front 1 regulates calcium levels in the body | back 1 calcitonin and PTH |
front 2 calcitonin is produced in _____ gland | back 2 thyroid gland |
front 3 PTH is produced in the ______ gland | back 3 parathyroid gland |
front 4 hormone that is more important for regulating calcium levels | back 4 parathyroid hormone |
front 5 what stimulates PTH release from the parathyroid gland | back 5 low serum calcium |
front 6 what stimulates calcitonin release from the thyroid gland | back 6 high serum calcium |
front 7 hormone that raises blood calcium levels | back 7 PTH |
front 8 hormone that lowers blood calcium levels | back 8 calcitonin |
front 9 pancreas produces 2 hormones | back 9 insulin and glucagon |
front 10 what does insulin produce | back 10 beta cells |
front 11 what does glucagon produce | back 11 alpha cells |
front 12 what makes insulin leave the pancreas | back 12 high glucose |
front 13 what makes glucagon leave the pancreas | back 13 low glucose |
front 14 what does insulin do to blood glucose levels | back 14 lowers blood glucose levels |
front 15 what does glucagon do to blood glucose levels | back 15 raises blood glucose levels |
front 16 what does the pancreas do | back 16 produce hormones for the endocrine system and digestive system |
front 17 exocrine secretion of the pancreas | back 17 enzymes and bicarbonate |
front 18 endocrine and exocrine organs | back 18 gonads and pancreas |
front 19 gland that produces the body’s major metabolic hormone | back 19 thyroid hormone |
front 20 where is the thyroid located | back 20 anterior neck |
front 21 what gland produces the steroid hormone aldosterone | back 21 adrenal cortex |
front 22 which organ does aldosterone work at | back 22 in the collecting ducts of the kidney |
front 23 what does aldosterone do to blood pressure | back 23 raises it |
front 24 what does aldosterone do to blood potassium levels | back 24 decreases blood potassium |
front 25 what system causes the release of aldosterone | back 25 renin-angiotensin |
front 26 which part is renin released from the nephron | back 26 the granular cells of the nephron |
front 27 order of decreased blood pressure | back 27 renin —> angiostensin 1 —>angiotensin 2 —> aldosterone |
front 28 hormone released by adrenal medulla | back 28 epinephrine |
front 29 how are the adrenal medulla and the sympathetic nervous system similar | back 29 they both have the same effect |
front 30 hormone in charge of the body’s water balance and stimulates water conservation in the kidneys. | back 30 antidiuretic hormone (ADH) |
front 31 what does alcohol act as | back 31 a diuretic |
front 32 why does alcohol cause lots of urination | back 32 alcohol inhibits the release of ADH |
front 33 area of the brain that plays a major role in the body’s water balance | back 33 hypothalamus |
front 34 rise in plasma osmolality is a signal to | back 34 drink water |
front 35 if ADH increases what happens to the permeability of the collecting duct/tubule to water | back 35 permeability increases |
front 36 where is the atrial natriuretic peptide hormone located | back 36 the heart |
front 37 promotes salt and water loss in nephrons and lowers blood pressure | back 37 ANP |
front 38 ion level that is close to body’s water volume | back 38 sodium |
front 39 hormone released towards the end of pregnancy and simulates milk production | back 39 prolactin |
front 40 hormone stimulating milk release from the breast and uterine contractions | back 40 oxytocin |
front 41 where is oxytocin released when breast feeding and stimulation of the nipples | back 41 posterior pituitary |
front 42 anterior pituitary gonadtropins | back 42 FSH and LH |
front 43 hormone controlling the release of anterior pituitary gonadotropins | back 43 GnRH |
front 44 hormone MOST associated with ovulation | back 44 LH |
front 45 hormone that keeps the corpus luteum alive | back 45 human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) |
front 46 hormone MOST associated with follicle development in females | back 46 FSH |
front 47 endometrium grows under ______ influence | back 47 estrogen |
front 48 where is the heart located | back 48 2nd rib and 5th intercostal space |
front 49 two superior receiving heart chambers are known as the _____ | back 49 atria |
front 50 two inferior pumping (discharging) chambers of the heart are called ____ | back 50 ventricles |
front 51 what carries oxygenated blood back to the heart | back 51 pulmonary veins |
front 52 where do pulmonary veins empty blood to | back 52 the Left Atrium |
