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Pharm 46

front 1

A patient is prescribed Bactrim for a urinary tract infection. Which two drugs are in this combination?

A) Ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin

B) Trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole

C) Sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine

D) Moxifloxacin and delafloxacin

back 1

B. Trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole

front 2

TMP-SMX is also commonly known by which drug name?

A) Bactrim

B) Leucovorin

C) Pyrimethamine

D) Delafloxacin

back 2

A. Bactrim

front 3

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole works by blocking which bacterial pathway?

A) DNA gyrase pathway

B) Folate pathway

C) Protein synthesis pathway

D) Cell wall pathway

back 3

B. Folate pathway

front 4

Why does blocking bacterial folate impair bacterial growth?

A) Bacteria cannot make DNA well

B) Bacteria cannot make capsules

C) Bacteria cannot make flagella

D) Bacteria cannot make ribosomes

back 4

A. Bacteria cannot make DNA well

front 5

Bacteria need folate mainly to synthesize which molecule?

A) RNA polymerase

B) Cell membrane

C) DNA

D) Peptidoglycan

back 5

C. DNA

front 6

TMP-SMX prevents bacterial survival mainly by disrupting which process?

A) Calcium entry

B) DNA production

C) Beta-lactamase release

D) Protein folding

back 6

B. DNA production

front 7

Which infection is a clinical use of TMP-SMX?

A) UTIs

B) Influenza

C) Malaria only

D) Syphilis

back 7

A. UTIs

front 8

A patient has a soft tissue infection treated with Bactrim. Which drug class is being used?

A) Fluoroquinolone

B) Folate antagonist

C) Macrolide

D) Aminoglycoside

back 8

B. Folate antagonist

front 9

TMP-SMX is used for Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia because it blocks which process?

A) DNA replication via gyrase

B) Folate-dependent DNA synthesis

C) Cell wall crosslinking

D) Viral genome release

back 9

B. Folate-dependent DNA synthesis

front 10

Which opportunistic pneumonia can be treated with TMP-SMX?

A) Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia

B) Streptococcus pneumoniae pneumonia

C) Mycoplasma pneumoniae pneumonia

D) Klebsiella pneumoniae pneumonia

back 10

A. Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia

front 11

Which parasitic infection is listed as a use for TMP-SMX?

A) Giardiasis

B) Toxoplasmosis

C) Malaria

D) Schistosomiasis

back 11

B. Toxoplasmosis

front 12

TMP-SMX is used for which branching filamentous bacterial infection?

A) Nocardiosis

B) Anthrax

C) Tetanus

D) Botulism

back 12

A. Nocardiosis

front 13

Which clinical use belongs to TMP-SMX?

A) Osteomyelitis only

B) Digitalis toxicity

C) Nocardiosis

D) Torsades

back 13

C. Nocardiosis

front 14

Which side effect is associated with TMP-SMX?

A) Tendon rupture

B) Rash

C) Ototoxicity

D) Lupus-like syndrome

back 14

B. Rash

front 15

Bacrtrim adverse effect?

A) Fever

B) Constipation

C) Cyanide toxicity

D) Visual brightness

back 15

A. Fever

front 16

TMP-SMX can suppress which body system?

A) Bone marrow

B) Adrenal cortex

C) Thyroid gland

D) Pancreatic islets

back 16

A. Bone marrow

front 17

A patient taking TMP-SMX develops low blood cell counts. Which adverse effect best explains this?

A) Neurotoxicity

B) Tendon rupture

C) Bone marrow suppression

D) Calcium binding

back 17

C. Bone marrow suppression

front 18

Which electrolyte abnormality is associated with TMP-SMX?

A) Hypocalcemia

B) Hyperkalemia

C) Hypernatremia

D) Hypokalemia

back 18

B. Hyperkalemia

front 19

A patient on TMP-SMX can have what adverse effect?

A) Nephrotoxicity

B) Tendonitis

C) Bronchoconstriction

D) Cyanosis

back 19

A. Nephrotoxicity

front 20

Which side effect set best matches TMP-SMX?

A) GI upset, tendon rupture, neurotoxicity

B) Rash, fever, bone marrow suppression

C) QT prolongation, constipation, dizziness

D) Cough, angioedema, hyperkalemia

back 20

B. Rash, fever, bone marrow suppression

front 21

Which adverse effect is shared by TMP-SMX and sulfadiazine plus pyrimethamine?

A) Bone marrow toxicity

B) Tendon rupture

C) Calcium chelation

D) Neurotoxicity

back 21

A. Bone marrow toxicity

front 22

A patient with sulfa allergy needs treatment for a lower UTI. Which drug from the notes may be used alone?

