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Advanced Radiographic Procedures Exam 9

1.

CT and MRI arthrography has significantly reduced the number of radiographic arthrograms performed.

True or False

True

2.

What is the most common type of contrast media given during a myelogram?

Nonionic, water soluble

3.

Which of the following is generally true for knee arthrography?

A common nontrauma clinical indication is a Baker's cyst

4.

Which of the following instruments is NOT required during a knee arthrogram?

Sterile Gauze

10mL syringe

20 gauge needle

Arthroscope

Arthroscope

5.

Which of the following projections would NOT be commonly performed during a shoulder arthrogram?

Scapular Y projection

6.

Which of the following is a contraindication for myelography?

Blood in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

Arachnoiditis

Increased intracranial pressure

Recent lumbar puncture

All of these are correct

All of these are correct

7.

Which of the following factors is critical when performing orthoentgenography?

The patient should not move between exposures

8.

A common flurorscopy routine for knee arthroplasty is

nine views of each menisci rotated 20 degrees between exposures

9.

During an arthrogram, why is the knee flexed following injection of contrast media before imaging?

To coat the soft tissue structures with contrast media

10.

The purpose of the hysterosalpingography is to demonstrate the

uterine cavity and the patency of the uterine tubes

11.

Which of the following is a contraindication to hysterosalpingography?

Pregnancy

Acute pelvic inflammatory disease

Active uterine bleeding

All of these are correct

All of these are correct

12.

Which of the following is NOT an indication for knee arthroplasty?

Injury or tears to rotator cuff

13.

During a myelogram performed with the patient prone, why is a positioning block (bolster) placed under the abdomen for the lumbar puncture?

To widen the interspinous spaces

14.

How is the water-soluble contrast media eliminated following a myelogram?

Excreted by the kidneys

15.

What is the most common clinical indication for postoperative (T-tube) cholangiogram?

Residual Calculi

16.

A limb-shortening surgical procedure is termed:

epiphysiodesis

17.

What is the most common injection site for a myelogram?

L3-4

18.

The suggested positioning routine for lumbar myelogram is:

patient prone, semierect horizontal beam lateral

19.

What size needle is used to introduce the contrast media during a shoulder arthrogram?

2 3/4 - 3 1/2 spinal needle

20.

The majority of ERCP procedures are performed by a

gastroenterologist

21.

An endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) can be either a diagnostic or therapeutic procedure.

True or False

True

22.

What is the most common clinical indication for a myelogram?

HNP

23.

Imaging for a hysterosalpingography includes centering of the CR and IR to:

2 inches superior to the symphysis pubis

24.

The literal definition of "orthoentgenography" is:

straight or right-angle radiography

25.

The uterine (fallopian) tube are approximately _____ cm in length.

10-12

26.

Which meningeal space contains cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?

Subarachnoid Space

27.

An undesired feature or density in the CT image not representative of anatomy is a(n)

Artifact

28.

How many pairs of cranial nerves can be found in the brain?

12

29.

Visual centers in the brain are located in the _____ lobe of the cererum.

Occipital

30.

Approximately ______ of all head CT's generally require intravenous contrast media.

50-90%

31.

What is the name of the white brain structure that connects the two cerebral hemispheres?

Corpus callosum

32.

Special filters can be used during CT fluoroscopy to reduce patient skin dose during biopsies.

True or False

True

33.

Which structure connects the two hemispheres of the cerebellum?

Vermis

34.

A predetermined procedure is the definition for

protocol

35.

What is the name of the tapered, terminal part of the spinal cord?

conus medullaris

36.

Which medium serves as the baseline for CT numbers

water

37.

The ratio between the relationship between table speed and slice thickness defines:

pitch

38.

CT angiography (CTA) does not require the use of intravenous contrast media to demonstrate vascular structures.

True or False

False

39.

What is the name of the channels located between the cranium and dura mater that contain blood?

Subdural Space

40.

The common lumbar puncture site is located at the vertebral level of

L3-4

41.

A condition caused by an abnormal amount of CSF in the ventricles is termed:

hydrocephalus

42.

Which of the following pathologic indications would NOT apply to head CT?

Multiple sclerosis

43.

A CT cholonography requires the use of _____ as a contrast medium.

air

44.

Which of the following conditions may be a contraindication for head CT?

Sensitivity to iodinated contrast media

45.

Which of the following structures is also called the hypophysis?

Pituitary Gland

46.

Which of the following is NOT one of the cerebral nuclei or basal ganglia?

Thalamus

47.

Which structures of the neuron carries electric impulses away from the cell body?

Axon

48.

What is the name for the enlarged regions of the subarachnoid space?

Cisterns

49.

The gantry houses the x-ray tube and the detector array.

True or False

True

50.

A collection of blood accumulating under the dura mater caused by trauma is termed:

subdural hematoma

51.

Artifacts caused by patient motion are reduced with volume CT scanning as compared with earlier generation scanners.

True or False

True

52.

Which of the following is NOT a major cranial nerve?

Sensory

53.

Which of the following statements is NOT an advantage of CT over conventional imaging?

Exposes the patient to less radiation

54.

Which of the following pitch ratios is considered to be over-sampling?

0.5:1

55.

Which of the following structures is NOT part of the spinal cord:

Cerebellum