1. Which type of metabolic process is used for cheese production?

b. fermentation

2. Which type of microbial association would most likely be described as disease causing
microbes?

c. Parasites

3. The fermentation of 1 glucose yields a NET ATP production of

2

4. Which of the following methods is used to count living bacteria?

d. All of these

5. When a bacterial cell number is doubling every unit time, it is in the

b. Logarithmic (log) phase

6. In the growth cycle of a culture, the period where the cells are being replaced at the same rate
as they are dying is

b. Stationary phase

7. Endospore formation begins in which phase of the growth curve?

b. Stationary phase

8. After the inoculation of a new culture, the period of time where there is no increase in cell
numbers is called the

d. Lag phase

9. Exergonic reactions

a. Release potential energy

10. Methane producing bacteria

e. Utilize CO2 as a final electron acceptor and cause cows and sewage systems to
produce methane within their systems

11. The EMP pathways function as

a. The common pathway for fermentation of glucose

12. The energy producing process where ATP is produced and oxygen is the final electron
acceptor is

c. Oxidative phosphorylation

13. Membrane transport that modifies the substance being transported into the cell so that it can't
be lost from the cell

b. Group translocation

14. When aerobic and anaerobic respiration of glucose are compared, we find that

a. Different electron acceptors are used

15. The compound that enters the KREB'S CYCLE cycle from glycosis is

d. Acetyl co-A

16. As a result of bacterial oxidative phosphorylation, which of the following is/are true?

d. All of the above

17. The movement of a substance from a high concentration to a low concentration requiring a
carrier molecule but no ATP is

a. facilitated diffusion

18. Which of the following least belongs?

e. Capnophiles

19. Which of the following occur in Photosystem 2?

c. Photon energy is absorbed by chlorophyll and electrons are emitted and water is
photolysed.

20. Fermentation

c. occurs when the substrate is oxidized and an intermediate is used as the final electron
acceptor

21. Which of the following least belongs?

e. Kreb's cycle

22. In Photosystem 1 (PS1),

c. cyclic phosphoylation occurs

23. Organisms that obtain their energy from the oxidation of organic compounds are

a. chemoheterotrophs

24. When yeast ferment glucose, the end products are

a. commonly associated with beer and wine production

25. Nitrate reducers

d. none of the above

26. Which of the following may be oxidized as an energy source?

e. All of the above

27. The process where a substance is moved from low to high concentration by a carrier
molecule and requires ATP to drive the mechanism is