front 53 what chamber is the entrance of the coronary sinus and the pacemaker (SA node) of the heart | back 53 the Right Atrium |
front 54 what carries deoxygenated blood away from the heart | back 54 pulmonary arteries |
front 55 when is the mitral valve normally closed | back 55 when the ventricle is in systole |
front 56 when the ventricles are in systole, what happens to the tricuspid valve | back 56 it closes |
front 57 during VENTRICULAR SYSTOLE who receives blood | back 57 the Aorta and Pulmonary Trunk |
front 58 which ventricular wall of the heart is thicker | back 58 the left side |
front 59 why is the left ventricular side thicker than the right side of the heart | back 59 the Left Side pumps blood with greater pressure to the entire body |
front 60 caused by P Wave | back 60 atrial depolarization |
front 61 caused by QRS wave | back 61 ventricular depolarization |
front 62 caused by T wave | back 62 ventricular repolarization |
front 63 valve with 3 flaps (cusps) and chordae tendineae | back 63 tricuspid valve |
front 64 the tricuspid valve is also called ____ | back 64 right AV valve |
front 65 valve with 2 flaps (cusps) and chordae tendineae | back 65 mitral valve |
front 66 valve that prevents back flow into left ventricle | back 66 aortic valve |
front 67 valve preventing back flow into right ventricle | back 67 pulmonary valve |
front 68 valve that prevents back flow into the right atrium | back 68 tricuspid valve |
front 69 valve preventing back flow into the left atrium | back 69 mitral valve |
front 70 valve located between the Left Ventricle and the Aorta | back 70 aortic valve |
front 71 what valve is between the right ventricle and pulmonary trunk | back 71 pulmonary valve |
front 72 how is the “lub-dup” heart sounds produced | back 72 “lub” is atrioventricular valve closing and “dup” is semilunar valve closing |
front 73 first heart sound heard at the beginning of the cardiac cycle | back 73 Isovolumetric contraction |
front 74 second heart sound at the beginning of the cardiac cycle | back 74 isovolumetric relaxation |
front 75 what structure in the heart is responsible for setting the heart’s pace | back 75 sinoatrial node (in right atrium) |
front 76 what effect vagal nerve has on the pacemaker of the heart | back 76 slows down heart |
front 77 what effect does epinephrine have on the pacemaker of the heart | back 77 speeds up the heart |
front 78 what system in the heart is the vagus nerve part of | back 78 parasympathetic nervous system |
front 79 what system in the heart is the epinephrine part of | back 79 sympathetic nervous system |
front 80 total amount of blood pumped out of each ventricle with each beat | back 80 stroke volume (avg. 70 ml/bt) |
front 81 total amount of blood pumped by each ventricle in one minute [(HR x SV) divide by 1000 for Liters] | back 81 cardiac output (5 L/min) |
front 82 what baroreceptors measure | back 82 change in blood pressure |
front 83 where are baroreceptors located | back 83 aortic arch and carotid sinuses |
front 84 amount of systolic subtracted by diastolic | back 84 pulse pressure |
front 85 device used to measure blood pressure | back 85 sphygmomanometer |
front 86 formula for MAP | back 86 diastolic + 1/3 x pulse pressure |
front 87 what long-term mechanisms control blood pressure | back 87 regulating blood volume |
front 88 what forces fluid out of blood into the tissues | back 88 capillary hydrostatic pressure |
front 89 what helps bring back fluid into the blood from the tissues | back 89 colloid osmotic pressure |
front 90 substance largely responsible for osmotic pressure and not filtered through the renal corpuscle | back 90 albumin |
front 91 what organ makes albumin | back 91 liver |
front 92 forces regulating fluid movements between cells and body compartments | back 92 hydrostatic and colloid osmotic pressure |
front 93 why do substances leave the bloodstream at the atrial end of the capillaries | back 93 blood pressure is higher at the atrial end of the capillary |
front 94 what blood is going from the small intestine to the liver | back 94 TYK |
front 95 the hepatic portal system delivers blood from the digestive organs to the _____ | back 95 liver |
front 96 which electrolyte most closely associated with total body water | back 96 sodium |
front 97 where is most Na+ found in the body | back 97 extracellular spaces |
front 98 where is most K+ found in the body | back 98 intracellular spaces |
