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Phys 19

front 1

A patient receives rapid isotonic volume expansion, and vascular capacitance does not change. Which immediate arterial pressure response is expected?

A) It falls transiently

B) It increases

C) It remains fixed

D) It oscillates only

back 1

B. It increases

front 2

If arterial pressure falls below the renal-body fluid equilibrium point, which salt-water relationship occurs?

A) Output exceeds intake

B) Intake equals output

C) Intake exceeds output

D) Output becomes zero

back 2

C. Intake exceeds output

If arterial pressure falls below the renal-body fluid equilibrium point (the point at which renal output equals salt-water intake), the renal-pressure natriuresis mechanism reduces the output of salt and water. Consequently, the intake of salt and water exceeds the output

front 3

A patient’s arterial pressure is chronically below the renal equilibrium point. Which response tends to restore pressure?

A) Salt-water loss lowers pressure

B) Salt-water retention raises pressure

C) Natriuresis lowers blood volume

D) Diuresis lowers venous return

back 3

B. Salt-water retention raises pressure

front 4

The renal-body fluid mechanism returns arterial pressure toward its equilibrium point over time. Which control principle describes this?

A) Near-infinite feedback gain

B) Positive feedback gain

C) Zero feedback gain

D) Baroreceptor resetting

back 4

A. Near-infinite feedback gain

front 5

Which two variables primarily determine long-term arterial pressure?

A) Heart rate; stroke volume

B) Baroreceptors; chemoreceptors

C) Hematocrit; plasma proteins

D) Renal curve; salt-water intake

back 5

D. Renal curve; salt-water intake

front 6

A patient has a chronic new mean arterial pressure. According to the renal-body fluid model, what must have changed?

A) Cardiac contractility alone

B) Renal curve or intake

C) Brainstem reflexes only

D) Venous valves only

back 6

B. Renal curve or intake

front 7

Chronic arterial pressure elevation increases renal salt-water output partly by decreasing which influence?

A) Sympathetic and hormonal activity

B) Plasma protein filtration

C) Tubular sodium delivery

D) Vascular capacitance

back 7

A. Sympathetic and hormonal activity

front 8

When arterial pressure rises chronically, what happens to sympathetic activity and salt-retaining hormonal signals?

A) Both increase

B) Sympathetic increases only

C) Hormones increase only

D) Both decrease

back 8

D. Both decrease

front 9

When blood pressure falls, which neurohormonal response helps reduce renal salt-water output?

A) SNS inhibition; natriuretic hormones

B) SNS activation; antinatriuretic hormones

C) Parasympathetic activation; nitric oxide

D) Baroreceptor activation; sodium excretion

back 9

B. SNS activation; antinatriuretic hormones

front 10

A patient with low blood pressure retains salt and water beyond the direct pressure effect. Which mechanism contributes

? A) Increased antinatriuretic hormones

B) Decreased sympathetic activity

C) Increased pressure natriuresis

D) Decreased tubular reabsorption

back 10

A. Increased antinatriuretic hormones

front 11

Which pair of abnormalities makes blood pressure more salt sensitive?

A) High GFR; low aldosterone

B) Low TPR; high capacitance

C) Nephron loss; antinatriuretic excess

D) Low protein; high filtration

back 11

C. Nephron loss; antinatriuretic excess

front 12

Excess antinatriuretic hormone formation predisposes to salt-sensitive hypertension by impairing which process?

A) Pulmonary gas exchange

B) Renal salt-water excretion

C) Red cell production

D) Cardiac valve closure

back 12

B. Renal salt-water excretion

front 13

A drug acutely increases total peripheral resistance throughout the body. What immediately happens to arterial pressure?

A) It remains unchanged

B) It equals venous pressure

C) It falls immediately

D) It rises immediately

back 13

D. It rises immediately

front 14

If vascular resistance increases everywhere except inside the kidneys, what happens to the renal-body fluid equilibrium pressure?

A) It shifts lower

B) It does not change

C) It becomes unregulated

D) It shifts higher

back 14

B. It does not change

front 15

Why does isolated systemic vasoconstriction outside the kidneys fail to chronically reset arterial pressure?

A) Kidney equilibrium remains unchanged

B) Cardiac output cannot change

C) Baroreceptors permanently compensate

D) Sodium intake becomes irrelevant

back 15

A. Kidney equilibrium remains unchanged

front 16

A patient’s total peripheral resistance rises along with intrarenal vascular resistance. What long-term outcome may occur?