A) Sulfamethoxazole

B) Trimethoprim

C) Pyrimethamine

D) Sulfadiazine

back 22

B. Trimethoprim

front 23

Trimethoprim alone treats lower UTIs by blocking which pathway?

A) DNA gyrase pathway

B) Bacterial folate pathway

C) Topoisomerase IV pathway

D) Cell membrane pathway

back 23

B. Bacterial folate pathway

front 24

Trimethoprim alone is especially useful when a patient has which issue?

A) Beta blocker allergy

B) Sulfa allergy

C) Calcium deficiency

D) Tendon injury

back 24

B. Sulfa allergy

front 25

Which infection is listed as a use for trimethoprim alone?

A) Lower UTIs

B) Anthrax

C) Osteomyelitis

D) Toxoplasmosis only

back 25

A. Lower UTIs

front 26

Which drug blocks bacterial folate without the sulfa component?

A) Ciprofloxacin

B) Trimethoprim

C) Sulfadiazine

D) Moxifloxacin

back 26

B. Trimethoprim

front 27

Sulfadiazine plus pyrimethamine produces what type of antimicrobial blockade?

A) Strong folate pathway blockade

B) Strong DNA gyrase blockade

C) Strong ribosomal blockade

D) Strong cell wall blockade

back 27

A. Strong folate pathway blockade

front 28

Sulfadiazine plus pyrimethamine is used clinically for which infection?

A) Anthrax

B) Nocardiosis

C) Toxoplasmosis

D) Gastroenteritis

back 28

C. Toxoplasmosis

front 29

A patient with toxoplasmosis receives sulfadiazine plus pyrimethamine. What pathway is targeted?

A) Topoisomerase pathway

B) Folate pathway

C) Calcium transport pathway

D) Beta receptor pathway

back 29

B. Folate pathway

front 30

Sulfadiazine plus pyrimethamine prevents organisms from making which molecule properly?

A) DNA

B) Capsule

C) Flagella

D) Toxin

back 30

A. DNA

front 31

Which adverse effect is especially associated with sulfadiazine plus pyrimethamine?

A) Bone marrow toxicity

B) Tendon rupture

C) GI upset only

D) Neurotoxicity

back 31

A. Bone marrow toxicity

front 32

Leucovorin is given with sulfadiazine plus pyrimethamine to protect which tissue?

A) Bone marrow

B) Tendon

C) Kidney tubules

D) Gastric mucosa

back 32

A. Bone marrow

front 33

Which drug combination requires leucovorin protection in the notes?

A) TMP-SMX

B) Sulfadiazine plus pyrimethamine

C) Ciprofloxacin plus calcium

D) Levofloxacin plus magnesium

back 33

B. Sulfadiazine plus pyrimethamine

front 34

Which drug is a fluoroquinolone?

A) Ciprofloxacin

B) Trimethoprim

C) Sulfadiazine

D) Pyrimethamine

back 34

A. Ciprofloxacin

front 35

Which drug is a fluoroquinolone?

A) Bactrim

B) Levofloxacin

C) Leucovorin

D) Sulfamethoxazole

back 35

B. Levofloxacin

front 36

Which drug is a fluoroquinolone?

A) Pyrimethamine

B) Trimethoprim

C) Moxifloxacin

D) Sulfadiazine

back 36

C. Moxifloxacin

front 37

Which drug is a fluoroquinolone?

A) Delafloxacin

B) Leucovorin

C) Pyrimethamine

D) Sulfamethoxazole

back 37

A. Delafloxacin

front 38

Fluoroquinolones inhibit which bacterial enzymes?

A) ACE and renin

B) DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV

C) Na/K ATPase and PDE-3

D) Transpeptidase and beta-lactamase

back 38

B. DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV

front 39

DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV help bacteria do what?

A) Unwind and replicate DNA

B) Build fungal cell walls

C) Produce viral envelopes

D) Secrete histamine

back 39

A. Unwind and replicate DNA

front 40

Fluoroquinolones kill bacteria by preventing which process?

A) DNA copying

B) Folate absorption

C) Calcium binding

D) Capsule staining

back 40

A. DNA copying

front 41

A patient receives ciprofloxacin. Which mechanism explains bacterial death?

A) Blocks beta receptors

B) Inhibits DNA gyrase

C) Blocks folate only

D) Activates leucovorin

back 41

B. Inhibits DNA gyrase

front 42

A drug blocks topoisomerase IV and DNA gyrase. Which class is it?

A) Sulfonamide

B) Folate antagonist

C) Fluoroquinolone

D) Antimetabolite

back 42

C. Fluoroquinolone

front 43

Which clinical use belongs to fluoroquinolones?

A) UTIs

B) Torsades

C) Asthma

D) Angina

back 43

A. UTIs

front 44

Which gastrointestinal infection category is listed for fluoroquinolone use?

