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Biology 1 Lab Final Exam Review

1.

Week 8: Respiration

no data
2.

Organisms that can obtain their energy from inorganic sources are called? (For example plants that do photosynthesis and prokaryotes)

autotrophs

3.

Organisms such as animals and decomposers that typically consume macromolecules of carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and some nucleic acids are called?

heterotrophs

4.

What is glycolysis?

- anaerobic

- The breakdown of glucose into 2 3-carbon molecules

- includes 10 catabolic reactions, catalyzed by 10 different enzymes

5.

Where does glycolysis take place?

cytoplasm

6.

What are the products and reactants of glycolysis?

reactants: glucose

products: 2 pyruvate molecules, net of 2 ATP, and energy in the form of 2NADH + 2H+

7.

There are 10 reactions in glycolysis. They can be divided into 2 phases. What are the names of the two phases and what happens during each one?

1) energy investment phase: first 5 steps of glycolysis in which 2 ATP are invested to increase energy levels of glucose and get it to break down

2) energy yielding phase: The last 5 steps of glycolysis in which energy is released in the form of high energy electrons and ATP from substrate level phosphorylation

8.

What is the Kreb's cycle?

- Also known as Citric Acid Cycle

- aerobic

- acetyl CoA is added to a four-carbon molecule (oxaloacetate) to form a 6-carbon molecule (citrate)

9.

Where does the Kreb's cycle take place?

Mitochondrial matrix

10.

What are the products and reactants of the Kreb's cycle?

Products: NADH + H+, GTP, CO2, and FADH2

Reactants: Acetyl CoA, NAD, FAD, ADP, and HPO4^-2 and Oxaloacetate

11.

What is the Electron Transport Chain?

Series of proteins embedded in the inner mitochondrial membrane that accept NADH and FADH2 and transfer them along a series of electron carriers

12.

Where does the ETC take place?

Inner Mitochondrial Membrane

13.

What are the products and reactants of the ETC?

products: 32 ATP, water

reactants: NADH and FADH, and oxygen

14.

What is fermentation?

The partial degradation of sugars that takes place in the absence of oxygen. It produces less ATP than aerobic respiration.

15.

Where does fermentation take place?

cytoplasm

16.

Where does lactic acid fermentation take place?

Muscle cells

17.

Where does alcoholic fermentation take place?

in Yeast

18.

What are some end products of glucose fermentation? Some reactants?

- Products: lactic acid, ethanol, CO2, H20

- Reactants: glucose

19.

What is the full formula for respiration?

C6H12O6 (glucose) + 6O2 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + energy

20.

The mitochondria is divided into two compartments: inner membrane and outer membrane. What divides the two?

The inter membrane space

21.

What makes the outer membrane different from the inner membrane?

- The outer membrane is a lot more permeable due to its porins

- The outer membrane is also where the integral proteins that function as enzymes in the breakdown and synthesis of lipids

22.

What happens in the inter membrane space?

- it is the location to which H+ (protons) are transported using the energy lost by electrons as they are transferred to subsequently lower and lower energy levels along the electron transport chain.

- has a net positive charge compared to the matrix

23.

The inter membrane space has a (higher or lower) ph than the matrix?

- it has a lower pH than the matrix therefor more acidic

- it has a higher hydrogen ion concentration than the matrix

24.

The inner membrane, like the outer, also has integral proteins. What are the integral proteins of the inner membrane space responsible for?

1) transport of substances across the inner mitochondrial membrane

2) Electron transport

3) ATP synthesis

25.

What is the requirement for the mitochondria to function?

- needs to be in the presence of oxygen in order to function

26.

Where is the mitochondria located?

inside eukaryotic cell

27.

What is the definition of an inhibitor?

- Any substance that reduces the activity of the enzymes of glycolysis, the enzymes of the Kreb's cycle, or the proteins of the electron transport chain can function as an inhibitor.

- molecule that binds to an enzyme and decreases its activity

28.

What is the definition of an enzyme?

a biocatalyst used to speed up reactions

29.