front 99 correct statement of blood flow | back 99 blood flows through the entire system equivalent to cardiac output |
front 100 how is most oxygen carried throughout the body | back 100 hemoglobins inside RBC |
front 101 how many molecules of oxygen does each hemoglobin molecule carry | back 101 4 |
front 102 how long do red blood cells live for | back 102 100-120 days |
front 103 what organ is the graveyard for old RBC | back 103 spleen |
front 104 common ration of hematocrit :hemoglobin | back 104 3:1 |
front 105 cell that transports oxygen and carbon dioxide | back 105 erythrocyte |
front 106 hormone that increases red blood cell production | back 106 erythropoietin (EPO) |
front 107 where is erythropoietin made and regulates its production | back 107 the kidney |
front 108 where does erythropoietin work | back 108 in the bone marrow |
front 109 average hemoglobin levels for male | back 109 14-18 |
front 110 normal hemoglobin levels for female | back 110 12-16 |
front 111 normal hematocrit levels for males | back 111 42-52% |
front 112 normal hematocrit levels for females | back 112 37-47% |
front 113 most abundant plasma protein | back 113 albumin |
front 114 biggest component of plasma | back 114 water (90%) |
front 115 what makes leukocytes true cells | back 115 they’re nucleated |
front 116 what is it called when WBC slips in and out of blood vessels | back 116 diapedesis |
front 117 type of leukocyte containing histamine and heparin | back 117 basophils |
front 118 type of leukocyte that increases with parasite infections | back 118 eosinophils |
front 119 neutrophils and eosinophils are phagocytes | back 119 true |
front 120 monocytes and macrophages phagocytes | back 120 true |
front 121 natural killer cells are phagocytes | back 121 false |
front 122 lymphocytes are B and T cells | back 122 true |
front 123 B and T cells are phagocytes | back 123 false |
front 124 type of leukocytes that increases with bacterial infection | back 124 neutrophils |
front 125 what are the granulocytes | back 125 basophils, eosinophils, and neutrophils |
front 126 what are the granulocytes | back 126 lymphocytes and monocytes |
front 127 normal WBC count | back 127 4,500- 11,000 cells |
front 128 which formed element sticks to damaged walls of blood vessels when there is a tear | back 128 platelets |
front 129 birthplace of platelets | back 129 red bone marrow |
front 130 structural framework of a clot | back 130 fibrin (mesh looking) |
front 131 process where bleeding is stopped | back 131 hemostasis |
front 132 steps of hemostasis | back 132 vascular spasm —> platelet plug —> coagulation |
front 133 2 coagulation pathways | back 133 intrinsic and extrinsic |
front 134 coagulation pathway initiated by platelets | back 134 intrinsic |
front 135 coagulation pathway initiated by tissue damage | back 135 extrinsic |
front 136 what antigens does blood type AB have | back 136 A and B antigens on RBC |
front 137 antigens of people with blood type O | back 137 no antigens |
front 138 what is erythroblastosis fetalis | back 138 mom has Rh- and baby has Rh + |
front 139 what are mature lymphocytes recognize and bind to specific antigens | back 139 immunocompetence |
front 140 unresponsive of lymphocytes to own body cells (antigens) | back 140 self tolerance |
front 141 areas of the body with superficial lymph nodes | back 141 cervical, axillary, and inguinal |
front 142 duct that receives lymph from lower body and upper left body | back 142 thoracic duct |
front 143 duct receiving lymph form upper right body | back 143 right lymphatic duct |
front 144 which veins does the lymphatic drain into | back 144 subclavian veins (all lymph fluid flows to the heart) |
front 145 highly specialized lymph capillaries in the intestinal mucosa | back 145 lacteals |
front 146 what is MALT in the intestines | back 146 peyer’s patches |
front 147 distal portion of small intestine with lymphoid follicles | back 147 Peyer’s patch |
front 148 which are part of the 1st line of defense | back 148 mucous membrane, skin, and gastric juice |
front 149 which are part of the 2nd line of defense | back 149 phagocytes, inflammation, NK cells, fever, and complement of interferon |
front 150 which are part of the 3rd line of defense | back 150 B and T cells |
front 151 what are innate defenses | back 151 surface barriers and internal defenses (1st and 2nd lines) |
front 152 what are adaptive defenses | back 152 humoral and cellular immunity (3rd line) |
front 153 cell that kills cancer and virus-infected cells | back 153 natural killer cells (NK cells) |