A) Gastroenteritis

B) Toxoplasmosis

C) Pneumocystis pneumonia

D) Nocardiosis

back 44

A. Gastroenteritis

front 45

Which bone infection is listed as a fluoroquinolone clinical use?

A) Osteomyelitis

B) Cellulitis only

C) Septic arthritis only

D) Endocarditis

back 45

A. Osteomyelitis

front 46

Which bioterrorism-associated infection is listed as a fluoroquinolone use?

A) Anthrax

B) Botulism

C) Tetanus

D) Diphtheria

back 46

A. Anthrax

front 47

A patient with anthrax is treated with an antibiotic ending in “floxacin.” Which class is this?

A) Fluoroquinolone

B) Folate antagonist

C) Sulfonamide

D) Pyrimidine analog

back 47

A. Fluoroquinolone

front 48

A patient with osteomyelitis receives ciprofloxacin. Which bacterial process is inhibited?

A) DNA replication

B) Folate rescue

C) Peptidoglycan crosslinking

D) Ribosomal translocation

back 48

A. DNA replication

front 49

Which side effect set best matches fluoroquinolones?

A) GI upset, neurotoxicity, tendon rupture

B) Rash, fever, hyperkalemia

C) Bone marrow toxicity only

D) Cough, angioedema, nephrotoxicity

back 49

A. GI upset, neurotoxicity, tendon rupture

front 50

Why should fluoroquinolones not be taken with calcium, magnesium, iron, or aluminum?

A) They bind drug and decrease absorption

B) They increase folate synthesis

C) They worsen bacterial DNA copying

D) They activate topoisomerase IV

back 50

A. They bind drug and decrease absorption

front 51

A patient takes ciprofloxacin with calcium supplements. What is the likely result?

A) Decreased drug absorption

B) Increased drug absorption

C) Increased folate blockade

D) Increased leucovorin activity

back 51

A. Decreased drug absorption

front 52

Which medication should be separated from iron supplements because absorption can decrease?

A) Ciprofloxacin

B) Trimethoprim

C) Pyrimethamine

D) Leucovorin

back 52

A. Ciprofloxacin

front 53

Which pairing is correct?

A) TMP-SMX—folate pathway blockade

B) Ciprofloxacin—cell wall blockade

C) Trimethoprim—DNA gyrase inhibitor

D) Leucovorin—fluoroquinolone

back 53

A. TMP-SMX—folate pathway blockade

front 54

Which pairing is correct?

A) Sulfadiazine/pyrimethamine—toxoplasmosis

B) Levofloxacin—bone marrow rescue

C) TMP-SMX—tendon rupture

D) Leucovorin—DNA gyrase inhibition

back 54

A. Sulfadiazine/pyrimethamine—toxoplasmosis

front 55

Which pairing is correct?

A) Fluoroquinolones—DNA gyrase inhibition

B) TMP-SMX—topoisomerase IV inhibition

C) Trimethoprim—calcium chelation

D) Leucovorin—bacterial DNA unwinding

back 55

A. Fluoroquinolones—DNA gyrase inhibition

front 56

Which pairing is correct?

A) Trimethoprim alone—lower UTIs

B) Moxifloxacin—sulfa allergy alternative

C) Bactrim—anthrax first only

D) Delafloxacin—leucovorin rescue

back 56

A. Trimethoprim alone—lower UTIs

front 57

Which pairing is correct?

A) Fluoroquinolones—avoid calcium coadministration

B) TMP-SMX—avoid all folate rescue

C) Leucovorin—causes tendon rupture

D) Sulfadiazine—blocks DNA gyrase

back 57

A. Fluoroquinolones—avoid calcium coadministration

front 58

A patient with sulfa allergy has a lower UTI. Which option best avoids the sulfa component?

A) Trimethoprim alone

B) TMP-SMX

C) Sulfadiazine/pyrimethamine

D) Sulfamethoxazole alone

back 58

A. Trimethoprim alone

front 59

A patient with toxoplasmosis receives sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine. Which add-on reduces bone marrow toxicity

A) Leucovorin

B) Aluminum

C) Ciprofloxacin

D) Dapagliflozin

back 59

A. Leucovorin

front 60

A patient with UTI and soft tissue infection is prescribed Bactrim. Which side effect should be monitored?

A) Hyperkalemia

B) Tendon rupture only

C) Constipation

D) Bradycardia

back 60

A. Hyperkalemia

front 61

A patient taking TMP-SMX develops rash, fever, and cytopenias. Which drug caused this?

A) Bactrim

B) Ciprofloxacin

C) Leucovorin

D) Moxifloxacin

back 61

A. Bactrim

front 62

A patient taking moxifloxacin develops GI upset and tendon pain. Which class toxicity is this?