A) Hypotension from natriuresis

B) Normal pressure from kidneys

C) Hypertension from renal shift

D) Edema without pressure change

back 16

C. Hypertension from renal shift

front 17

Increased extracellular fluid volume raises blood volume, which next increases which variable?

A) Bowman hydrostatic pressure

B) Pulmonary wedge pressure only

C) Glomerular oncotic pressure

D) Mean circulatory filling pressure

back 17

D. Mean circulatory filling pressure

front 18

A patient’s mean circulatory filling pressure increases after extracellular fluid expansion. Which hemodynamic effect follows next?

A) Decreased cardiac output

B) Increased venous return

C) Decreased arterial pressure

D) Increased renal obstruction

back 18

B. Increased venous return

front 19

If kidney function is normal, increased arterial pressure helps restore extracellular fluid volume by increasing excretion of what?

A) Protein and glucose

B) Urea and creatinine

C) Salt and water

D) Calcium and albumin

back 19

C. Salt and water

front 20

An increase in cardiac output can indirectly raise arterial pressure through which mechanism?

A) Reduced renal resistance

B) Increased vascular capacitance

C) Tissue blood flow autoregulation

D) Decreased peripheral resistance

back 20

C. Tissue blood flow autoregulation

front 21

Which pairing best distinguishes direct and indirect effects of increased cardiac output on arterial pressure?

A) Natriuresis; diuresis

B) Flow effect; autoregulation effect

C) Baroreflex; chemoreflex

D) Oncotic pressure; hydrostatic pressure

back 21

B. Flow effect; autoregulation effect

front 22

When excess blood flows through a tissue, local arterioles constrict to return flow toward normal. What process is this?

A) Autoregulation

B) Pressure diuresis

C) Capillary filtration

D) Micturition

back 22

A. Autoregulation

front 23

A patient eats a very high-salt meal. Which sequence best explains how extracellular fluid volume increases afterward?

A) Osmolality falls; thirst decreases

B) Osmolality rises; thirst increases

C) ADH falls; water intake decreases

D) Sodium exits; plasma volume falls

back 23

B. Osmolality rises; thirst increases

front 24

Excess salt in extracellular fluid stimulates thirst primarily because it causes which initial change?

A) Plasma proteins decrease

B) Blood volume immediately falls

C) Fluid osmolality increases

D) Renin release stops

back 24

C. Fluid osmolality increases

front 25

A patient with chronic severe hypertension develops increased cardiac workload and dies from ischemic heart disease. Which terminal event is emphasized as a common cause of death?

A) Pulmonary embolism

B) Brain herniation

C) Uremic coma

D) Heart attack

back 25

D. Heart attack

front 26

High blood pressure damages a major cerebral blood vessel, followed by death of major brain regions. What event is being described?

A) Cerebral infarct

B) Hydrocephalus

C) Nephrotic syndrome

D) Tabes dorsalis

back 26

A. Cerebral infarct

front 27

Which organ is almost always injured by longstanding high blood pressure, eventually causing uremia and death?

A) Liver

B) Kidneys

C) Pancreas

D) Spleen

back 27

B. Kidneys

front 28

A patient with severe kidney failure is maintained on dialysis. What must be carefully controlled each dialysis session?

A) Brainstem reflex tone

B) Plasma fatty acid binding

C) Body fluid volume

D) Erythrocyte lifespan

back 28

C. Body fluid volume

front 29

A dialysis patient requires removal of the correct amount of which substances to maintain normal body fluid volume?

A) Protein and glucose

B) Urea and creatinine

C) Calcium and phosphate

D) Water and salt

back 29

D. Water and salt

front 30

A small adrenal gland tumor secretes excessive aldosterone and causes hypertension with sodium retention. What disorder is this?

A) Primary aldosteronism

B) Two-kidney Goldblatt hypertension

C) Minimal change nephropathy

D) Central diabetes insipidus

back 30

A. Primary aldosteronism

front 31

When arterial pressure falls too low, the kidneys release which protein enzyme to help restore pressure?

A) Aldosterone

B) Renin

C) Angiotensin II

D) Angiotensinase

back 31

B. Renin

front 32

Renin is synthesized and stored in juxtaglomerular cells in which inactive precursor form?

A) Angiotensinogen

B) Angiotensin I

C) Prorenin

D) Angiotensin II

back 32

C. Prorenin

front 33

Juxtaglomerular cells are modified smooth muscle cells located mainly in which vessel walls?