c. active transport

28. If you place a prokaryotic cell into a hypertonic environment

d. the cytoplasm of the cell will shrink

29. Organisms that acquire their energy from the oxidation of inorganic chemicals are

b. chemoautotrophs

30. Nutrients are

a. are acquired from extracellular digestion

31. Which type of organism obtains its energy from light and carbon from CO2?

d. photoautotrophs

32. What is the function of the glyoxylate cycle?

d. Produces intermediates to replenish the compounds for the KREB'S CYCLE cycle

33. Sauerkraut and yogurt are preserved because

d. The pH decreases

34. Which of the following transport systems does not require a carrier molecule?

e. osmosis

35. A type of control mechanism where the product inhibits its own production at the enzyme level
is called

a. negative feedback

36. What is the final electron acceptor in anaerobic respiration?

d. sulfate or nitrate

37. Normal flora of the gut is best describe as

symbiosis

38. Which is used to produce most of the ATP in living systems?

e. Photosystem 1 and Electron Transport System

39. NAD functions

c. as a co-enzyme

40. Anaerobic respiration

c. produces 36-38 ATP

41. In the Kreb's Cycle

c. acetyl co-A is oxidized

42. All fermenters use which pathway?

a. Embden Meyerhoff pathway

43. What is the source of hydrogen that is used to reduce CO2 is photosynthesis?

a. Water, Sulfur compounds or hydrogen gas

44. Acid mine drainage is cause by

a. the oxidation of iron sulfide

45. Leukocidins

b. destroy white blood cells

46. Enzyme induction

b. results in enzyme production

47. Anabolic reactions are most commonly associated with

a. energy storage

48. Which type of microbe causes removal of nitrogen from the soil?

b. Nitrate reducers

49. This compound is produced in the Calvin cycle as a precursor for carbohydrate production.

d. Glyceraldehydes 3-phosphate

50. What is used to return chlorophyll to the ground state in PS2?

c. Water

51. Also called substrate phosphorylation

d. fermentation

52. Also called oxidative phosphorylation.

a. respiration

53. Also called cyclic phosphorylation

c. Photosystem 1

54. Also called non-cyclic phosphorylation

c. Photosystem 2

55. This is the stage of the bacterial growth curve in which rapid growth and an increase in cell
numbers occurs

b. logarithmic phase

56. This is the stage of the bacterial growth curve in which endospores begin to form.

c. stationary phase

57. This is the stage of the bacterial growth curve in which many involution forms are present

d. death phase

58. This is the stage of the bacterial growth curve that is a harsh environment with cell numbers
decreasing.

d. death phase

59. This is the stage of the bacterial growth curve that is described as reproduction rate = death
rate

c. stationary phase

60. This is the stage of the bacterial growth curve in which adaptation to a new environment
occurs.

a. lag phase

61. Which of the following brings the substrate into closer union with the enzyme?

a. cofactor

62. Which of the following is the protein portion of the enzyme?

c. apoprotein

63. This is what the enzyme exerts its effect upon.

d. substrate

64. What removes the groups from the reaction area that the enzyme removed?

b. coenzyme

65. Which of the following are inorganic ions?

a. cofactor

66. Which of the following are organic ions?

coenzyme

67. Which of the following uses the Embend Meyerhoff pathway only?

a. fermentation

68. Which of the following uses the sun as its energy source?

d. photosynthesis

69. In which of the following is oxygen the final electron acceptor?

b. aerobic respiration

70. In which of the following are inorganic ions the final electron acceptor?

c. anaerobic respiration

71. In which of the following are intermediates products the final electron acceptor?

a. fermentation

72. Which of the following is used to produce ATP and hydrogen that will reduce CO2?

d. photosynthesis

73. Two net ATPs are produced here.

fermentation

74. Oxygen is produced as an end product here.

d. photosynthesis

75. Acids and gas are produced as end products here.

a. fermentation

76. Microorganisms require large quantities of this nutrient for use in cell structure and
metabolism:

b. macronutrient

77. Microorganisms require small quantities of this nutrient for enzyme function and maintenance
of protein structure:

e. trace element

78. An organic nutrient that cannot be synthesized by the organism and must be provided is
called a/an

d. growth factor.

79. An important mineral ion of the cytochrome pigments of cellular respiration is

a. iron.

80. An important mineral ion that is a component of chloroplasts and stabilizer of membranes and
ribosomes is

d. magnesium.

81. The term autotroph refers to an organism that

a. uses CO2 for its carbon source.

82. The term heterotroph refers to an organism that

b. must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs.

83. The term chemotroph refers to an organism that

d. gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds.

84. Organisms that feed on dead organisms for nutrients are called

a. saprobes.

85. The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower
concentration is called

b. diffusion.

86. The movement of substances from lower to higher concentration across a semipermeable
membrane that must have a specific protein carrier and use energy is called

c. active transport.

87. The movement of substances from higher to lower concentration across a semipermeable
membrane that must have a specific protein carrier but no energy expenditure is called

a. facilitated diffusion.

88. The use of energy by a cell to enclose a substance in its membrane by forming a vacuole and
engulfing it is called

e. endocytosis.

89. Bacteria living in a freshwater stream that are moved to salty seawater would

d. shrivel.

90. Which of the following microorganisms would find hypotonic conditions most detrimental?

b. protozoa

91. Which of the following require the cell to use ATP?

c. endocytosis

92. Cultures of a bacterial species were incubated on the shelf of a refrigerator, out on a lab
benchtop, on the shelf of a 37° C incubator and on the shelf of a 50° C incubator. After
incubation, there was no growth at 37° C and 50° C, slight growth out on the benchtop, and
abundant growth at refrigeration. What term could be used for this species?

d. psychrophile

93. Cultures of a bacterial species were incubated out on the incubator shelf, in an anaerobic jar
and in a candle jar. After incubation there was moderate growth of cultures in the candle and
anaerobic jars, but heavy growth of the culture on the incubator shelf. This species is a/an

c. facultative anaerobe.

94. A microorganism that has an optimum growth temperature of 37° C, but can survive short
exposure to high temperatures is called a/an

e. thermoduric.

95. An organism that grows slowly in the cold but has an optimum growth temperature of 32° C is
called a/an

d. facultative psychrophile.

96. An organism with a temperature growth range of 45° C to 60° C would be called a/an

b. thermophile.

97. A microorganism that does not have catalase or superoxide dismutase would find it difficult to
live in an environment with

b. oxygen.

98. A halophile would grow best in

e. salt lakes.

99. The E. coli that normally live in the human large intestines and produce vitamin K that the
body uses would be best termed a _____ relationship.

d. mutualistic

100. The time interval from parent cell to two new daughter cells is called the

c. generation time.

101. The phase of the bacterial growth curve in which the rate of multiplication equals the rate of
cell death is the

c. stationary phase.

102. The phase of the bacterial growth curve in which newly inoculated cells are adjusting to their
new environment, metabolizing but not growing is the

a. lag phase.

