front 1 Storage form of iron A. Ferritin B. Transferrin C. Ferrous D. Ferric | back 1 B, D |
front 2 Black, inorganic compound formed from heme and used to treat some porphyrias A. Porphyrin B. Hemoglobin C. Hemin D. Sulfide | back 2 C |
front 3 Porphyrias result from A. Bilirubin misprocessing B. Enzyme deficiencies in the heme production pathway C. Abnormal hemoglobin D. Lactic acid overproduction | back 3 B |
front 4 Class of pigments including heme and chlorophyll A. Hemin B. Ferritin C. Porphyrin D. Myoglobin | back 4 C |
front 5 Inhibition of most of the enzymes of the synthetic pathway is caused by A. Liver Disease B. Iron Deficiency Anemia C. Acute Intermittent Porphyria D. Lead Poisoning | back 5 D |
front 6 Erythropoietic Porphyria shows an increase in A. Urine Porphobilinogen B. Serum Porphyrin C. Ferrochelatase D. Total Erythrocyte Protoporphyrin | back 6 D |
front 7 Urine Porphobilinogen is the best test to order for which porphyria A. Acute Intermittent Porphyria B. Erythropoietic Porphyria C. Porphyria Cutanea Tarda D. ALA-Dehydratase Deficiency | back 7 A |
front 8 Reagent for the Watson-Schwartz test A. Hoesch B. Ehrlich’s Reagent C. Diazo D. Cellulose Acetate | back 8 B |
front 9 Porphyrins are primarily evaluated using A. Electrophoresis B. Spectrophotometrically C. HPLC D. Fluorometry | back 9 C |
front 10 Porphobilinogen Testing is used to evaluate/confirm A. Acute Intermittent Porphyria B. Hemoglobin H Disease C. Erythropoietic Porphyria D. Porphyria Cutanea Tarda | back 10 A |
front 11 Used as a screening test for lead poisoning A. Watson-Schwartz B. Ferrochalatase C. Electrophoresis D. Evelyn-Malloy | back 11 B |
front 12 Bilirubin undergoes conjugation to.. A. Be broken down B. Be made more lipophilic C. Be made more hydrophilic D. Decrease size | back 12 C |
front 13 Unconjugated bilirubin is A. Hydrophilic B. Lipophilic C. Indirect D. Direct | back 13 B,C |
front 14 Conjugated bilirubin covalently bound to albumin A. Unconjugated bilirubin B. Conjugated bilirubin C. Indirect bilirubin D. Delta Bilirubin | back 14 D |
front 15 Icteric patients appear A. Yellow B. Flushed C. Blue D. Red | back 15 A |
front 16 Unconjugated bilirubin increases with all EXCEPT A. Hemolysis B. Dublin-Johnson Syndrome C. Crigler-Najjar Syndrome D. Gilbert Syndrome | back 16 B |
front 17 Weak autosomal recessive conjugated hyperbilirubinemia A. Rotor Syndrome B. Dubin-Johnson Syndrome C. Crigler-Najjar Syndrome D. Gilbert Syndrome | back 17 A |
front 18 Which of these is NOT a cause of pre-hepatic jaundice? A. DIC B. Medication C. Necator americanus Infection D. Cholestasis | back 18 D |
front 19 An overabundance of heme in the blood results in A. Pre-Hepatic Jaundice B. Post-Hepatic Jaundice C. Porphyria D. Necator americanus Infection | back 19 A |
front 20 What is drastically increased in pre-hepatic jaundice? A. Direct Bilirubin B. Indirect Bilirubin | back 20 B |
front 21 Physiologic jaundice of the newborn is an example of A. Post-Hepatic Jaundice B. Hepatic Jaundice C. Pre-Hepatic Jaundice D. Obstructive Jaundice | back 21 B |
front 22 Post-Hepatic Jaundice results from all EXCEPT A. Cholestasis B. Blocked Bile Duct C. Hemolysis D. Biliary Tract Tumor | back 22 C |
front 23 Uses 50% methanol as an accelerator A. Evelyn-Malloy Method B. Jendrassik-Grof Method C. Electrophoresis D. Hoesch Method | back 23 A |
front 24 Which is NOT an advantage of the Jendrassik-Grof method A. Not affected by pH B. Insensitive to variation in protein concentration C. Not affected by Hemoglobin up to 10,000 mg/dL D. Minimal turbidity | back 24 C |
front 25 Which of these is NOT a preanalytical concern for bilirubin analysis? A. Evelyn-Malloy Method B. Jendrassik-Grof Method C. Electrophoresis D. Watson-Schwartz Method | back 25 B |
front 26 Which of these is NOT a preanalytical concern for bilirubin analysis? A. Fasting Sample B. Light Sensitive C. Lipemia D. Time Sensitive | back 26 D |
front 27 Hemoglobin A2 is comprised of A. 2 α chains + 2 β chains B. 2 α chains + 2 δ chains C. 2 α chains + 2 γ chains D. 2 α chains + 2 α chains | back 27 B |
front 28 Slowest to fastest hemoglobin on electrophoresis A. AFSC B. CSFA C. FACS D. CASF | back 28 B |
front 29 Hemoglobin electrophoresis is first used to detect abnormal hemoglobin using what medium? A. Cellulose Acetate Strip B. Citrate Agar Gel C. Capillary D. FACS | back 29 A |
front 30 Sulfation of hemoglobin causing inability to bind oxygen A. Methemoglobin B. HbA1c C. Carboxyhemoglobin D. Sulfhemoglobin | back 30 D |
front 31 The final step of iron spectrophotometry A. Release iron from transferrin B. React Fe2+ with a chromogen C. Reduction of Fe3+ to Fe2+ D. Ferrous capture | back 31 B |