What were the substrates that yeast was able to use?

- sucrose

- glucose

- glucose Mg

-Glucose Citrate F

30.

How was yeast prepared?

- It was growing at 37 degrees Celsius at least an hour before the lab. The flask was swirled before pipetting.

- 5 ml were added to each beaker

31.

What was the optimum temperature?

37 degrees celsius

32.

What are some of the equipment used in the Week 8 lab?

- respiration tube, parafilm, hot bath

33.

Week 8 Quiz

The priming reactions of glycolysis are:

endergonic; but coupled to exergonic reactions

34.

Week 8 Quiz

How many redox reactions are in one turn of the Kreb's cycle?

4

35.

Week 8 Quiz

What are the electron carriers that function in the Kreb's cycle?

NAD+

FAD

36.

Week 8 Quiz

What happens to the high energy electrons that are released during glycolysis and the Kreb's cycle?

the electrons are transported to the electron transport chain in the mitochondria

37.

Week 8 Quiz

In the first reaction of glycolysis, ATP is converted to ADP, and the energy released by this reaction fuels the first steps of glycolysis. Where does the phosphate group from ATP go?

It is transferred to glucose

38.

Week 8 Quiz

What forms of energy are released during the energy yielding phase of glycolysis?

- ATP from substrate level phosphorylation

- high energy electrons

39.

Week 8 Quiz

The outer mitochondrial compartment is called the?

Intermembrane space

40.

Week 8 Quiz

The inner mitochondrial compartment is called the?

Matrix

41.

Week 8 Quiz

Regulation of which of the following enzymes determines whether or not glycolysis proceeds to completion?

Phosphofructokinase

42.

Week 8 Quiz

Glycolysis is activated when?

cellular energy levels are low

43.

Week 8 Quiz

Which substances are inhibitors of cellular respiration?

Cyanide

Fluoride

Azide

Oligomycin

44.

Week 8 Quiz

What is the final electron acceptor of the ETC?

oxygen

45.

Week 9: Photosynthesis

no data
46.

Define photoautotroph

use energy from sunlight and inorganic materials to obtain nutrients/energy

47.

Define photosynthesis. What organelles are involved?

- the process of converting energy from sunlight into chemical energy

- chloroplasts

48.

What is the full formula for photosynthesis?

6CO2 + 6H20 + light energy = C6H12O6 + 6O2

49.

What are the colors associated with the wavelengths of light?

violet= 400 nm

blue= 475

green= 510

yellow= 570

orange= 590

red = 650

50.

Which plant pigment absorbs light at 400 nm?

chlorophyll a

51.

Which plant pigment absorbs light at 460 nm, 500 nm?

beta carotene

52.

Which plant pigment absorbs light at 520 nm

phycoerythrin

53.

Which two plant pigments absorb light at 540 nm

phycoerythrin

phycocyanin

54.

which plant pigment absorbs light at 600 nm, 620 nm?

phycocyanin

55.

Which plant pigment absorbs light at 640?

Chlorophyll A and chlorophyll B

56.

Which plant pigment absorbs light at 660 nm, 680 nm?

chlorophyll a

57.

Describe photosystem I?

- outer surface of the grana thylakoid membrane

- P700

- pigments absorb longer wavelengths of light (above 680 nm)

- participates in both cyclic and noncyclic photophosphorylation

- not associated with photolysis of water

- main function is ATP synthesis

58.

Describe photosystem II?

- inner surface of thylakoid membrane

- P680

- pigments absorb shorter wavelengths of light below 680 nm

- participates only in noncyclic photophosphorylation

- main function are ATP synthesis and photolysis of water

59.

What is a hypertonic solution? Which one was the hypertonic solution of the week?

- 3% NaCl

- cell decreased in size

60.

What is an isotonic solution? Which one was used for this week?

- the 0.85% saline was isotonic to the elodea leaf

- no change in the cells

61.

What is a hypotonic solution? which one was used for this week?

- distilled water

- the cells looked enlarged

62.

What slides did we look at in class?

