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Phys 37

front 1

After a small vessel is ruptured, which immediate response reflects intrinsic smooth muscle contraction of the vessel wall itself?

A. Endothelial budding
B. Fibrin polymerization
C. Myogenic spasm
D. Leukocyte rolling

back 1

C. Myogenic spasm

front 2

Damaged tissue can promote early postinjury vasoconstriction through locally released:

A. Autacoid factors
B. Fibrin monomers
C. Plasmin fragments
D. Acute phase proteins

back 2

A. Autacoid factors

front 3

Which mechanism represents a contribution to immediate vasoconstriction after vascular injury?

A. Collagen exposure
B. Platelet degranulation
C. Fibrin cross-linking
D. Nervous reflexes

back 3

D. Nervous reflexes

front 4

Ongoing platelet activity helps narrow a recently injured vessel by releasing:

A. Fibrinopeptide B
B. Thromboxane A2
C. Protein C
D. Tissue plasminogen

back 4

B. Thromboxane A2

front 5

A superficial capillary nick stops bleeding before a stable fibrin mesh develops. The defect was most likely sealed initially by a:

A. Platelet plug
B. Fibrin reticulum
C. Fibroblast scar
D. Red cell cast

back 5

A. Platelet plug

front 6

Circulating thrombocytes arise from fragmentation of:

A. Myeloblasts
B. Hepatocytes
C. Megakaryocytes
D. Endothelial cells

back 6

C. Megakaryocytes

front 7

Which platelet contractile protein is most directly involved in clot contraction?

A. Talin
B. Spectrin
C. Fibrillin
D. Thrombosthenin

back 7

D. Thrombosthenin

front 8

After endothelial denudation, platelets adhere most directly to exposed:

A. Collagen and fibrin
B. Collagen and vWF
C. Elastin and albumin
D. Laminin and plasmin

back 8

B. Collagen and vWF

front 9

Platelet surface glycoproteins participate in adhesion by binding:

A. von Willebrand factor
B. Tissue factor
C. Antithrombin III
D. High-molecular kininogen

back 9

A. von Willebrand factor

front 10

Early during platelet aggregation, activated platelets release:

A. Protein C and S
B. Heparin and plasmin
C. ADP and PAF
D. Fibrin and factor XIII

back 10

C. ADP and PAF

front 11

Which group most directly amplifies recruitment of nearby platelets at an injury site?

A. Factor XII, prekallikrein, HMWK
B. Thrombin, protein C, plasmin
C. Serotonin, albumin, fibrin
D. ADP, PAF, TXA2

back 11

D. ADP, PAF, TXA2

front 12

A thrombocytopenic patient develops multiple pinpoint hemorrhages under the skin. These lesions are termed:

A. Ecchymoses
B. Petechiae
C. Telangiectasias
D. Hematomas

back 12

B. Petechiae

front 13

A formed clot that becomes organized during healing is most likely to undergo:

A. Invasion by fibroblasts
B. Hyaline degeneration
C. Neutrophilic cavitation
D. Endothelial exfoliation

back 13

A. Invasion by fibroblasts

front 14

A small clot that disappears rather than becoming organized has most likely undergone:

A. Ossification
B. Encapsulation
C. Fatty change
D. Dissolution

back 14

D. Dissolution

front 15

The first general step in coagulation is:

A. Fibrin cross-linking
B. Prothrombin activator formation
C. Platelet plug retraction
D. Plasmin generation

back 15

B. Prothrombin activator formation

front 16

The second general step of coagulation is best described as:

A. Factor XIII activation
B. Fibrin stabilization
C. Prothrombin to thrombin
D. Plasminogen to plasmin

back 16

C. Prothrombin to thrombin

front 17

The final general step in clot formation is:

A. Fibrinogen to fibrin
B. Factor X to Xa
C. Platelet adhesion to collagen
D. Prothrombin synthesis

back 17

A. Fibrinogen to fibrin

front 18

Factor Xa most directly converts prothrombin to thrombin in the presence of sufficient:

A. ADP
B. vWF
C. Fibrinogen
D. Ca2+

back 18

D. Ca2+

front 19

The rate-limiting event in blood coagulation is the formation of:

A. Thrombin
B. Fibrin monomers
C. Prothrombin activator
D. Cross-linked fibrin

back 19

C. Prothrombin activator

front 20

Prothrombin is synthesized primarily in the:

A. Spleen
B. Liver
C. Bone marrow
D. Vascular endothelium

back 20

B. Liver

front 21

A patient with impaired vitamin-dependent hepatic clotting function would have defective normal activation of prothrombin because the liver requires vitamin:

A. K
B. C
C. B6
D. E

back 21

A. K

front 22

Fibrinogen is synthesized primarily in the:

A. Spleen
B. Platelet granules
C. Bone marrow
D. Liver

back 22

A. Spleen

front 23

In coagulation, thrombin functions primarily as a:

A. Carrier protein
B. Protease
C. Kinase
D. Phosphatase

back 23

B. Protease

front 24

Once fibrin strands are formed, the reticulum is strengthened by:

A. Thromboxane A2
B. Platelet factor 4
C. Fibrin stabilizing factor
D. Tissue factor inhibitor

back 24

C. Fibrin stabilizing factor

front 25

A laboratory specimen forms a clot but fails to retract appropriately. This finding most strongly suggests decreased:

A. Circulating platelets
B. Vitamin K stores
C. Hepatic fibrinogen
D. Plasma calcium

back 25

A. Circulating platelets

front 26

In this material, fibrin stabilizing factor is released by:

A. Hepatocytes
B. Neutrophils
C. Endothelium
D. Platelets

back 26

D. Platelets

front 27

Thrombin exerts what effect on its own generation?

A. No meaningful feedback
B. Positive feedback
C. Negative feedback
D. Delayed inhibition

back 27

B. Positive feedback

front 28

A patient with extensive soft-tissue trauma develops rapid coagulation through the pathway initiated outside the bloodstream. Which pathway is most directly involved?

A. Common pathway
B. Intrinsic pathway
C. Extrinsic pathway
D. Fibrinolytic pathway

back 28

C. Extrinsic pathway

front 29

In contrast to the extrinsic pathway, the intrinsic pathway is best characterized by which initiating feature?

A. Begins in the blood
B. Starts in the liver
C. Requires fibrinolysis first
D. Needs mast cell rupture

back 29

A. Begins in the blood

front 30

A crush injury to skeletal muscle rapidly activates coagulation because trauma to the vascular wall and surrounding tissues preferentially triggers the:

A. Protein C pathway
B. Extrinsic pathway
C. Intrinsic pathway
D. Plasmin pathway

back 30

B. Extrinsic pathway

front 31

The first major event in the extrinsic pathway is release of:

A. Prekallikrein
B. Platelet factor 4
C. Tissue factor
D. Factor VIII

back 31

C. Tissue factor

front 32

Traumatized tissue releases which substance to initiate the extrinsic cascade?

A. Thromboplastin
B. Plasminogen
C. Thrombomodulin
D. Antithrombin III

back 32

A. Thromboplastin

front 33

In the extrinsic pathway, tissue factor complexes with which factor before activation of factor X?

A. Factor V
B. Factor VII
C. Factor IX
D. Factor XI

back 33

B. Factor VII

front 34

In tissue injury, factor X is most directly converted to Xa by the combination of:

A. VIIIa and IXa
B. XIIa and XIa
C. V and calcium
D. VII and tissue factor

back 34

D. VII and tissue factor

front 35

Which event occurs immediately after factor X activation in the extrinsic pathway?

