front 1 The two components of anxiety are: A. Memory loss and avoidance | back 1 B. Autonomic awareness and fear awareness |
front 2 Anxiety is best described as: A. Loss of contact with reality | back 2 D. A response to upcoming fear |
front 3 Anxiety disorders beginning in childhood are especially concerning because they may: A. Cause pirmarily brief distress | back 3 D. Impair later social and work function |
front 4 Which symptom cluster most strongly reflects autonomic manifestations of anxiety? A. Headache, sweating, palpitations | back 4 A. Headache, sweating, palpitations |
front 5 Which finding best represents a motor symptom of anxiety? A. Hyperreflexia | back 5 B. Restlessness |
front 6 A patient in acute anxiety says thoughts are “moving too fast.” This is best described as: A. Rapid thoughts | back 6 A. Rapid thoughts |
front 7 Progression from anxiety to severe anxiety is most associated with: A. Disorganized thinking | back 7 A. Disorganized thinking |
front 8 Which statement best fits extreme anxiety? A. Speech becomes pressured only | back 8 C. Thinking clearly becomes difficult |
front 9 During a panic attack, which speech pattern may occur? A. Echolalia and clangs | back 9 D. Rumination and stammering |
front 10 Acute anxiety most often focuses thoughts on: A. A perceived cause | back 10 A. A perceived cause |
front 11 A patient with anxiety interprets minor chest discomfort as impending death. This most reflects: A. Somatic passivity | back 11 B. Catastrophizing danger |
front 12 During panic attacks, feared death is often attributed to which systems? A. Cardiac or respiratory | back 12 A. Cardiac or respiratory |
front 13 A patient says, “These palpitations mean I’m dying.” This best shows: A. Reality testing intact | back 13 C. Misreading symptoms as fatal |
front 14 Chronic anxiety is most associated with: A. Expansive thinking | back 14 D. More negative thinking |
front 15 Severe anxiety may distort perception of all except: A. Time and space | back 15 D. Location and olfaction |
front 16 Which cognitive effect is most expected in severe anxiety? A. Hypercalculia | back 16 D. Poor focus and recall |
front 17 An anxious patient selectively notices only threatening cues and ignores reassuring details. This best describes: A. Environmental overinterpretation | back 17 B. Selective interpretation bias |
front 18 Why might an anxious patient focus only on selected environmental details? A. To justify their reaction | back 18 A. To justify their reaction |
front 19 Which statement about suicide risk in anxiety is most accurate? A. Risk is absent | back 19 D. Risk may rise despite silence |
front 20 Which combination best distinguishes severe from acute anxiety? A. Better clarity and calm | back 20 B. Confusion with distorted perception |
front 21 Compared with typical adults, which groups may present with more somatic symptoms of anxiety disorders? A. Children and elderly | back 21 A. Children and elderly |
front 22 A patient has sudden episodes of intense anxiety with feelings of impending doom. Which diagnosis is most directly suggested? A. Specific phobia | back 22 B. Panic disorder |
front 23 Panic disorder classically occurs with: A. Emotional blunting | back 23 B. Intense fear |
front 24 Which pattern of attack frequency is most consistent with panic disorder? A. Two weekly episodes | back 24 D. Several daily to yearly |
front 25 Panic disorder commonly presents with which comorbidity? A. Mania | back 25 C. Agoraphobia |
front 26 Agoraphobia is best described as fear or anxiety about: A. Being judged publicly | back 26 C. Hard-to-escape places |
front 27 A panic attack is best defined as a: A. Chronic state of dread | back 27 B. Sudden intense fear episode |
front 28 Panic attacks usually last: A. Seconds only | back 28 C. Minutes to hours |
front 29 Diagnosis of panic attacks requires symptoms from which domains? A. Sleep, appetite, pain | back 29 B. Somatic, cognitive, mood |
front 30 Panic attacks can also occur as part of: A. Dementia or delirium | back 30 D. Phobias or PTSD |
front 31 Which statement about panic attacks and triggers is most accurate? A. Always have clear triggers | back 31 C. May or may not |