We looked at the ligustrum leaf

Then we looked at Elodea leaf in 3 conditions (hypertonic, hypotonic, isotonic)

63.

Which plants were used?

- ligustrum, spinach, elodea

64.

What was the plant extract?

spinach

65.

What equipment was used?

- spectrophotometer

- microscope

- slides

66.

Quiz 9

Plants are generally classified as:

photoautotrophs

67.

Quiz 9

the photosystems and their associated electron transport chains are located:

On the thylakoid membrane

68.

Quiz 9

The innermost membrane of the chloroplast is known as the:

thylakoid

69.

Quiz 9

What is the final electron acceptor of Photosystem I?

NADP+

70.

Quiz 9

Carotenoids, like beta-carotene, are most efficient at absorbing light energy from which wavelength?

450 nm

71.

Quiz 9

Which organisms besides plants can be photoautotrophic?

photosynthetic bacteria

red algae

euglena

72.

Quiz 9

to enhance the efficiency of photosynthesis, there are multiple pigment molecules in the reaction centers. Why is it important to have more than one pigment?

to enable the reaction center to absorb sunlight from multiple wavelengths

73.

Quiz 9

What is photolysis?

use of energy from sunlight to break water into 2 electrons, 2 protons, and oxygen

74.

Week 10: Mitosis and Meiosis

no data
75.

Which process do prokaryotes use to replicate?

  • Binary Fission (divides into two identical cells)
  • divide very quickly- every 15-20 minutes
76.

Which process does a eukaryote use to replicate?

Mitosis

77.

The cell cycle in eukaryotes, unicellular or multicellular, consists of four stages. What are the four stages?

1. Gap 1 Phase (G1)

2. Synthesis Phase (S)

3. Gap 2 Phase (G2)

4. Mitosis

- G1, S, and G2 are known as interphase

- M phase or mitosis can be divided into further stages

78.

What happens during G1 phase?

- cell performs regular functions such as maintaining homeostasis, acquiring food energy or water, generating cellular energy, synthesizing proteins through transcription and translation, cellular transport both within cell and to other cells

79.

What happens during the S Phase?

- each of the chromosomes undergo DNA replication creating a new identical chromosome or sister chromatid

- each sister chromatid is attached to the other identical chromatid at the centromere forming the classic X shape associated with chromosomes

80.

What happens during G2 phase?

- final phase before cell prepares for mitosis

- preparation includes replication of organelles such as chloroplasts and mitochondria

- endomembrane system and the phospholipid bilayer of the nuclear envelope break down

81.

Define fertilization.

the action or process of fertilizing an egg, female animal, or plant, involving the fusion of male and female gametes to form a zygote

82.

Define zygote.

a diploid cell resulting from the fusion of two haploid gametes; a fertilized ovum

83.

Define chromosome.

a threadlike structure of nucleic acids and protein found in the nucleus of most living cells, carrying genetic information in the form of genes

84.

Define binary fission.

  • A type of asexual reproduction
  • most common in prokaryotes and occurs in some single-celled eukaryotes
85.

Define translocation.

A chromosomal rearrangement in which a segment of genetic material from one chromosome becomes heritably linked to another chromosome

86.

Define genetic recombination.

The production of offspring with combinations of traits that differ from those found in either parent

87.

Define mitotic spindle.

A group of spindle fibers that divide chromosomes during mitosis

88.

Define microtubules.

A microscopic tubular structure present in numbers in the cytoplasm of cells, sometimes aggregating to form more complex structures

89.

Define sister chromatids.

Two identical copies of chromatids formed by the replication of a single chromosome, with both copies joined together by a common centromere

90.

Define centromere.

The point on a chromosome by which it is attached to a spindle fiber during cell division

91.

Define centrosome.

An organelle near the nucleus of a cell that contains the centrioles and from which the spindle fibers develop in cell division

92.

What are the phases of mitosis?

Prophase, Prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis

93.

What happens during prophase?

  • nuclear envelope dissolves, mitotic spindle forms
94.