front 154 4 signs of inflammation | back 154 redness, heat, swelling, and pain |
front 155 largest lymphoid organ who also has red and white pulp | back 155 spleen |
front 156 cell that makes antibodies | back 156 plasma checks |
front 157 what lymphocytes help with humoral immunity | back 157 B lymphocytes |
front 158 how do B lymphocytes produce antibodies | back 158 they become plasma cells |
front 159 where do B cells mature | back 159 the bone marrow |
front 160 which lymphocytes involves cellular immunity or cell-mediated immunity | back 160 T lymphocytes |
front 161 what organ do T cells mature | back 161 thymus |
front 162 antibody released into the blood during immune response | back 162 IgM |
front 163 antibody passed through the placenta protecting the fetus | back 163 IgG |
front 164 antibody secreted into internal and external body surfaces | back 164 IgA |
front 165 antibody attached to the surface of B cells | back 165 IgD |
front 166 antibodies released during allergic reactions | back 166 IgE |
front 167 organ important to the development of the immune system | back 167 thymus |
front 168 what cell do T cells require and are critical for cellular immunity | back 168 antigen-presenting cells |
front 169 what are antigen-presenting cells | back 169 dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells |
front 170 what do CD8 cells become | back 170 cytotoxic T cells |
front 171 what do CD4 cells become | back 171 helper T cells |
front 172 class 1 MHC proteins trigger/ binds to what cell | back 172 CD8 T cells |
front 173 class 2 MHC proteins bind to what cells | back 173 CD4 T cells |
front 174 class 1 MHC proteins are not found on RBCs | back 174 true |
front 175 what class of MHC protein changes body cells with infections | back 175 class 1 |
front 176 what class of MHC proteins are found on professional antigen-presenting cells | back 176 class 2 |
front 177 3 parts of the pharynx | back 177 nasopharynx, oropharynx, and laryngopharynx |
front 178 which part of the pharynx is a passageway for ONLY AIR | back 178 nasopharynx |
front 179 air passing from the pharynx to the trachea has to pass through the ____ | back 179 larynx |
front 180 what structure prevents food from entering the airway | back 180 epiglottis |
front 181 what part of the larynx opens between vocal cords | back 181 glottis |
front 182 what are the 2 main cartilages of the larynx | back 182 thyroid and cricoid cartilage |
front 183 “Adam’s apple” is part of what cartilage | back 183 thyroid cartilage |
front 184 an increase in the volume of a container filled with air would decrease the pressure of the container. according to whom | back 184 Boyle’s law |
front 185 what law describes the inverse relationship of pressure and volume of gases | back 185 Boyle |
front 186 during when will air move into the lungs because pressure inside the lungs is LOWER than outside | back 186 inspiration |
front 187 during when will air move out of the lungs because pressure inside the lungs is GREATER than outside | back 187 expiration |
front 188 when are the lungs slightly negative when breathing | back 188 when breathing in |
front 189 when are the lungs slightly positive when breathing | back 189 breathing out |
front 190 what is the cool space between the lungs | back 190 mediastinum |
front 191 what parts of the lungs is site of gas exchange | back 191 alveoli |
front 192 what is inspiration | back 192 ACTIVE process of the diaphragm and external intercostals contract |
front 193 what is expiration | back 193 PASSIVE process is quiet breathing and diaphragm relaxes |
front 194 what is forced exhalation (expiration) and what muscles are being used | back 194 ACTIVE process. abdominal muscles and internal intercostals |
front 195 breathing is also called ______ | back 195 pulmonary ventilation |
front 196 what is external respiration | back 196 exchange of oxygen and CO2 between alveoli and blood |
front 197 what is internal respiration | back 197 exchange of oxygen and CO2 between blood and tissues |
front 198 what are dust cells | back 198 lung macrophages |
front 199 what cells make surfactant | back 199 type 2 alveoli cells |
front 200 purpose of the microscopic respiratory membrane | back 200 diffusion of gases |
front 201 in the alveoli, what is Surfactant responsible for and what kind of cell does it produce | back 201 fro surface tension and produced by Type 2 cells |
front 202 terminal bronchioles part of the conducting zone | back 202 true |