front 32 Which statement about unexpected panic attacks is most accurate? A. They are very rare | back 32 B. They are not uncommon |
front 33 Situationally predisposed panic attacks are best described as attacks that: A. Occur only during sleep | back 33 D. Blur expected and unexpected |
front 34 A patient sometimes panics with a trigger, but other times only after a delay. This best fits: A. Unexpected panic attack | back 34 B. Situationally predisposed attack |
front 35 Based on the visible DSM-5 note, panic disorder diagnosis requires: A. Recurrent expected attacks | back 35 B. Recurrent unexpected attacks |
front 36 Agoraphobia most impairs functioning in which settings? A. Work and outside social settings | back 36 A. Work and outside social settings |
front 37 A patient insists on leaving home only with a relative, especially when going somewhere crowded. Which diagnosis is most suggested? A. Social anxiety disorder | back 37 B. Agoraphobia |
front 38 Severe agoraphobia may lead a patient to: A. Refuse to leave home | back 38 A. Refuse to leave home |
front 39 What common theme links many agoraphobic situations? A. Fear of contamination only | back 39 B. Separation from safety and home |
front 40 A patient has intense persistent fear of elevators because they are perceived as dangerous. Which diagnosis best fits? A. Panic disorder | back 40 C. Specific phobia |
front 41 At the thought of encountering the feared object, a patient immediately anticipates harm and panic. This is most characteristic of: A. Specific phobia | back 41 A. Specific phobia |
front 42 In specific phobia, the feared object is typically viewed as: A. Neutral but unfamiliar | back 42 B. Harmful or dangerous |
front 43 In specific phobia, anxiety most commonly occurs: A. After exposure to stimulus | back 43 A. After exposure to stimulus |
front 44 The behavioral result of specific phobia is usually: A. Emotional numbing or painful endurance | back 44 B. Avoidance or painful endurance |
front 45 Which minimum duration most supports a phobia diagnosis as a disorder? A. 2 weeks | back 45 D. 6 months |
front 46 Which finding best distinguishes agoraphobia from specific phobia? A. Fear linked to hard escape | back 46 A. Fear linked to hard escape |
front 47 Which finding best distinguishes specific phobia from panic disorder? A. Unexpected attacks occur | back 47 B. Fear centers on one object |
front 48 A child presents mainly with headache, stomach upset, and palpitations rather than verbalized fear. This is most consistent with which principle? A. Panic attacks need mania | back 48 B. Special populations show more somatic symptoms |
front 49 Which description best matches a patient with agoraphobia rather than panic disorder alone? A. Fears snakes specifically | back 49 B. Avoids malls and subways |
front 50 A patient with panic attacks says some attacks are unprovoked, while others seem loosely tied to a setting but not reliably. This pattern is best described as: A. Purely expected attacks | back 50 C. Unexpected plus situationally predisposed |
front 51 A 19-year-old student avoids class presentations because she fears blushing, stammering, and being judged by peers. Which diagnosis best fits? A. Panic disorder | back 51 B. Social anxiety disorder |
front 52 A patient reports marked fear whenever he must interact with unfamiliar people at networking events. This most strongly supports fear of: A. Contact with strangers | back 52 A. Contact with strangers |
front 53 Which situation is most characteristic of social anxiety disorder? A. Fear of myocardial death | back 53 C. Fear of social scrutiny |
front 54 A woman says, “I can go to restaurants, but I panic if anyone watches me eat.” This presentation best illustrates: A. Recurrent unexpected panic | back 54 B. Performance-specific social fear |
front 55 Which thought is most typical of social anxiety disorder? A. “I may be rejected.” | back 55 A. “I may be rejected.” |
front 56 A patient has no fear of the speech itself, but intense fear of embarrassing himself while speaking. This most strongly reflects fear of: A. Motor symptoms | back 56 C. Embarrassment in social settings |