A) Efferent arterioles distally

B) Cortical veins near pelvis

C) Vasa recta near medulla

D) Afferent arterioles proximally

back 33

D. Afferent arterioles proximally

front 34

Most renin released from juxtaglomerular cells enters which compartment before circulating systemically?

A) Renal blood

B) Bowman capsule

C) Ureter lumen

D) Renal pelvis

back 34

A. Renal blood

front 35

Renin acts enzymatically on angiotensinogen to release which peptide?

A) Angiotensin II

B) Angiotensin I

C) Aldosterone

D) Bradykinin

back 35

B. Angiotensin I

front 36

Angiotensin-converting enzyme forms angiotensin II by removing how many amino acids from angiotensin I?

A) Two amino acids

B) Four amino acids

C) Six amino acids

D) Eight amino acids

back 36

A. Two amino acids

front 37

Angiotensin-converting enzyme is especially present in the endothelium of which vessels?

A) Renal afferent arterioles

B) Portal venous vessels

C) Lung vessels

D) Cerebral vessels

back 37

C. Lung vessels

front 38

Angiotensin II persists in blood only briefly because it is rapidly degraded by which enzymes?

A) Angiotensinases

B) Kinases

C) Phosphatases

D) Carbonic anhydrases

back 38

A. Angiotensinases

front 39

Which pair represents the two principal arterial pressure–raising effects of angiotensin II?

A) Natriuresis; vasodilation

B) Diuresis; thirst suppression

C) Vasoconstriction; renal retention

D) Protein loss; plasma dilution

back 39

C. Vasoconstriction; renal retention

front 40

Angiotensin II decreases renal excretion of which substances to help elevate arterial pressure?

A) Protein and glucose

B) Calcium and fatty acids

C) Urea and creatinine

D) Salt and water

back 40

D. Salt and water

front 41

Angiotensin II promotes aldosterone secretion from which organ?

A) Kidney

B) Adrenal gland

C) Liver

D) Pituitary

back 41

B. Adrenal gland

front 42

A patient has a tumor of renin-secreting juxtaglomerular cells. Which downstream change directly drives severe hypertension?

A) Excess angiotensin II formation

B) Excess sodium loss

C) Loss of aldosterone secretion

D) Loss of renal arteriolar tone

back 42

A. Excess angiotensin II formation

front 43

After systemic arterial pressure reaches a new stable level in renal hypertension, which pressure returns almost to normal?

A) Portal venous pressure

B) Bowman capsule pressure

C) Renal arterial pressure

D) Bladder pressure

back 43

C. Renal arterial pressure

front 44

Hypertension can occur when one renal artery is constricted while the other kidney’s artery is what?

A) Also constricted

B) Completely occluded

C) Surgically removed

D) Normal

back 44

D. Normal

front 45

Stenosis of a single renal artery in a person with two kidneys causes which named hypertension model?

A) Two-kidney Goldblatt hypertension

B) Primary aldosteronism

C) One-kidney endocrine hypertension

D) Malignant nephrotic hypertension

back 45

A. Two-kidney Goldblatt hypertension

front 46

Two-kidney Goldblatt hypertension is commonly modeled by stenosis of what structure?

A) Both ureters

B) One renal artery

C) Both renal veins

D) One adrenal vein

back 46

B. One renal artery

front 47

In two-kidney Goldblatt hypertension, which kidney secretes excess renin?

A) Normal kidney only

B) Both kidneys equally

C) Constricted kidney

D) Contralateral kidney only

back 47

C. Constricted kidney

front 48

In two-kidney Goldblatt hypertension, the constricted kidney retains salt and water because of which local change?

A) Increased renal arterial pressure

B) Increased renal venous pressure

C) Increased renal plasma proteins

D) Decreased renal arterial pressure

back 48

D. Decreased renal arterial pressure

front 49

Which pairing best distinguishes primary aldosteronism from juxtaglomerular cell tumor hypertension?

A) Adrenal aldosterone excess; renin excess

B) Renin excess; aldosterone deficiency

C) ADH excess; angiotensinase deficiency

D) Sodium loss; water loss

back 49

A. Adrenal aldosterone excess; renin excess

front 50

Which statement best compares renin and angiotensin II persistence in blood?

A) Renin lasts longer

B) Angiotensin II lasts longer

C) Both last hours

D) Both last seconds

back 50

A. Renin lasts longer

front 51

A patient has excess extracellular salt and drinks more water. Which final volume effect follows thirst stimulation?