front 32 Hemochromatosis results in what TBIC levels and Fe levels A. TIBC: increased, Fe: decreased B. TIBC: decreased, Fe: decreased C. TIBC: decreased, Fe: increased D. TIBC: increased, Fe: increased | back 32 C |
front 33 What condition primarily results in a quantitative defect in hemoglobin A. Beta-Thalassemia B. Alpha-Thalassemia C. Porphyria Cutanea Tarda D. Acute Intermittent Porphyria | back 33 B |
front 34 Thoracentesis obtains fluid through a large bore needle inserted into the A. Peritoneal Cavity B. Pleural Cavity C. Pelvic Cavity D. Joints | back 34 B |
front 35 An effusion that is classified as a chylous would likely contain A. Pus B. Cholesterol C. Inflammatory cells D. Plasma | back 35 A,C |
front 36 Generally joint aspirates and urine samples will have extra crystals in them if they are A. Left at RT B. Heated above RT C. Refrigerated D. Frozen | back 36 C |
front 37 In a CSF sample the third tube taken is for A. Cytology B. Microbiology C. Chemistry and Serology D. Hematology | back 37 D |
front 38 A Pleural Effusion that has a putrid odor suggests A. Anaerobic empyema B. Chylothorax C. Malignant Melanoma D. Charcoal-containing empyema | back 38 A |
front 39 Transudates have a specific gravity of greater than 1.010 A. True B. False | back 39 B |
front 40 Pericardial fluid would be ordered for all situations except A. Therapeutic pericardiocentesis B. Suspicion of TB C. Suspicion of neoplastic pericarditis D. Pericardial effusion of known etiology | back 40 D |
front 41 Normal synovial fluid is not viscous A. True B. False | back 41 B |
front 42 Amniocentesis samples A. Are usually cloudy B. Are taken at 20-22 weeks C. Are used to asses for genetic disorders D. Do not contain hair or cells | back 42 C |
front 43 To distinguish between urine and amniotic fluid one should assess A. Protein B. Creatinine C. Uric Acid D. BUN | back 43 B |
front 44 Seminal Fluid evaluation would include all of the following except. A. size of the head B. movement of the sperm C. concentration D. Ejaculate volume | back 44 A |
front 45 A CSF sample of this clarity and color would be most consistent with A. clean tap B. Xanthochromia C. lipid excess D. Lysed | back 45 C |
front 46 In a traumatic tap the last tube of CSF contains less blood than the first A. True B. False | back 46 A |
front 47 In bacterial meningitis the CSF glucose would be ____ and the WBC count would be ___ A. decreased, decreased B. decreased, increased C. increased, increased D. increased, decreased | back 47 B |
front 48 The presence of oligoclonal bands in the CSF in indicative of A. Multiple Myeloma B. PKU C. Multiple Sclerosis D. Meningitis | back 48 C |
front 49 A CSF/serum Albumin index of >9 indicates an intact blood brain barrier A. True B. False | back 49 B |
front 50 Accumulation of serous fluid can be caused by A. increased plasma oncotic pressure B. decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure C. decreased plasma oncotic pressure D. decreased capillary permeability | back 50 C |
front 51 SAAG >1.1 A. Portal Hypertension B. Not portal hypertension | back 51 A |
front 52 If dilution of synovial fluid is necessary, water should be used A. True B. False | back 52 B |
front 53 Calcium pyrophosphate crystals are consistent with ____ and will appear ____ in color A. gout, yellow B. gout, blue C. pseudogout, yellow D. psuedogout, blue | back 53 D |
front 54 A glucose concentration of 20-100 mg/dL in the synovial fluid in consistent with which group? A. Normal B. Infectious C. Inflammatory D. Hemorrhagic | back 54 B |
front 55 Bilirubin concentration correlates with absorbance at A. 550 nm B. 250 nm C. 450 nm D. 350 nm | back 55 C |
front 56 The normal cutoff for AFAFP is 2.5 MoMs A. True B. False | back 56 B |
front 57 The Foam Stability Index assesses for fetal surfactant production A. True B. False | back 57 A |
front 58 Compared to amniotic fluid urine should have lower ___ and higher ___ A. glucose, protein B. protein, glucose C. creatinine, glucose D. glucose, creatinine | back 58 D |
front 59 An elevated sweat chloride is seen in A. SIADH B. cystic fibrosis C. Liddle Disease D. Hypoaldosteronism | back 59 B |
front 60 Which is a characteristic of an exudate? A. Straw-colored B. normal WBC count C. low glucose D. clear | back 60 C |
front 61 To officially diagnose an exudate you must have A. elevated total protein ratio B. elevated LD ratio C. elevated TP ratio and decreased LD ratio D. Elevated TP ratio and elevated LD ratio | back 61 D |
front 62 This fluid would be classified as a A. Transudate B. Exudate | back 62 A |