front 57 Which feature best distinguishes social anxiety disorder from ordinary shyness? A. Clinically significant impairment | back 57 A. Clinically significant impairment |
front 58 Social anxiety disorder can involve which pattern of feared situations? A. Only broad social fear | back 58 C. Specific or nonspecific embarrassment fears |
front 59 A man avoids dating, interviews, and group discussions because he expects humiliation. The central psychopathology is best described as: A. Fear of social situations | back 59 A. Fear of social situations |
front 60 A resident worries constantly about work, finances, family, health, and future plans nearly every day for months. Which diagnosis best fits? A. Social anxiety disorder | back 60 D. Generalized anxiety disorder |
front 61 Which time course best supports generalized anxiety disorder? A. Two weeks of severe fear | back 61 B. Six months of pervasive worry |
front 62 In generalized anxiety disorder, worry is usually directed toward: A. One circumscribed object | back 62 C. Several events or activities |
front 63 A patient with GAD reports muscle tightness, poor sleep, irritability, and feeling keyed up. These symptoms are best categorized as: A. Somatic accompaniments of worry | back 63 A. Somatic accompaniments of worry |
front 64 Which symptom is specifically associated with generalized anxiety disorder in your material? A. Grandiosity | back 64 B. Restlessness |
front 65 A patient with generalized anxiety says, “Every small issue feels like it could become a disaster.” This best reflects: A. Catastrophic expectation | back 65 A. Catastrophic expectation |
front 66 Which statement best captures a key cognitive feature of generalized anxiety disorder? A. Worries stay neatly compartmentalized | back 66 C. The patient cannot prioritize worries |
front 67 A patient’s excessive worry interferes with handling urgent real-life problems because minor concerns cannot be set aside. This most strongly indicates: A. Flight of ideas | back 67 B. Impaired prioritization |
front 68 What is a hallmark of generalized anxiety disorder rather than normal worry? A. Hard-to-control worry causing impairment | back 68 A. Hard-to-control worry causing impairment |
front 69 Which statement best differentiates generalized anxiety disorder from panic disorder? A. GAD is always trigger-specific | back 69 C. GAD involves chronic excessive worry |
front 70 Which presentation most strongly suggests social anxiety disorder rather than generalized anxiety disorder? A. Diffuse worry about many domains | back 70 C. Fear of scrutiny while eating |
front 71 The key question to distinguish panic disorder from social anxiety disorder is whether the patient primarily fears: A. Being judged while speaking | back 71 B. Having another panic attack |
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front 73 Which psychiatric disorder is the most common cause of agoraphobia? A. Specific phobia | back 73 B. Panic disorder |
front 74 Panic attacks should prompt consideration of which endocrine disorder? A. Hypothyroidism | back 74 D. All of the above |
front 75 Episodic hypoglycemia causing panic-like episodes should raise suspicion for: A. Insulinoma | back 75 A. Insulinoma |
front 76 A panic-like presentation may actually reflect a primary neurologic process such as: A. Seizure disorder | back 76 A. Seizure disorder |
front 77 Which cardiopulmonary condition can mimic panic attacks? A. Asthma | back 77 A. Asthma |
front 78 Which feature is most atypical for primary panic disorder and should suggest another diagnosis? A. Sweating | back 78 C. Ataxia |
front 79 Panic disorder commonly coexists with which mood feature? A. Grandiosity | back 79 B. Depressive symptoms |
front 80 Which disorder may coexist with panic disorder? A. OCD | back 80 A. OCD |
front 81 Which additional comorbidity can occur in patients with panic disorder? A. Alcohol use disorder | back 81 A. Alcohol use disorder |
front 82 Which event may precipitate later panic attacks after an initial spontaneous episode? A. Physical exertion | back 82 A. Physical exertion |