A) Intracellular volume collapses

B) Extracellular volume increases

C) Plasma volume always decreases

D) Renal blood flow ceases

back 51

B. Extracellular volume increases

front 52

Which chronic hypertension complication sequence is most accurate?

A) Kidney injury; uremia; death

B) Liver fibrosis; ascites; death

C) Bladder reflux; micturition; death

D) Proteinuria; hydronephrosis; death

back 52

A. Kidney injury; uremia; death

front 53

Which intervention is especially important for patients maintained on an artificial kidney?

A) Prevent all sodium filtration

B) Maintain normal fluid volume

C) Increase renin secretion

D) Block all thirst signals

back 53

B. Maintain normal fluid volume

front 54

In two-kidney Goldblatt hypertension, why does the “normal” kidney retain salt and water?

A) Its renal artery is stenosed

B) Circulating RAAS hormones act on it

C) It loses all pressure natriuresis

D) Its ureter becomes obstructed

back 54

B. Circulating RAAS hormones act on it

front 55

In two-kidney Goldblatt hypertension, renin from the ischemic kidney causes formation of which circulating mediators that affect the opposite kidney?

A) NO and bradykinin

B) EPO and calcitriol

C) ADH and ANP

D) Angiotensin II and aldosterone

back 55

D. Angiotensin II and aldosterone

front 56

A patient has congenital aortic narrowing beyond the head and arm branches but before the renal arteries. Which diagnosis best fits?

A) Coarctation of the aorta

B) Two-kidney Goldblatt hypertension

C) Primary aldosteronism

D) Preeclampsia

back 56

A. Coarctation of the aorta

front 57

In coarctation of the aorta, the constriction is classically located in which position?

A) Distal to renal arteries

B) Proximal to head branches

C) Distal head branches; proximal renal arteries

D) Within both renal arteries

back 57

C. Distal head branches; proximal renal arteries

front 58

A patient with coarctation has high upper-body arterial pressure. Which mechanism best explains this finding?

A) Low upper-body resistance

B) Excess renal salt excretion

C) Low cardiac output

D) High collateral vascular resistance

back 58

D. High collateral vascular resistance

front 59

In coarctation of the aorta, lower-body blood flow is carried mainly through which vessels?

A) Pulmonary collateral arteries

B) Small body-wall collaterals

C) Renal arcuate arteries

D) Portal venous collaterals

back 59

B. Small body-wall collaterals

front 60

A pregnant patient develops hypertension from preeclampsia. Which event usually causes the hypertension to subside?

A) Delivery of the baby

B) Increased salt intake

C) Renal artery stenting

D) Sympathetic activation

back 60

A. Delivery of the baby

front 61

Which placental mechanism is believed to contribute to preeclampsia?

A) Excess placental perfusion

B) Placental renin destruction

C) Placental ischemia; toxic factors

D) Fetal aldosterone deficiency

back 61

C. Placental ischemia; toxic factors

front 62

Endothelial dysfunction in preeclampsia decreases release of which vasodilator?

A) Endothelin

B) Angiotensin II

C) Aldosterone

D) Nitric oxide

back 62

D. Nitric oxide

front 63

In preeclampsia, glomerular membrane thickening directly causes which renal effect?

A) Increased renal blood flow

B) Increased sodium excretion

C) Reduced glomerular filtration

D) Increased ureteral pressure

back 63

C. Reduced glomerular filtration

front 64

Acute neurogenic hypertension can occur after strong stimulation of which system?

A) Parasympathetic nervous system

B) Renin-angiotensin system

C) Sympathetic nervous system

D) Lymphatic nervous system

back 64

C. Sympathetic nervous system

front 65

A patient develops acute hypertension after bilateral destruction of the tractus solitarius. Which reflex pathway has been interrupted?

A) Baroreceptor afferent pathway

B) Micturition reflex pathway

C) Ureterorenal pain reflex

D) Macula densa signaling

back 65

A. Baroreceptor afferent pathway

front 66

Cutting the nerves leading from baroreceptors can cause which blood pressure abnormality?

A) Chronic salt wasting

B) Acute neurogenic hypertension

C) Primary aldosteronism

D) Two-kidney Goldblatt hypertension

back 66

B. Acute neurogenic hypertension

front 67

The tractus solitarius relevant to acute neurogenic hypertension is located in which region?