A. Fibrin degradation
B. Prothrombin synthesis
C. Xa forms prothrombin activator
D. XI converts to XIa

back 35

C. Xa forms prothrombin activator

front 36

In the extrinsic pathway, prothrombin is split to thrombin in the presence of:

A. HMW kininogen
B. Platelet factor 3
C. Calcium
D. Oxalate

back 36

C. Calcium

front 37

Which factor accelerates protease activity in the extrinsic pathway and promotes more clotting by positive feedback?

A. Factor II
B. Factor V
C. Factor VIII
D. Factor XII

back 37

B. Factor V

front 38

A coagulation defect selectively impairing the accelerating factor of the extrinsic pathway would most directly involve:

A. Factor V
B. Factor VII
C. Factor IX
D. Factor XIII

back 38

A. Factor V

front 39

A researcher compares clotting pathways and notes one is triggered by trauma to blood itself or exposure of blood to collagen. This describes the:

A. Extrinsic pathway
B. Fibrinolytic pathway
C. Intrinsic pathway
D. Protein C pathway

back 39

C. Intrinsic pathway

front 40

Exposure of blood to subendothelial collagen most directly instigates the:

A. Extrinsic pathway
B. Intrinsic pathway
C. Common pathway only
D. Plasmin pathway

back 40

B. Intrinsic pathway

front 41

The earliest intrinsic-pathway event after blood trauma is activation of factor XII along with release of:

A. Protein C
B. Platelet phospholipids
C. Antithrombin III
D. Tissue factor

back 41

B. Platelet phospholipids

front 42

When blood trauma occurs, platelet phospholipids release:

A. PF3
B. PGI2
C. t-PA
D. vWF

back 42

A. PF3

front 43

In the intrinsic pathway, factor XIIa converts factor XI to XIa only in the presence of:

A. Tissue factor
B. Antithrombin III
C. HMW kininogen
D. Protein S

back 43

C. HMW kininogen

front 44

Which substance accelerates the conversion of factor XI to XIa during intrinsic coagulation?

A. Citrate
B. Prekallikrein
C. Oxalate
D. Thrombomodulin

back 44

B. Prekallikrein

front 45

In the intrinsic pathway, factor XIa most directly converts:

A. VIII to VIIIa
B. X to Xa
C. IX to IXa
D. II to IIa

back 45

C. IX to IXa

front 46

Activation of factor X through the intrinsic pathway requires IXa acting together with VIIIa, platelet phospholipids, and:

A. Factor III
B. Factor VII
C. Factor XII
D. Protein C

back 46

A. Factor III

front 47

Which combination is required for intrinsic activation of factor X?

A. VIIa, tissue factor, calcium
B. XIIa, XIa, prekallikrein
C. IXa, VIIIa, III, phospholipids
D. V, thrombin, antithrombin III

back 47

C. IXa, VIIIa, III, phospholipids

front 48

After factor X becomes Xa in the intrinsic pathway, Xa forms prothrombin activator with assistance from:

A. Factor V
B. Factor VII
C. Factor VIII
D. Factor XIII

back 48

A. Factor V

front 49

Following formation of prothrombin activator in the intrinsic pathway, the next step is:

A. XI to XIa
B. Prothrombin to thrombin
C. Fibrin to plasmin
D. VIII to VIIIa

back 49

B. Prothrombin to thrombin

front 50

The final step listed in the intrinsic pathway is conversion of:

A. Thrombin to prothrombin
B. Fibrin to fibrinogen
C. Fibrinogen to fibrin
D. Plasminogen to plasmin

back 50

C. Fibrinogen to fibrin

front 51

Compared with the extrinsic pathway, the intrinsic pathway generally occurs:

A. Faster
B. Slower
C. Simultaneously
D. Independently

back 51

B. Slower

front 52

Contact of factor XII and platelets with collagen most directly initiates the:

A. Extrinsic pathway
B. Intrinsic pathway
C. Common pathway
D. Protein C pathway

back 52

B. Intrinsic pathway

front 53

A phlebotomy specimen is prevented from clotting by chemically reducing ionized calcium. Which additive could achieve this?