front 83 Which mental symptom is most characteristic of a panic attack? A. Thought insertion | back 83 B. Extreme fear and doom |
front 84 During a panic attack, patients often cannot identify the source of fear and may also have: A. Hypergraphia and echolalia | back 84 B. Confusion and poor concentration |
front 85 Which physical sign is commonly seen during a panic attack? A. Dyspnea | back 85 A. Dyspnea |
front 86 Panic disorder most commonly begins in: A. Early childhood | back 86 B. Late adolescence |
front 87 Most cases of panic disorder are associated with: A. Clear psychosocial stressors | back 87 B. No identifiable stressors |
front 88 Panic disorder is best described as: A. Brief and self-limited | back 88 C. Chronic |
front 89 Between panic attacks, patients often experience: A. Anticipatory anxiety | back 89 A. Anticipatory anxiety |
front 90 The frequency and severity of panic attacks typically: A. Stay fixed over time | back 90 B. Fluctuate |
front 91 Excessive intake of which substances can worsen panic symptoms? A. Caffeine and nicotine | back 91 A. Caffeine and nicotine |
front 92 Which treatment most rapidly and completely reduces agoraphobia? A. Behavioral therapy | back 92 A. Behavioral therapy |
front 93 Agoraphobia without a history of panic disorder is often: A. Mild and transient | back 93 B. Incapacitating and chronic |
front 94 Which comorbid conditions may complicate the course of panic disorder? A. Depression and alcohol misuse | back 94 A. Depression and alcohol misuse |
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front 96 Most anxiety disorders have which overall course? A. Single episode, full remission | back 96 B. Chronic with multiple relapses |
front 97 Generalized anxiety disorder is notable for: A. Single lifelong episode | back 97 B. Multiple relapses |
front 98 Most of these anxiety disorders are associated with increased risk of: A. Stroke | back 98 B. Suicide |
front 99 Which group best represents the psychosocial therapies listed for anxiety disorders? A. Psychodynamic, somatic, analytic | back 99 C. CBT, behavioral, interpersonal |
front 100 A patient with social anxiety disorder avoids conversations and presentations because of fear of embarrassment. Which treatment is listed as first-line? A. Supportive psychotherapy | back 100 D. Individual CBT |
front 101 Which psychotherapy format is specifically noted as useful for social anxiety when CBT techniques are used? A. Group psychotherapy using CBT | back 101 A. Group psychotherapy using CBT |
front 102 A patient with a specific phobia of dogs is treated by directly encountering the feared stimulus in real life. Which method is this? A. Systematic desensitization | back 102 B. In vivo exposure |
front 103 In panic disorder, cognitive therapy most directly focuses on correcting: A. Poor autobiographical memory | back 103 D. False beliefs about panic |
front 104 A patient says, “Every panic attack means I’m dying.” Which explanation is central to cognitive therapy? A. Attacks are time-limited | back 104 A. Attacks are time-limited |
front 105 Which statement best captures a core idea of behavioral therapy? A. Symptoms need dream analysis | back 105 C. Change can occur without insight |
front 106 Which pair is explicitly listed among behavioral techniques? A. Transference and confrontation | back 106 B. Positive and negative reinforcement |
front 107 A therapist pairs relaxation with progressively more anxiety-provoking cues. Which technique is this? A. Flooding | back 107 D. Systematic desensitization |
front 108 Which set consists only of exposure-based behavioral techniques named in the material? A. Flooding, implosion, graded exposure | back 108 A. Flooding, implosion, graded exposure |
front 109 Which trio is specifically listed under behavioral therapy? A. Dream work, hypnosis, abreaction | back 109 C. Response prevention, thought stopping, relaxation |
front 110 Which set is explicitly included among behavioral methods? A. Avatar work, exposure, advice | back 110 B. Panic control, self-monitoring, hypnosis |