front 203 respiratory bronchioles part of the conducting zone | back 203 false |
front 204 what structures carry air to the gas exchange sites | back 204 conducting zone |
front 205 what is the last part of the conducting zone | back 205 terminal bronchioles |
front 206 what is the first part of the respiratory zone | back 206 respiratory bronchioles |
front 207 what structure allows gas exchange | back 207 respiratory zone |
front 208 4 process that make up respiration | back 208 pulmonary ventilation —> external respiration —> transportation —> internal repsiraiton |
front 209 pressure exerted by different gases in a. gas mixture is what ____ of the gas | back 209 partial pressure |
front 210 who’s law said that in a picture of gases, each exerts its own partial pressure. gases will move from high to low pressure | back 210 Dalton’s law |
front 211 what is partial pressure | back 211 it determines the direction of respiratory gas movement. IMPORTANT FOR MOVING GAS |
front 212 what will holding your breath for a length of time do | back 212 it will INCREASE alveolar PCO2 |
front 213 what is the most powerful stimulus for breathing in a healthy person | back 213 increase of carbon dioxide in the blood |
front 214 chemical factors stimulating breathing are ... | back 214 increase in CO2, lack of O2 in tissues, and decreased pH (acidosis) |
front 215 how is the majority of carbon dioxide carried in the body | back 215 as bicarbonate ions in the blood (70%) |
front 216 what kind of digestion is ENZYMATIC breakdown of nutrients | back 216 chemical digestion |
front 217 what kind of digestion is PHYSICAL breakdown of nutrients | back 217 mechanical digestion |
front 218 which organ extends from the pyloric sphincter to ileocecal valve | back 218 the small intestine |
front 219 3 parts of the small intestine are... | back 219 duodenum, jejunum, and ileum |
front 220 organ where carbohydrate digestion begins | back 220 mouth (amylase) |
front 221 which organ does protein digestion begin | back 221 stomach (pepsin) |
front 222 organ where fat digestion starts | back 222 small intestine (lipase) |
front 223 what is the function of the liver | back 223 to produce bile |
front 224 where is bile stored | back 224 the gallbladder |
front 225 what process has bile breaking down large fat globules into smaller ones | back 225 emulsification |
front 226 what stimulates the release of bile within the liver | back 226 emulsification of fats |
front 227 primary pigment of bile | back 227 bilirubin |
front 228 after eating _____ food, bile is released | back 228 fatty |
front 229 why are chief cells also called peptic cells | back 229 they make pepsinogen |
front 230 which cell makes hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor | back 230 parietal cells |
front 231 what is the function of stomach acid | back 231 denature proteins |
front 232 which substance produced by the stomach is important to life | back 232 intrinsic factor |
front 233 which part of the alimentary canal does most digestion and absorption occur | back 233 small intestine |
front 234 which substance released by the pancreas helps neutralize chyme from the stomach | back 234 bicarnbonate |
front 235 what does bicarbonate in the pancreatic juice do | back 235 buffers chyme coming from the stomach |
front 236 which is the first part of the large intestine where the appendix attaches to | back 236 cecum |
front 237 protein metabolism is an important function for which organ | back 237 liver |
front 238 where is extra glucose stored in the liver | back 238 glycogen |
front 239 what enzymes reside on the surface of the small intestine’s cells | back 239 brush border enzymes |
front 240 which muscle of defecation reflex is voluntarily controlled | back 240 external anal sphincter |
front 241 within the nephron, the distal convoluted tubule and collecting ducts are influenced by ______. also called Facultative Reabsorption | back 241 hormones |
front 242 what to macula-dense cells act to sense the NaCl salt levels to filtrate | back 242 chemoreceptors |
front 243 what do granular cells become when blood pressure is coming into the kidney by afferent arteriole | back 243 mechanoreceptors |
front 244 85% of nephrons are _____ nephrons | back 244 cortical |
front 245 15% of nephrons are ______ nephrons | back 245 juxtamedullary |
front 246 internal urethral sphincter is involuntary | back 246 true |
front 247 external urethral sphincter voluntary | back 247 true |