A. Heparin only
B. Nitric oxide
C. Citrate
D. Tissue factor

back 53

C. Citrate

front 54

Which additive also prevents clotting in removed blood by reducing available calcium?

A. Oxalate
B. PGI2
C. Protein C
D. PF3

back 54

A. Oxalate

front 55

Which endothelial property normally helps prevent contact activation of the intrinsic clotting system?

A. Surface smoothness
B. Tissue factor exposure
C. Mast cell heparin
D. Fibrin polymerization

back 55

A. Surface smoothness

front 56

The endothelial glycocalyx helps prevent coagulation primarily by:

A. Activating factor XII
B. Repelling clotting factors
C. Releasing tissue factor
D. Converting plasminogen

back 56

B. Repelling clotting factors

front 57

Which endothelial membrane-bound molecule contributes to prevention of clotting in normal vessels?

A. Thrombomodulin
B. Thrombosthenin
C. Thromboplastin
D. PF3

back 57

A. Thrombomodulin

front 58

Thrombomodulin bound to thrombin most directly activates:

A. Protein C
B. Factor V
C. Factor X
D. Plasmin

back 58

A. Protein C

front 59

Activated protein C exerts anticoagulant effects by inactivating which factors?

A. II and VII
B. V and VIII
C. IX and X
D. XI and XII

back 59

B. V and VIII

front 60

Two prominent endothelial vasodilators that inhibit platelet aggregation are:

A. NO and PGI2
B. ADP and PAF
C. TXA2 and serotonin
D. t-PA and plasmin

back 60

A. NO and PGI2

front 61

Which prostanoid released by endothelium inhibits platelet aggregation?

A. TXA2
B. PGI2
C. PGE1
D. PGF2α

back 61

B. PGI2

front 62

An important circulating anticoagulant that removes thrombin from blood is:

A. Protein C
B. Fibrinogen
C. Antithrombin III
D. vWF

back 62

C. Antithrombin III

front 63

Besides antithrombin III, which structure in a developing clot can help remove thrombin?

A. Fibrin fibers
B. Platelet glycocalyx
C. Tissue factor
D. Factor VIIIa

back 63

A. Fibrin fibers

front 64

Heparin exerts its major anticoagulant effect in this material by binding to antithrombin III and increasing removal of:

A. Fibrinogen
B. Thrombin
C. Protein C
D. Tissue factor

back 64

B. Thrombin

front 65

Heparin bound to antithrombin III inactivates which activated clotting-factor range?

A. IIa–V
B. Va–VIIIa
C. IXa–XIIa
D. I–IV

back 65

C. IXa–XIIa

front 66

A hospitalized patient receives heparin. Its anticoagulant action is enhanced because heparin is working with:

A. Tissue factor
B. Antithrombin III
C. Factor V
D. Prekallikrein

back 66

B. Antithrombin III

front 67

Heparin is released primarily by:

A. Neutrophils
B. Hepatocytes
C. Mast cells
D. Megakaryocytes

back 67

C. Mast cells

front 68

Which enzyme digests fibrin and also degrades fibrinogen, factor V, factor VIII, prothrombin, and factor XII?

A. Thrombin
B. Plasmin
C. Kallikrein
D. Elastase

back 68

B. Plasmin

front 69

Conversion of plasminogen to plasmin is catalyzed by:

A. PF3
B. Antithrombin III
C. t-PA
D. Protein C

back 69

C. t-PA

front 70

A patient receives thrombolytic therapy for an acute clot. The drug most directly mimics the action of:

A. Tissue plasminogen activator
B. Factor V accelerator
C. Platelet factor 3
D. HMW kininogen

back 70

A. Tissue plasminogen activator

front 71

One of the classic major causes of excessive bleeding?

A. Hemophilia
B. Thrombosis
C. Polycythemia
D. Vasculitis

back 71

A. Hemophilia

front 72

A malnourished patient with prolonged coagulation studies has excessive bleeding due to deficiency of which factor-related nutrient?