front 111 A patient with a snake phobia is gradually exposed to snake-related stimuli while practicing relaxation skills. Which principle is being used? A. Gradual exposure with relaxation | back 111 A. Gradual exposure with relaxation |
front 112 Interpersonal psychotherapy for social anxiety mainly provides: A. Direct in vivo exposure | back 112 D. Interpersonal skills training |
front 113 In interpersonal psychotherapy, socially anxious patients are often viewed as having: A. Primary perceptual distortions | back 113 B. Interpersonal deficits |
front 114 A patient with agoraphobia practices coping in a simulated crowded station before entering one in real life. Which treatment is this? A. Virtual therapy | back 114 A. Virtual therapy |
front 115 In virtual therapy, patients often identify with what during computer sessions? A. Therapists | back 115 D. Avatars |
front 116 Supportive psychotherapy is primarily used to promote: A. Unstructured catharsis | back 116 B. Adaptive coping |
front 117 In supportive psychotherapy, adaptive defenses are generally: A. Weakened to reveal conflict | back 117 C. Encouraged and strengthened |
front 118 Which therapist action is specifically part of supportive psychotherapy? A. Promote transference neurosis | back 118 D. Assist reality testing |
front 119 A therapist helps a patient reality-test anxious beliefs and also gives behavioral advice. Which therapy does this best describe? A. Supportive psychotherapy | back 119 A. Supportive psychotherapy |
front 120 Insight-oriented psychotherapy mainly seeks greater insight into: A. Reward schedules | back 120 B. Psychological conflicts |
front 121 In insight-oriented psychotherapy, unresolved conflicts are understood to manifest as: A. Endocrine dysregulation | back 121 C. Symptomatic behavior |
front 122 Epidemiologic studies of anxiety disorders most consistently show higher rates in: A. Men | back 122 C. Women |
front 123 Anxiety disorders most commonly begin during: A. Childhood or adolescence | back 123 A. Childhood or adolescence |
front 124 The median age of onset for anxiety disorders is closest to: A. 6 years | back 124 D. 12 years |
front 125 Which anxiety-disorder group is most stable over time? A. Panic disorders | back 125 B. Phobic disorders |
front 126 Panic disorder and generalized anxiety disorder most classically follow which course? A. Exacerbations and remissions | back 126 A. Exacerbations and remissions |
front 127 Anxiety disorders are more common in individuals with: A. Higher educational level | back 127 C. Lower socioeconomic status |
front 128 Genetic studies support which broad conclusion about major anxiety disorders? A. Purely environmental origin | back 128 D. Familial aggregation exists |
front 129 Familial risk in panic disorder is strongest for: A. Late-onset panic disorder | back 129 B. Early-onset panic disorder |
front 130 In social anxiety disorder, familial loading is strongest for the: A. Generalized subtype | back 130 A. Generalized subtype |
front 131 Which statement best describes the search for anxiety genes? A. Highly penetrant genes identified | back 131 C. Findings remain inconsistent |
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front 133 Which set has been most studied in anxiety neuroimaging? A. Basal ganglia, thalamus, pons | back 133 D. Amygdala, frontoamygdala, vlPFC |
front 134 The hippocampus is especially important in: A. Fear learning and extinction | back 134 A. Fear learning and extinction |
front 135 In patients with phobias, increased activity has been described in which additional regions? A. Cerebellum and occipital pole | back 135 C. OFC, insula, vlPFC |
front 136 Neurochemical models of anxiety most emphasize: A. Cholinergic and histaminergic systems | back 136 B. Noradrenergic, 5-HT, dopamine, GABA |
front 137 PET and fMRI studies most strongly implicate which circuit set in anxiety disorders? A. Motor cortex, caudate, pons | back 137 D. Amygdala, vmPFC, hippocampus |
front 138 In resting-state panic disorder, abnormalities most strongly implicate: A. Insular and striatal regions | back 138 B. Hippocampal and parahippocampal areas |