A) Cerebral cortex

B) Lumbar spinal cord

C) Renal medulla

D) Medulla oblongata

back 67

D. Medulla oblongata

front 68

Obesity often causes chronic hypertension partly by activating which renal neural pathway?

A) Renal sympathetic nerves

B) Renal parasympathetic nerves

C) Pudendal motor nerves

D) Pelvic sensory nerves

back 68

A. Renal sympathetic nerves

front 69

In obesity-related hypertension, increased renal sympathetic activity impairs which renal pressure-control mechanism?

A) Glomerular protein filtration

B) Renal pressure natriuresis

C) Bladder emptying reflex

D) Ureteral peristalsis

back 69

B. Renal pressure natriuresis

front 70

Across monogenic hypertensive disorders, what final common pathway appears to raise blood pressure?

A) Increased salt reabsorption

B) Increased renal salt excretion

C) Reduced extracellular fluid volume

D) Reduced vascular resistance

back 70

A. Increased salt reabsorption

front 71

Monogenic hypertension ultimately expands which fluid compartment?

A) Intracellular fluid volume

B) Cerebrospinal fluid volume

C) Plasma-free water only

D) Extracellular fluid volume

back 71

D. Extracellular fluid volume

front 72

In obese patients with primary hypertension, cardiac output is increased partly because extra adipose tissue requires what?

A) Less vascular resistance

B) More blood flow

C) Less renal perfusion

D) More baroreceptor firing

back 72

B. More blood flow

front 73

In overweight patients, sympathetic nerve activity is especially increased in which organ system?

A) Liver

B) Lungs

C) Kidneys

D) Spleen

back 73

C. Kidneys

front 74

Many obese patients have twofold to threefold increases in which pressure-raising hormones?

A) ANP and nitric oxide

B) EPO and calcitriol

C) Bradykinin and prostaglandins

D) Angiotensin II and aldosterone

back 74

D. Angiotensin II and aldosterone

front 75

In obesity-related hypertension, why must arterial pressure rise for adequate salt-water excretion?

A) Kidneys fail to excrete adequately

B) Cardiac output becomes too low

C) Adipose tissue absorbs sodium

D) Baroreceptors increase natriuresis

back 75

A. Kidneys fail to excrete adequately

front 76

Salt-sensitive hypertension can occur in chronic renal disease because of which structural loss?

A) Nephron loss

B) Podocyte hypertrophy

C) Ureteral dilation

D) Bladder denervation

back 76

A. Nephron loss

front 77

Normal aging can predispose to salt-sensitive hypertension primarily through which renal change?

A) Increased nephron regeneration

B) Increased renal protein synthesis

C) Gradual nephron loss

D) Reduced aortic resistance

back 77

C. Gradual nephron loss

front 78

What is the first step in treating primary hypertension?

A) Immediate renal surgery

B) High-sodium diet trial

C) Chronic dialysis

D) Lifestyle modification

back 78

D. Lifestyle modification

front 79

Which two broad drug classes are used to treat hypertension?

A) Vasodilators and diuretics

B) Antibiotics and antivirals

C) Anticoagulants and antiplatelets

D) Bronchodilators and mucolytics

back 79

A. Vasodilators and diuretics

front 80

Natriuretic/diuretic drugs treat hypertension primarily by promoting loss of which substances?

A) Protein and glucose

B) Calcium and phosphate

C) Salt and water

D) RBCs and albumin

back 80

C. Salt and water

front 81

Vasodilator drugs treat hypertension primarily by producing which vascular effect?

A) Increased vascular resistance

B) Reduced vascular resistance

C) Increased renal artery stenosis

D) Reduced pressure natriuresis

back 81

B. Reduced vascular resistance

front 82

A pregnant patient’s hypertension is linked to placental ischemia, endothelial dysfunction, reduced glomerular filtration, and impaired natriuresis. Which diagnosis is most likely?

A) Primary aldosteronism

B) Preeclampsia

C) Coarctation of the aorta

D) Essential hypertension

back 82

B. Preeclampsia

front 83

A drug lowers blood pressure by blocking angiotensin II or aldosterone-related effects. Which vasodilator mechanism is being used?

A) Direct renal tubular secretion

B) RAAS blockade

C) Chemoreceptor activation

D) CNS ischemic stimulation

back 83

B. RAAS blockade

front 84

Which set correctly lists mechanisms that respond to pressure changes over minutes?