What happens during prometaphase?

Kinetochore microtubules attach to the replicated chromosomes and start to move the chromosomes toward the center (or equator) of the cell.

95.

What happens during metaphase?

- chromosomes line up along the metaphase plate of the cell

- Each chromosome will have two kinetochore microtubules attached to the centromeres of the chromosomes

- Each kinetochore microtubule will expand toward one of the mitotic spindles.

96.

What happens during anaphase?

- the two sister chromatids of each chromosome must split apart properly and move toward each spindle formation

-proteins holding the sister chromatids will dissolve and the kinetochore microtubules will move one sister chromatid to each pole

97.

What happens during telophase?

- a complete set of chromosomes has moved to either end of cell

- nuclear envelope will form around each set of chromosomes

- endomembrane systems of the cell will reform and organelles will move toward either end of the cell.

- polar microtubules also extend causing the cell to lengthen in preparation of cell division

98.

What happens during cytokinesis?

- single cell separates into two identical cells

- two nuclei and other cell structures have been replicated and sorted between the two poles

99.

What instruments were used during Week 10 lab?

- microscope, sample on slides

100.

What is the result of mitosis?

- 2 new cells

- two genetically identical daughter nuclei

101.

What does a haploid cell consist of?

- 23 chromosomes

- result of the process of meiosis, a type of cell division in which diploid cells divide to give rise to haploid germ cells

- unes in sexual reproduction, sperm and ova (gametes)

102.

What does a diploid cell consist of?

- 46 chromosomes

- reproduce by mitosis, make daughter cells that are exact replicas

- examples: skin, blood, muscle, cells (somatic cells)

103.

What is a cell plate?

- only active in plant cells

- serves to separate the two new cells and seal off the area that might open as the cell splits

104.

What is a cleavage furrow?

- only active in animal cells

- surrounds the cell and slowly tightens as the division process continues

105.

Week 10 Quiz

Which cells reproduce through mitosis?

somatic cells

106.

Week 10 Quiz

Cytokinesis takes place in animal cells through the formation of a

Cleavage furrow

107.

Week 10 Quiz

The nuclear envelope fragments in which stage of mitosis

Prometaphase

108.

Week 10 Quiz

The nucleolus disappears in which stage of mitosis?

prophase

109.

Week 10 Quiz

The centrioles replicate in which stage of the cell cycle?

G2

110.

Week 10 Quiz

The microtubules of the mitotic spindle attach to the kinetochore regions of centromeres during which stage of the cell cycle?

prometaphase

111.

Week 10 Quiz

The chromosomes are aligned on the equator in which stage of the cell cycle?

metaphase

112.

Week 10 Quiz

The centromeres split and sister chromatids are pulled to opposite poles in which stage of mitosis?

anaphase

113.

What structure is responsible for moving the chromosomes during mitosis?

kinetochore fibers

114.

Until anaphase of mitosis, each chromosome consists of two:

sister chromatids

115.

Following the S phase of the cell cycle, and before anaphase, how would you define a chromosome?

two sister chromatids attached by a centromere

116.

After telophase 1 of meiosis, what is the chromosomal makeup of each daughter cell?

haploid and the chromosomes are composed of two chromatids

117.

If a cell fails to pass the M phase checkpoint, it will be arrested in:

metaphase

118.

The m phase checkpoint prevents (?) from splitting unless kinetochore microtubules from both poles are attached to all centromeres

centrosomes

119.

Kinetochore microtubules from both poles attach to the centromeres at what point in cell division

before metaphase

120.

Which of the following events is characteristic of mitosis but not of meiosis?

diploid cells are formed

121.

Week 11: Genetics

no data
122.

Define homozygous

Has dominant or recessive traits the same

123.

Define heterozygous

Has one dominant and one recessive trait

124.

Define Monohybrid

A genetic cross between parents that differ in the alleles they possess for one particular gene, and parent having two dominant alleles and the other two recessive

125.

Define dihybrid

A cross between two different lines (varieties, strains) that differ in two observed traits

126.