103. In the viable plate count method, a measured sample of a culture is evenly spread across an
agar surface and incubated. Each _____ represents one _____ from the sample.

c. colony, cell

104. The majority of organisms live or grow in habitats between

a. pH 6 and 8.

105. An organism that grows best at a higher CO2 tension than is normally present in the
atmosphere is a(n)

e. capnophile.

106. Barophiles are microorganisms able to tolerate

c. high atmospheric pressure.

107. Plant roots provide various growth factors for soil bacteria, and the bacteria help fertilize the
plant by supplying it with minerals. This is an example of

d. synergism.

108. Which of the following methods of enumerating cells is the only one to detect live cells?

b. viable plate count

109. If a culture starts out with 1 cell and after 4 hours there are 64 cells, how many generations
have occurred?

6

110. You inoculate a culture into a test tube containing broth and take it out of the incubator the
next day. You see the culture is growing equally throughout the broth. You conclude the culture
must be

110. You inoculate a culture into a test tube containing broth and take it out of the incubator the
next day. You see the culture is growing equally throughout the broth. You conclude the culture
must be

111. You inoculate a culture into a test tube containing broth and take it out of the incubator the
next day. You see the culture is growing at the bottom of the tube. You conclude the culture must
be

b. anaerobic.

112. All of the chemical reactions of the cell are called

d. metabolism.

113. The breakdown of peptidoglycan to N-acetylmuramic acid, N-acetylglucosamine and
peptides is an example of

b. catabolism.

114. Enzymes are

b. proteins that function as catalysts.

115. Formation of peptide bonds between amino acids to build a polypeptide would be called

a. anabolism.

116. An apoenzyme

c. contains the active site.

117. A holoenzyme is a combination of a protein and one or more substances called

d. cofactors.

118. Important components of coenzymes are

a. vitamins.

119. Enzymes that can function at boiling water temperatures or other harsh conditions would be
termed

e. extremozymes.

120. Enzymes that are produced only when substrate is present are termed

d. induced enzymes.

121. Enzymes that catalyze removing electrons from one substrate and adding electrons to
another are called

b. oxidoreductases.

122. When enzyme action stops due to a buildup of end product this control is called

a. negative feedback.

123. Most electron carriers are

a. coenzymes.

124. Exergonic reactions

c. occur during aerobic cellular respiration.

125. In the cell, energy released by electrons is often used to phosphorylate

b. ADP.

126. In addition to electrons, which of the following is also involved in electron transfer?

d. hydrogen protons

127. The most likely place where an exoenzyme participates in a chemical reaction is

e. outside of the cell.

128. All of the following are exoenzymes except

a. ATP synthase.

129. All of the following pertain to glycolysis except it

d. degrades glucose to CO2 and H2O.

130. The formation of citric acid from oxaloacetic acid and an acetyl group begins

c. Krebs cycle.

131. The step involving ATP, hexokinase, and the phosphorylation of glucose to glucose-6-
phosphate is

d. an example of substrate-level phosphorylation.

132. During aerobic cellular respiration, the final electron acceptor is

b. oxygen.

133. In bacterial cells, the electron transport system is located in the

a. cell membrane.

134. In which pathway is the most NADH generated?

b. Krebs cycle

135. The reactions of fermentation function to produce _____ molecules for use in glycolysis.

c. NAD

136. During which of the phases of cellular respiration is the majority of ATP formed?

a. electron transport

137. In bacterial cells, when glucose is completely oxidized by all the pathways of aerobic cellular
respiration, how many ATP are generated?

e. 38 ATP

138. When glucose is broken down by glycolysis during bacterial fermentation, how many ATP
are generated?

a. 2 ATP

139. As the electron transport carriers shuttle electrons, they actively pump _____ into the outer
membrane compartment setting up a concentration gradient called the proton motive force.

c. hydrogen ions

140. Mixed acid fermentation

c. produces acids plus CO2 and H2 gases.

141. Anaerobic cellular respiration

d. utilizes an electron transport system.

142. In anaerobic respiration, all of the following can serve as the final electron acceptor except

b. oxygen.

143. The process of alcoholic fermentation produces

c. alcohol and carbon dioxide.

144. Cyanide will cause rapid death in humans because it

d. blocks cytochrome c oxidase.

145. Why is cyanide harmless to some bacteria?

c. They lack cytochrome c oxidase.

146. Fatty acids can be metabolized by entering

b. the TCA cycle.

147. Enzymes that are regularly found in a cell are termed

c. constitutive enzymes.

148. When amino acids are deaminated, they can be used as a source of

a. glucose.

149. In eukaryotes, glycolysis takes place

e. in the cytoplasm.

150. In eukaryotes, the Krebs cycle takes place

d. in the mitochondria.