A. Vitamin K
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin B12

back 72

A. Vitamin K

front 73

A patient with diffuse petechiae and a markedly decreased platelet count has excessive bleeding due to:

A. Hemophilia
B. Hypercoagulability
C. Vitamin K deficiency
D. Thrombocytopenia

back 73

D. Thrombocytopenia

front 74

Vitamin K serves as a cofactor for which hepatic enzyme type?

A. Protease
B. Carboxylase
C. Oxidase
D. Transferase

back 74

B. Carboxylase

front 75

Vitamin K–dependent carboxylation directly modifies which clotting factor?

A. Factor VIII
B. Factor II
C. Factor XI
D. Factor XII

back 75

B. Factor II

front 76

Which clotting factor also requires vitamin K–dependent carboxylation in the liver?

A. Factor VIII
B. Factor V
C. Factor XIII
D. Factor VII

back 76

D. Factor VII

front 77

A defect in vitamin K–dependent carboxylation would impair activation of which additional factor?

A. Factor IX
B. Factor VIII
C. Factor XI
D. Factor XII

back 77

A. Factor IX

front 78

Vitamin K deficiency would also reduce proper hepatic modification of:

A. Factor XI
B. Factor XII
C. Factor X
D. Factor VIII

back 78

C. Factor X

front 79

Which anticoagulant protein is included among the vitamin K–dependent carboxylated proteins?

A. Protein C
B. Protein S
C. Plasmin
D. Antithrombin III

back 79

A. Protein C

front 80

Vitamin K is recycled back to its active form by:

A. Cyclooxygenase
B. Thrombin
C. t-PA
D. VKORC1

back 80

D. VKORC1

front 81

Hemophilia occurs almost exclusively in:

A. Males
B. Females
C. Neonates
D. Elderly patients

back 81

A. Males

front 82

Most cases of hemophilia are caused by deficiency of:

A. Factor IX
B. Factor XI
C. Factor X
D. Factor VIII

back 82

D. Factor VIII

front 83

A patient with the less common classic hemophilia variant has deficiency of:

A. Factor VIII
B. Factor IX
C. Factor VII
D. Factor V

back 83

B. Factor IX

front 84

Deficiency of factor IX is specifically termed:

A. von Willebrand disease
B. Hemophilia A
C. DIC
D. Hemophilia B

back 84

D. Hemophilia B

front 85

In hemophilia A, the primarily affected coagulation pathway is the:

A. Extrinsic pathway
B. Common pathway
C. Intrinsic pathway
D. Fibrinolytic pathway

back 85

C. Intrinsic pathway

front 86

Loss of the larger component of factor VIII produces:

A. Hemophilia B
B. DIC
C. ITP
D. von Willebrand disease

back 86

D. von Willebrand disease

front 87

A patient develops thrombocytopenia after an infiltrative infectious process involving the marrow. Which mechanism best explains the low platelet count?

A. Bone marrow infection
B. Splenic sequestration
C. Platelet consumption
D. Dilutional loss

back 87

A. Bone marrow infection

front 88

A patient with autoimmune platelet destruction has thrombocytopenia due to:

A. Portal hypertension
B. Transfusion dilution
C. Marrow infection
D. Antibody-mediated destruction

back 88

D. Antibody-mediated destruction

front 89

A cirrhotic patient with portal hypertension has thrombocytopenia mainly because of:

A. Marrow suppression
B. Splenic sequestration
C. Platelet dilution
D. Protein C deficiency

back 89

B. Splenic sequestration

front 90

Widespread microvascular clotting may lower platelet count through:

A. Decreased thrombopoiesis
B. Splenic rupture
C. Platelet consumption in thrombi
D. Increased platelet turnover

back 90

C. Platelet consumption in thrombi

front 91

A massively transfused trauma patient develops low platelets primarily because of:

A. Dilution from transfusion
B. Platelet autoantibodies
C. Marrow infection
D. Portal congestion

back 91

A. Dilution from transfusion

front 92

In selected patients with thrombocytopenia, which intervention may be beneficial?