A) Baroreceptors; chemoreceptors; CNS ischemia

B) RAAS; stress relaxation; capillary fluid shift

C) ADH; thirst; volume loading

D) Natriuresis; diuresis; salt sensitivity

back 84

B. RAAS; stress relaxation; capillary fluid shift

front 85

A patient’s arterial pressure changes, and vascular smooth muscle gradually adjusts vessel diameter over minutes. Which mechanism is this?

A) Stress relaxation

B) Baroreceptor firing

C) Chemoreceptor activation

D) Cerebral infarction

back 85

A. Stress relaxation

front 86

A minutes-scale pressure control mechanism shifts fluid across tissue capillary walls. What is the purpose of this shift?

A) Move fluid into or out of circulation

B) Destroy renal juxtaglomerular cells

C) Prevent all venous return

D) Increase plasma protein filtration

back 86

A. Move fluid into or out of circulation

front 87

Which statement best describes the purpose of pressure diuresis and pressure natriuresis?

A) Retain fluid during hypertension

B) Eliminate excess volume during hypertension

C) Increase vascular capacitance during shock

D) Raise renin during salt loading

back 87

B. Eliminate excess volume during hypertension

front 88

At arterial pressures above the renal-body fluid equilibrium point, which relationship between renal output and intake is expected?

A) Output equals intake

B) Output is less than intake

C) Output exceeds intake

D) Intake becomes zero

back 88

C. Output exceeds intake

front 89

At arterial pressures below the renal-body fluid equilibrium point, which relationship is expected?

A) Salt-water output exceeds intake

B) Salt-water output equals intake

C) Salt-water intake falls to zero

D) Salt-water intake exceeds output

back 89

D. Salt-water intake exceeds output

front 90

Which equation explains why an acute increase in total peripheral resistance raises arterial pressure?

A) AP = GFR/RPF

B) AP = CO × TPR

C) AP = RBF/RVR

D) AP = ECF/NaCl

back 90

B. AP = CO × TPR

front 91

In tissue autoregulation, excess local blood flow produces which vascular response?

A) Local vasodilation

B) Local vasoconstriction

C) Venous thrombosis

D) Capillary rupture

back 91

B. Local vasoconstriction

front 92

Autoregulation after increased cardiac output raises arterial pressure mainly by increasing which variable?

A) Total peripheral resistance

B) Plasma albumin concentration

C) Bowman capsule pressure

D) Urinary glucose excretion

back 92

A. Total peripheral resistance

front 93

A patient consumes excess NaCl and then drinks more water. What happens to extracellular fluid volume?

A) It decreases

B) It remains fixed

C) It increases

D) It becomes intracellular only

back 93

C. It increases

front 94

Excess NaCl accumulation increases ECF volume partly by stimulating which pituitary-mediated response?

A) Increased ADH release

B) Decreased ADH release

C) Increased renin release

D) Decreased aldosterone release

back 94

A. Increased ADH release

front 95

Which paired responses to excess extracellular NaCl increase extracellular fluid volume?

A) Thirst and ADH release

B) Natriuresis and diuresis

C) Baroreceptors and chemoreceptors

D) Albuminuria and protein washdown

back 95

A. Thirst and ADH release

front 96

Accumulation of which ion is the main determinant of extracellular fluid volume

A) Potassium

B) Calcium

C) Sodium

D) Magnesium

back 96

C. Sodium

front 97

A patient has hypertension caused by excess extracellular fluid accumulation. Which type of hypertension is this?

A) Neurogenic hypertension

B) Volume-loading hypertension

C) Coarctation hypertension

D) Essential-only hypertension

back 97

B. Volume-loading hypertension

front 98

In primary volume-loading hypertension, what occurs during stage 1?

A) Cardiac output increases

B) Total peripheral resistance decreases

C) Cardiac output decreases

D) Blood volume decreases

back 98

A. Cardiac output increases

front 99

In primary volume-loading hypertension, what occurs during stage 2?

A) Cardiac output becomes zero

B) Total peripheral resistance increases

C) Blood volume disappears

D) ADH becomes absent

back 99

B. Total peripheral resistance increases

front 100

Volume-loading hypertension can be caused by excess secretion of which hormone?

A) Erythropoietin

B) Calcitriol

C) Aldosterone

D) Angiotensinase

back 100

C. Aldosterone

front 101

Excess aldosterone promotes volume-loading hypertension primarily by increasing retention of which substances?