Define aneuploidy

The presence of an abnormal number of chromosomes in a cell. For example a human cell having a total of 45 or 47 chromosomes instead of the usual 46

127.

Define pleiotropy

the production by a single gene of two or more apparently unrelated effects

128.

Define epistasis

the interaction of genes that are not alleles, in particular the suppression of the effect of one such gene by another

129.

Week 11 Quiz

Sex-linked recessive disorders are usually due to a gene on

the x chromosome

130.

Week 11 Quiz

Why are sex-linked disorders more common in males than in females?

males only have on x chromosome

131.

Weel 11 Quiz

In the dominant/recessive mode of inheritance, what is the phenotype of the heterozygous individual?

the dominant phenotype

132.

Week 11 Quiz

When using pedigrees to analyze inheritance of dominant/recessive traits, what do the squares represent?

males

133.

Week 11 Quiz

Which of the following is an example of a dihybrid cross?

individuals who express true-breeding phenotypes for two genes located on different chromosomes are crossed

134.

Week 11 Quiz

Homologous chromosomes separated in:

Anaphase I of meiosis

135.

Week 11 Quiz

Crossing over is the exchange of genetic information between:

homologous chromosomes

136.

Week 11 Quiz

When a particular trait is dominantly inherited, and you have on affected parent, what is the change (probability) you will inherit that trait?

50%

137.

Week 11 Quiz

When does cross over take place?

in Prophase I of meiosis

138.

Week 11 Quiz

If there are two different versions of genes for a specific trait (for example: flower odor) those two versions are called:

alleles

139.

How do you calculate deviation?

experimental value - arithmetic mean

140.

How do you calculate percent deviation?

(deviation/ theoretical value) * 100

141.

How do you calculate chi square?

x^2 = ((observed - expected)^2/expected)

142.

Week 12: Mutations

no data
143.

Define and give an example of mutation

- any change in DNA structure-- most mutations are deleterious

144.

Define and give an example of substitution

A mutation that changes one base for another

145.

Define and give an example of deletion

A mutation in which a part of a chromosome a sequence of DNA is lost during DNA replication

146.

Define and give an example of insertion

- A piece of DNA that is inserted into a larger DNA vector by a recombinant DNA technique, such as ligation or recombination

147.

Define and give an example of frameshift

an insertion or deletion of a base that changes the entire reading frame for translation

148.

Define and give an example of nonsense mutation

A codon that specifies an amino acid is changed to a stop codon, and translation is prematurely terminated-- significant alteration in protein function

149.

Define and give an example of missense mutation

- due to a single base change, which results in a change in the amino acid coded for

- also called neutral mutation

150.

Define and give an example of silent mutation

- A point mutation due to a base substitution of DNA

- results in no change in the resulting protein bc some amino acids have more than one codon that specifies their addition

- Example: If you have a codon UUC, the DNA that coded for that is AAG. If G is changed to A, the codon becomes UUU. Both UUC and the UUU code for phenylalanine so there is no change in the resulting protein

151.

Week 12 Quiz

The only type of monosomy that has resulted in live birth in humans is:

Turner's syndrome

152.

Week 12 Quiz

Which are results of aneuploidy of the sex chromosomes

Turner's syndrome

Klinefelter's syndrome

Jacob's syndrome

153.

True or False. A deletion in the short arm of chromosome 15 would be detected in karyotyping

TRUE

154.

What is the karyotype of Edward's syndrome

trisomy 18

155.

A chromosome that shows one extra chromosome is an example of

aneuploidy

156.

How many pairs of chromosomes do humans have?

23

157.

New combinations of genes can be produced by

Meiosis

crossing over

mutation

158.

chromosomes are aligned up based on size and banding pattern in which of the following procedures

karyotyping

159.

A segment of chromosome breaks off and attaches to a non homologous chromosome in:

translocation

160.

One source of mutation is during DNA replication. Which of the following would be classified as a mutation that would affect cell function.

a single base change in the coding sequence of DNA that changes the amino acid added to the protein