A. Hepatectomy
B. Splenectomy
C. Nephrectomy
D. Appendectomy

back 92

B. Splenectomy

front 93

An abnormal clot forming within an intact blood vessel is called a:

A. Embolus
B. Hematoma
C. Petechia
D. Thrombus

back 93

D. Thrombus

front 94

A detached intravascular clot traveling in the circulation is a:

A. Embolus
B. Purpura
C. Thrombus
D. Fibrin strand

back 94

A. Embolus

front 95

A lower-extremity clot that dislodges and obstructs the pulmonary arteries causes:

A. Cerebral embolism
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Coronary thrombosis
D. Portal embolism

back 95

B. Pulmonary embolism

front 96

Septicemia may trigger simultaneous diffuse coagulation and consumption known as:

A. TTP
B. HIT
C. ITP
D. DIC

back 96

D. DIC

front 97

Warfarin therapy lowers levels of which vitamin K–dependent factor?

A. Factor IX
B. Factor VIII
C. Factor XII
D. Factor XI

back 97

A. Factor IX

front 98

Coumarin therapy also decreases which factor most associated with the extrinsic pathway?

A. Factor VIII
B. Factor IX
C. Protein C
D. Factor VII

back 98

D. Factor VII

front 99

Warfarin lowers which precursor listed in this material?

A. Active prothrombin
B. Fibrinogen
C. Plasminogen
D. Factor VIII

back 99

A. Active prothrombin

front 100

Which additional factor falls with warfarin use?

A. Factor V
B. Factor X
C. Factor XI
D. Factor XIII

back 100

B. Factor X

front 101

Warfarin most directly inhibits which enzyme?

A. Thrombin
B. Factor Xa
C. VKORC1
D. Cyclooxygenase

back 101

C. VKORC1

front 102

Exposure of blood to silicon inactivates platelets and:

A. Factor IX
B. Factor XI
C. Factor X
D. Factor XII

back 102

D. Factor XII

front 103

Removal of ionized calcium from blood will produce:

A. More coagulation
B. Faster fibrinolysis
C. Less coagulation
D. Platelet activation

back 103

C. Less coagulation

front 104

Bleeding time most directly evaluates:

A. Platelet levels
B. Extrinsic pathway
C. Intrinsic pathway
D. Fibrin stability

back 104

A. Platelet levels

front 105

Prothrombin time is primarily used to evaluate the:

A. Intrinsic pathway
B. Common pathway
C. Platelet system
D. Extrinsic pathway

back 105

D. Extrinsic pathway

front 106

The normal INR range given in this material is:

A. 2.0 to 3.0
B. 0.9 to 1.3
C. 1.5 to 2.5
D. 3.0 to 4.0

back 106

B. 0.9 to 1.3

front 107

A markedly elevated INR most strongly indicates:

A. Risk of bleeding
B. Platelet deficiency
C. Faster clot retraction
D. Hyperfibrinolysis

back 107

A. Risk of bleeding

front 108

A low INR most strongly suggests:

A. Factor VIII deficiency
B. Hepatic failure
C. Vitamin K deficiency
D. High chance of clot

back 108

D. High chance of clot

front 109

A patient appropriately anticoagulated with warfarin should generally have an INR of:

A. 2.0 to 3.0
B. 0.9 to 1.3
C. 1.2 to 1.8
D. 3.5 to 4.5

back 109

A. 2.0 to 3.0

front 110

Classic hemophilia differs from von Willebrand disease in this material because classic hemophilia reflects loss of the:

A. Larger VIII component
B. vWF-binding domain
C. Smaller VIII component
D. Platelet membrane receptor

back 110

C. Smaller VIII component