A) Salt and water

B) Protein and glucose

C) Calcium and phosphate

D) Urea and creatinine

back 101

A. Salt and water

front 102

Renin is best described as what type of molecule released by the kidneys when arterial pressure falls too low?

A) Steroid hormone

B) Protein enzyme

C) Plasma dye

D) Structural protein

back 102

B. Protein enzyme

front 103

Juxtaglomerular cells are located mainly where?

A) Afferent arteriole walls proximal to glomeruli

B) Collecting duct walls near papillae

C) Vasa recta walls in medulla

D) Ureter walls near trigone

back 103

A. Afferent arteriole walls proximal to glomeruli

front 104

Juxtaglomerular cells are modified versions of which cell type?

A) Skeletal muscle cells

B) Smooth muscle cells

C) Podocyte epithelial cells

D) Red blood cells

back 104

B. Smooth muscle cells

front 105

When arterial pressure decreases, what happens to prorenin in juxtaglomerular cells?

A) It splits to release renin

B) It converts to aldosterone

C) It becomes angiotensinase

D) It exits through urine

back 105

A. It splits to release renin

front 106

Released renin enters renal blood and then does what?

A) Remains only in Bowman capsule

B) Circulates throughout the body

C) Enters only the ureter

D) Becomes trapped in podocytes

back 106

B. Circulates throughout the body

front 107

Angiotensinogen is also known by which term?

A) Renin substrate

B) ACE product

C) Aldosterone precursor

D) Angiotensinase substrate

back 107

A. Renin substrate

front 108

Which statement best describes angiotensin I?

A) Mild vasoconstrictor converted by ACE

B) Powerful vasodilator degraded by renin

C) Steroid hormone from adrenal cortex

D) Enzyme stored in JG cells

back 108

A. Mild vasoconstrictor converted by ACE

front 109

Angiotensin II raises total peripheral resistance mainly by acting on which vessels?

A) Arterioles

B) Veins

C) Lymphatics

D) Ureters

back 109

A. Arterioles

front 110

Angiotensin II raises venous return primarily through which effect?

A) Venous vasoconstriction

B) Venous vasodilation

C) Venous valve destruction

D) Venous protein leakage

back 110

A. Venous vasoconstriction

front 111

Angiotensin II increases extracellular fluid volume by causing which renal effect

A) Increased salt-water excretion

B) Decreased salt-water excretion

C) Increased protein filtration

D) Decreased sodium reabsorption

back 111

B. Decreased salt-water excretion

front 112

A patient with hyperaldosteronism has increased sodium retention and hypokalemia. Which adrenal layer and renal target best match aldosterone action?

A) Zona fasciculata; proximal tubule

B) Zona glomerulosa; principal cells

C) Zona reticularis; intercalated cells

D) Adrenal medulla; collecting ducts

back 112

B. Zona glomerulosa; principal cells

front 113

Angiotensin II promotes renal sodium and water retention through which combination of effects?

A) Dilates arterioles; increases urine output

B) Blocks aldosterone; inhibits tubules

C) Constricts arterioles; stimulates tubules

D) Relaxes vessels; increases natriuresis

back 113

C. Constricts arterioles; stimulates tubules

front 114

A patient eats a high-salt diet. What is the expected effect on renin release?

A) Renin rises markedly

B) Renin decreases

C) Renin becomes angiotensinogen

D) Renin release is unchanged

back 114

B. Renin decreases

front 115

Renin release increases most strongly under which condition?

A) High salt intake

B) High blood pressure

C) High extracellular volume

D) Low salt intake

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D. Low salt intake

front 116

In one-kidney Goldblatt hypertension, what causes the first rise in arterial pressure?

A) Normal renal perfusion pressure

B) Excess pressure natriuresis

C) Renin-Ang II-aldosterone activation

D) Complete aldosterone suppression

back 116

C. Renin-Ang II-aldosterone activation

front 117

In one-kidney Goldblatt hypertension, poor flow through a constricted renal artery initially causes which response?

A) Reduced renin and natriuresis

B) Increased renin and aldosterone

C) Increased GFR and diuresis

D) Reduced angiotensin II formation

back 117

B. Increased renin and aldosterone

front 118

In one-kidney Goldblatt hypertension, what sustains the second rise in arterial pressure?

A) Loss of all renal perfusion

B) Reduced sympathetic activity

C) Excess nitric oxide release

D) Salt-water retention raising pressure

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D. Salt-water retention raising pressure

front 119

Why must aortic pressure rise in one-kidney Goldblatt hypertension?