front 248 what process that moves urine down the ureters | back 248 peristalsis |
front 249 what is the outer, lighter region of the kidneys called | back 249 cortex |
front 250 how is water reabsorbed into the renal tubules | back 250 osmosis |
front 251 what structure transports urine from the kidneys to the bladder | back 251 ureters |
front 252 what structure transports urine out of the body | back 252 urethra |
front 253 what part of the nephron functions in reabsorption and secretion | back 253 proximal convoluted tubule |
front 254 which part of the nephron functions more during secretion | back 254 distal consulted tubule |
front 255 which part of the nephron has a descending and ascending portion | back 255 loop of Henle |
front 256 what structure makes up the renal corpuscle | back 256 glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule |
front 257 which part of the nephron filtration becomes more concentrated as it moves down the medulla | back 257 descending limb of loop of Henle |
front 258 a female’s body water accounts for __% | back 258 50% |
front 259 which 2 organs act as physiologic buffers in the body | back 259 lungs and kidneys |
front 260 with respiratory alkalosis, the blood pH is _____ than 7.45 | back 260 greater |
front 261 name of the white connective tissue enclosing both the ovaries and testis | back 261 tunica albuginea |
front 262 what is it called when the fertilized egg is buried into the endometrium lining of the uterus | back 262 implantation |
front 263 what receives, retains, and allows the zygote to grow | back 263 uterus |
front 264 where will fertilization of the eggs happen | back 264 fallopian tubes |
front 265 where do sperms gain their ability to swim | back 265 the epididymis |
front 266 how many days is the usual pregnancy (gestation period) | back 266 280 days |
front 267 what hormone prepares the mammary glands to produce milk | back 267 progesterone |
front 268 what cells of the testis produce testosterone | back 268 interstitial cells (leading cells) |
front 269 which nervous system controls the male erection | back 269 parasympathetic nervous system |
front 270 which nervous system controls male ejaculation | back 270 sympathetic nervous system |
front 271 how long is the 1st trimester of pregnancy | back 271 1-12 weeks |
front 272 how long is the 2nd trimester of pregnancy | back 272 13-28 weeks |
front 273 how long is the 3rd trimester of pregnancy | back 273 29-40 weeks |
front 274 what is the last stage of labor called | back 274 placental stage |
front 275 which part of the uterus connects to the vagina | back 275 cervix |
front 276 for a woman with a 30-day cycle, what day is ovulation | back 276 day 16 |
front 277 day 5-14 of the menstrual cycle is known as the _____ phase | back 277 proliferative phase |
front 278 will the proliferative phase have a corpus luteum in the ovary | back 278 no |
front 279 what hormone is at its highest during the proliferative phase | back 279 estrogen |
front 280 day 15-28 of the menstrual cycle is known as the ______ phase | back 280 secretory phase |
front 281 what hormone is at its highest during the secretory phase | back 281 progesterone |
front 282 what is the diamond-shaped area between the coccyx, pubic arch, and ischial tuberosities in the female | back 282 perineum |
front 283 what glands produce a clear mucus that cleans the acidic urine out of the urethra | back 283 bulourethral glands |
front 284 where does spermatogenesis begin | back 284 puberty |
front 285 if males don’t have FSH, what would happen | back 285 infertility |
front 286 accessory ducts of the male reproductive system | back 286 urethra, vas deferens, and epididymis |
front 287 order of sperm following the testes out of the body | back 287 seminiferous tubules —> epididymis —> vas deferens —> ejaculatory duct —> prostatic urethra —> membranous urethra —> spongy urethra |
front 288 the innermost layer of the uterus is a mucosa layer called _____ | back 288 endometrium |
front 289 the middle, smooth muscle bulk of the uterus is called the ______ | back 289 myometrium |
front 290 where is the “peristalsis” | back 290 the GI tract, inside the fallopian tube, and moving sperm along the ductus deferens |
front 291 average days of the menstrual phase | back 291 5 days |
front 292 if there is egg fertilization, ______ stays alive to create progesterone and estrogen | back 292 corpus luteum |
front 293 a sharp and sudden decline of estrogen and progesterone in the blood causes ______ | back 293 menstruation |