralization
B. Opsonization
C. Proliferation
D. Presentation

back 38

B. Opsonization

front 39

A patient develops antibodies that bind viral particles before they infect respiratory epithelial cells. Which antibody type best describes this action?
A. Neutralizing antibody
B. Opsonizing antibody
C. Regulatory antibody
D. Memory antibody

back 39

A. Neutralizing antibody

front 40

A neutralizing antibody binds a viral particle outside a host cell. What is one major effect?
A. Blocks viral entry
B. Activates thymic cortex
C. Forms class II MHC
D. Produces beta chains

back 40

A. Blocks viral entry

front 41

A patient has circulating antibodies against an enveloped virus, but some virions have already entered epithelial cells and uncoated in the cytosol. Why can the antibodies not directly bind those intracellular virions?
A. Antibodies lack antigen specificity
B. Antibodies cannot cross intact membranes
C. Viruses destroy all immunoglobulins
D. Host cytosol contains no antigens

back 41

B. Antibodies cannot cross intact membranes

front 42

Antibodies primarily circulate in which body compartment?
A. Extracellular fluids
B. Cytosolic fluid
C. Nuclear matrix
D. Mitochondrial space

back 42

A. Extracellular fluids

front 43

Which location would normally contain circulating soluble antibodies?
A. Host cell cytosol
B. Viral nucleocapsid
C. Blood plasma
D. Mitochondrial matrix

back 43

C. Blood plasma

front 44

A virus successfully enters and uncoats inside a host cell without prior antibody binding. What protects it from direct antibody binding?
A. Its intracellular location
B. Its larger genome
C. Its bacterial capsule
D. Its thymic origin

back 44

A. Its intracellular location

front 45

A child with impaired thymic development has defective maturation of which immune cell type?
A. B cells
B. T cells
C. Monocytes
D. Macrophages

back 45

B. T cells

front 46

Which group correctly lists the three main T-cell types?
A. Killer, helper, regulatory
B. Plasma, memory, naive
C. Monocyte, macrophage, dendritic
D. IgG, IgA, IgM

back 46

A. Killer, helper, regulatory

front 47

Cytotoxic lymphocytes are another name for which T-cell type?
A. Helper T cells
B. Regulatory T cells
C. Killer T cells
D. Plasma T cells

back 47

C. Killer T cells

front 48

A T cell determines whether a host cell is infected by inspecting molecules displayed on the cell surface. What does it inspect?
A. Immunoglobulin
B. Hemoglobin
C. Cytokine receptor
D. MHC

back 48

D. MHC

front 49

T cells can indirectly “view” intracellular contents because cells display peptides using which molecule?
A. MHC
B. IgE
C. BCR
D. Lysosome

back 49

A. MHC

front 50

Most nucleated body cells use which MHC class to show intracellular material?
A. Class I MHC
B. Class II MHC
C. Class III MHC
D. Class IV MHC

back 50

A. Class I MHC

front 51

Killer T cells mainly inspect which MHC class?
A. Class II MHC
B. Class I MHC
C. Class III MHC
D. Class IV MHC

back 51

B. Class I MHC

front 52

A virally infected epithelial cell displays abnormal intracellular peptides. Which immune cell is most directly involved in checking it?
A. Helper T cell
B. Plasma B cell
C. Killer T cell
D. Regulatory B cell

back 52

C. Killer T cell

front 53

Certain immune cells display extracellular antigen fragments to helper T cells. What are these cells called?
A. Antigen-presenting cells
B. Antibody-secreting cells
C. Hemoglobin-lacking cells
D. Beta-microglobulin cells

back 53

A. Antigen-presenting cells

front 54

Antigen-presenting cells use which MHC class to communicate with helper T cells?
A. Class I MHC
B. Class II MHC
C. Class III MHC
D. Class IV MHC

back 54

B. Class II MHC

front 55

Helper T cells primarily assess infection in which environment through class II MHC?
A. Intracellular environment
B. Extracellular environment
C. Bone marrow niche
D. Thymic medulla

back 55

B. Extracellular environment

front 56

Class I MHC is structurally composed of one long chain plus which smaller chain?
A. Alpha chain
B. Beta chain
C. Delta chain
D. B2-microglobulin

back 56

D. B2-microglobulin

front 57

Which structure is part of class I MHC but not class II MHC?
A. B2-microglobulin
B. Alpha chain
C. Beta chain
D. Fab region

back 57

A. B2-microglobulin

front 58

Class II MHC is made of which two long chains?
A. Heavy and light
B. Alpha and beta
C. Fab and constant
D. Gamma and delta

back 58

B. Alpha and beta

front 59

Which statement correctly describes class I MHC?
A. One long chain
B. Two alpha chains
C. Two beta chains
D. Heavy and light chains

back 59

A. One long chain

front 60

Which statement correctly describes class II MHC structure?
A. One long chain
B. Two long chains
C. B2-microglobulin only
D. Fab and Fc regions

back 60

B. Two long chains

front 61

B cells and T cells are collectively called what?

back 61

Lymphocytes

front 62

After an infection is cleared, most expanded B and T cells undergo cell death. What are the surviving long-lived cells called?
A. Plasma cells
B. Memory cells
C. Stem cells
D. Monocytes

back 62

B. Memory cells

front 63

During a second exposure to the same pathogen, the adaptive immune system responds faster. Which cells mainly explain this?
A. Memory cells
B. Monocytes
C. Neutrophils
D. Macrophages

back 63

A. Memory cells

front 64

A vaccine works partly because some lymphocytes survive after the initial response. What is the main benefit of these cells?
A. Faster secondary response
B. Slower antigen recognition
C. Reduced MHC expression
D. Blocked antibody secretion

back 64

A. Faster secondary response