A) Fluoroquinolone toxicity

B) Folate antagonist toxicity

C) Sulfonamide rescue effect

D) Leucovorin toxicity

back 62

A. Fluoroquinolone toxicity

front 63

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole is established to be effective
against which of the following opportunistic infections in the
AIDS patient?
(A) Cryptococcal meningitis
(B) Herpes simplex
(C) Oral candidiasis
(D) Toxoplasmosis
(E) Tuberculosis

back 63

(D) Toxoplasmosis

front 64

A 65-year-old woman has returned from a vacation abroad
suffering from traveler’s diarrhea, and her problem has not
responded to antidiarrheal drugs. A pathogenic Gram-negative bacillus is suspected. Which drug is most likely to be effective in the treatment of this patient?
(A) Ampicillin
(B) Ofloxacin
(C) Sulfadiazine
(D) Trimethoprim
(E) Vancomycin

back 64

(B) Ofloxacin

front 65

Which statement about the clinical use of sulfonamides is
correct?
(A) Cannot be used topically for treatment of chlamydial
infections of the eye
(B) Effective as sole agents in the treatment of prostatitis
(C) Effective in Rocky Mountain spotted fever
(D) In some bacterial strains resistance occurs via reduced
PABA formation
(E) Reduced intracellular uptake is a mechanism of sulfonamide
resistance in some bacterial strains

back 65

(E) Reduced intracellular uptake is a mechanism of sulfonamide
resistance in some bacterial strains

front 66

A 31-year-old man has gonorrhea. He has no drug allergies,
but a few years ago acute hemolysis followed use of an anti-malarial drug. The physician is concerned that the patient
has an accompanying urethritis caused by C trachomatis,
although no cultures or enzyme tests have been performed.
Which of the following drugs will be reliably effective against
both gonococci and C trachomatis and safe to use in this
patient?
(A) Cefixime
(B) Ciprofloxacin
(C) Spectinomycin
(D) Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim
(E) None of the above

back 66

(E) None of the above

front 67

Which statement about the fluoroquinolones is accurate?
(A) Antacids increase their oral bioavailability
(B) Contraindicated in patients with hepatic dysfunction
(C) Fluoroquinolones are drugs of choice in a 6-year-old
child with a urinary tract infection
(D) Gonococcal resistance to fluoroquinolones may involve
changes in DNA gyrase
(E) Modification of moxifloxacin dosage is required in
patients when creatinine clearance is less than 50 mL/min

back 67

(D) Gonococcal resistance to fluoroquinolones may involve
changes in DNA gyrase

front 68

A 40-year-old man complains of periodic bouts of diarrhea
with lower abdominal cramping and intermittent rectal
bleeding. Seen in the clinic, he appears well nourished,
with blood pressure in the normal range. Examination
reveals moderate abdominal pain and tenderness. His cur￾rent medications are limited to loperamide for his diarrhea.
Sigmoidoscopy reveals mucosal edema, friability, and some
pus. Laboratory findings include mild anemia and decreased
serum albumin. Microbiologic examination via stool cultures
and mucosal biopsies do not reveal any evidence for bacterial, amebic, or cytomegalovirus involvement. The most appropriate drug to use in this patient is
(A) Ampicillin
(B) Doxycycline
(C) Norfloxacin
(D) Sulfasalazine
(E) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

back 68

(D) Sulfasalazine

front 69

Which adverse effect is most common with sulfonamides?
(A) Fanconi’s aminoaciduria syndrome
(B) Hematuria
(C) Kernicterus in the newborn
(D) Neurologic dysfunction
(E) Skin rash

back 69

(E) Skin rash

front 70

Which drug is effective in the treatment of nocardiosis and,
in combination with pyrimethamine, is prophylactic against
Pneumocystis jirovecii infections in AIDS patients?
(A) Amoxicillin
(B) Erythromycin
(C) Levofloxacin
(D) Sulfadiazine
(E) Trimethoprim

back 70

(D) Sulfadiazine

front 71

Which statement about ciprofloxacin is accurate?
(A) Antagonism occurs if used with dihydrofolate reductase
inhibitors
(B) Ciprofloxacin is active against MRSA strains of
staphylococci
(C) Most “first-time” urinary tract infections are resistant to
ciprofloxacin
(D) Organisms that commonly cause ear infections are
highly resistant
(E) Tendinitis may occur during treatment

back 71

(E) Tendinitis may occur during treatment

front 72

Supplementary folinic acid may prevent anemia in folate-deficient persons who use this drug; it is a weak base achieving tissue levels similar to those in plasma.
(A) Ciprofloxacin
(B) Levofloxacin
(C) Linezolid
(D) Sulfamethoxazole
(E) Trimethoprim

back 72

(E) Trimethoprim