A) To suppress all aldosterone

B) To eliminate kidney blood flow

C) To normalize distal renal pressure

D) To increase ureteral pressure

back 119

C. To normalize distal renal pressure

front 120

In two-kidney Goldblatt hypertension, the ischemic kidney releases renin that causes which mediators to affect the opposite kidney?

A) NO and prostaglandins

B) EPO and calcitriol

C) Angiotensin II and aldosterone

D) ADH and oxytocin

back 120

C. Angiotensin II and aldosterone

front 121

An older patient develops renal hypertension from scattered ischemic renal tissue that secretes renin. Which cause is most likely?

A) Patchy ischemic kidney disease

B) Coarctation of the aorta

C) Acute neurogenic hypertension

D) Primary aldosteronism

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A. Patchy ischemic kidney disease

front 122

In coarctation of the aorta, why can blood flow in arms and legs remain approximately normal long term?

A) Renin stops completely

B) Local autoregulation compensates

C) ADH blocks vascular resistance

D) Baroreceptors regenerate arteries

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B. Local autoregulation compensates

front 123

In preeclampsia, endothelial dysfunction decreases nitric oxide release. Which renal-pressure consequence follows?

A) Improved natriuresis

B) Impaired pressure natriuresis

C) Increased GFR only

D) Complete salt wasting

back 123

B. Impaired pressure natriuresis

front 124

Where do carotid and aortic baroreceptor nerves connect in the brainstem?

A) Pons

B) Hypothalamus

C) Tractus solitarius

D) Cerebellar cortex

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C. Tractus solitarius

front 125

Loss of normal baroreceptor signals causes the vasomotor center to do what?

A) Become less active

B) Stop sympathetic output

C) Release renin directly

D) Become more active

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D. Become more active

front 126

Obesity-related sympathetic activation impairs which renal pressure mechanism

A) Glomerular protein restriction

B) Ureterorenal reflex

C) Pressure natriuresis

D) Micturition reflex

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C. Pressure natriuresis

front 127

Which mechanism can cause monogenic hypertension by directly altering renal tubular epithelial cells?

A) Reduced adipose blood flow

B) Increased nitric oxide release

C) Increased Na or Cl transport

D) Decreased aldosterone synthesis

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C. Increased Na or Cl transport

front 128

Some monogenic hypertension syndromes increase synthesis or activity of hormones that stimulate what?

A) Renal tubular salt-water reabsorption

B) Renal tubular salt-water excretion

C) Pulmonary vascular relaxation

D) Cerebral baroreceptor firing

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A. Renal tubular salt-water reabsorption

front 129

Which set correctly lists obesity-related causes of primary hypertension?

A) Lower CO; lower SNS; natriuresis

B) Higher CO; higher SNS; impaired natriuresis

C) Lower RAAS; lower adipose flow; diuresis

D) Lower leptin; lower Ang II; salt wasting

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B. Higher CO; higher SNS; impaired natriuresis

front 130

In obesity-associated primary hypertension, why is cardiac output increased?

A) Extra fat requires blood flow

B) Baroreceptors stop firing

C) Aldosterone is completely absent

D) Kidneys excrete more sodium

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A. Extra fat requires blood flow

front 131

In obesity, increased leptin release is linked to which hypertension-promoting effect?

A) Reduced sympathetic activity

B) Increased sympathetic activity

C) Increased pressure natriuresis

D) Reduced cardiac output

back 131

B. Increased sympathetic activity

front 132

With high salt intake, which essential hypertension subtype can operate at higher arterial pressures?

A) Salt-insensitive essential hypertension

B) Salt-sensitive essential hypertension

C) Acute neurogenic hypertension

D) One-kidney Goldblatt hypertension

back 132

B. Salt-sensitive essential hypertension

front 133

During severe bleeding, which pressure control responses are classified as nervous reflex responses?

A) Baroreceptors, CNS, chemoreceptors

B) Aldosterone, ADH, thirst

C) RAAS, stress relaxation, fluid shift

D) Diuresis, natriuresis, autoregulation

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A. Baroreceptors, CNS, chemoreceptors

front 134

Which long-term mechanism helps restore arterial pressure and blood volume over days to years after severe bleeding?

A) Baroreceptor firing

B) Chemoreceptor activation

C) CNS ischemic response

D) Aldosterone

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D. Aldosterone