front 139 During an acute panic state, imaging most often shows: A. Increased PFC with thalamic loss | back 139 B. Insular/striatal activity, reduced PFC |
front 140 Structural MRI in panic disorder has suggested abnormalities of gray-matter volume in: A. Frontal and parietal regions | back 140 D. Parahippocampal and temporal regions |
front 141 MRI studies of brain lactate in panic disorder suggest an exaggerated response to: A. Hypocapnia | back 141 A. Hypocapnia Hyperventilation → ↓ CO₂ (hypocapnia) |
front 142 The exaggerated lactate-related response in panic disorder has been interpreted as supporting a: A. vestibular model | back 142 B. suffocation response |
front 143 SPECT binding studies in panic disorder have found abnormalities involving: A. Dopamine and glutamate | back 143 D. GABA and 5-HT1A SPECT studies in panic disorder point to abnormalities in:
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front 144 In specific phobias, symptom-provocation studies most strongly suggest activation of: A. Basal ganglia and cerebellum | back 144 C. Anterior paralimbic and sensory cortices
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front 145 In social anxiety disorder, neuroimaging shows exaggerated responses to social stimuli in the: A. medial temporal lobe | back 145 A. medial temporal lobe |
front 146 Which structure is especially hyperresponsive to social threats in social anxiety disorder? A. Hippocampus | back 146 B. Amygdala |
front 147 In a classic conditioning experiment, a tone is repeatedly paired with an electric shock. After learning, the tone alone triggers fear. The tone is best classified as the: A. unconditioned stimulus | back 147 B. conditioned stimulus |
front 148 In the same experiment, the electric shock is the: A. conditioned stimulus | back 148 C. unconditioned stimulus |
front 149 Before conditioning occurs, the auditory tone is initially a: A. neutral stimulus | back 149 A. neutral stimulus |
front 150 Repeated pairing of a tone with shock leads the animal to fear the tone. This process is called: A. extinction | back 150 B. conditioning |
front 151 After successful Pavlovian fear conditioning, presentation of the tone alone most likely produces: A. loss of arousal | back 151 C. conditioned fear |
front 152 If the conditioned stimulus is repeatedly presented without the unconditioned stimulus, the animal eventually stops linking them. This is called: A. generalization | back 152 D. extinction |
front 153 Which statement best describes early life stressors in anxiety etiology? A. Prevent later anxiety disorders | back 153 B. Predispose to later anxiety |
front 154 Connections between the thalamus and which amygdala region are central to fear conditioning for sensory stimuli? A. lateral nucleus | back 154 A. lateral nucleus |
front 155 The most extensive projections from the lateral amygdala go to which nuclei, helping form long-lasting fear traces? A. central nuclei | back 155 B. basal nuclei |
front 156 Which amygdala components organize the behavioral responses reflecting the summed activity of many nuclei? A. basal nuclei | back 156 C. output nuclei |
front 157 The central nucleus of the amygdala projects most directly to systems involved in expressing fear through: A. language and praxis | back 157 D. motor autonomic neuroendocrine pathways |
front 158 Which structure can activate CRH to stimulate the stress response? A. cerebellum | back 158 C. hypothalamus |
front 159 In addition to fear learning and extinction, the hippocampus helps develop: A. emotional responses linked to fear | back 159 A. emotional responses linked to fear |
front 160 Which brain regions are specifically named as targets of central amygdala output in fear expression? A. thalamus, cortex, caudate | back 160 C. hypothalamus, midbrain, medulla |
front 161 A 28-year-old with panic symptoms, generalized worry, and social avoidance needs initial pharmacotherapy. What is first-line for most anxiety disorders? A. Quetiapine | back 161 C. SSRI |
front 162 For most anxiety disorders, the most conservative medication strategy is to begin with: A. SSRI | back 162 A. SSRI |
front 163 A patient cannot take an SSRI and needs a common non-SSRI option for anxiety. Which drug fits? A. Mirtazapine | back 163 B. Venlafaxine |
front 164 Tricyclic antidepressants are generally used less often in anxiety disorders mainly because of: A. Poor efficacy | back 164 D. Side effects |
front 165 A patient with anxiety and marked insomnia may benefit from which agent partly because of its sedative effect? A. Mirtazapine | back 165 A. Mirtazapine |
front 166 Which medication class is described as the most popular treatment for anxiety disorders overall? A. SSRIs | back 166 C. Benzodiazepines |
front 167 Best use of benzodiazepines in most anxiety disorders is: A. First-line monotherapy | back 167 B. Short-term adjunct or acute use |
front 168 Long-term benzodiazepine therapy should generally be considered only in patients who: A. Prefer rapid relief | back 168 D. Fail or cannot tolerate SSRIs |
front 169 Which concern most limits long-term benzodiazepine use? A. Dependence and cognitive effects | back 169 A. Dependence and cognitive effects |
front 170 Which statement about benzodiazepines is most accurate? A. Tolerance always develops quickly | back 170 C. Anxiolytic tolerance does not develop |
front 171 Antipsychotics and anticonvulsants are generally not recommended as: A. Maintenance therapy | back 171 B. Initial therapy |
front 172 Which drug is listed as a second-line treatment for generalized anxiety disorder in these notes? A. Hydroxyzine | back 172 D. Quetiapine Quetiapine (an atypical antipsychotic) is sometimes used as a second-line option for GAD, especially when first-line treatments (SSRIs/SNRIs, buspirone) are ineffective or not tolerated. |
front 173 Which drug is effective for generalized anxiety disorder and can also be added to antidepressants for other anxiety disorders? A. Buspirone | back 173 A. Buspirone |
front 174 A violinist becomes tremulous only before solo performances. Which medication is especially useful? A. Hydroxyzine | back 174 C. Propranolol |
front 175 A patient needs acute anxiety relief but wants to avoid benzodiazepines. Which alternative is listed? A. Venlafaxine | back 175 B. Hydroxyzine Hydroxyzine is an antihistamine that provides rapid, short-term anxiolysis and is commonly used as a non-benzodiazepine option for acute anxiety. |
front 176 A patient in severe acute distress needs very rapid symptomatic control while long-term treatment is being started. Which class is most useful? A. SSRIs | back 176 D. Benzodiazepines |
front 177 Which short-term agents are specifically named as helpful benzodiazepines? A. Lorazepam or alprazolam | back 177 A. Lorazepam or alprazolam |
front 178 First-line pharmacotherapy options for panic disorder include: A. TCA or MAOI | back 178 B. SSRI or venlafaxine |
front 179 Which statement about panic-disorder pharmacotherapy is most accurate? A. MAOIs are first choice | back 179 D. TCAs and MAOIs are less preferred |
front 180 Which medication is listed as a second-line option for panic disorder? A. Mirtazapine | back 180 A. Mirtazapine |
front 181 In panic disorder, long-term antidepressant treatment is most helpful for: A. Preventing dependence | back 181 C. Preventing relapse |
front 182 When stopping maintenance therapy for panic disorder, it should be discontinued: A. Abruptly after remission | back 182 B. Very slowly |
front 183 First-line treatment for generalized anxiety disorder is: A. Mirtazapine or TCA | back 183 D. SSRI or SNRI |
front 184 Which drug is effective in generalized anxiety disorder but rarely used because of side effects? A. Phenelzine | back 184 A. Phenelzine Phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) that can be effective for anxiety disorders, including GAD, but is rarely used due to significant drawbacks: risk of hypertensive crisis with tyramine-containing foods, multiple drug interactions, etc |
front 185 A patient has a circumscribed fear of bridges without broader panic symptoms. First-choice treatment is: A. SSRI | back 185 C. Behavioral psychotherapy |
front 186 In agoraphobia, treatment should especially address: A. Chronic insomnia | back 186 B. Comorbid panic attacks |