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AST Practice Exam #5

1.

What clip is used for scalp hemostasis in cranial procedures?

Raney

2.

The local freezing if diseased tissue to facilitate removal without bleeding is called

Cryosurgery

3.

In severe aortic stenosis, what is not an indications of valve replacement

Palpitations

4.

In the event a child requires emergency surgery, but the parents cannot be located to sign the surgical consent:

Consent is signed by two consulting physicians

5.

Ethylene Oxide (ETO) sterilization destroys microbes by the process of:

Alkylation

6.

What is the most common cause of aortic aneurysm?

Atherosclerosis

7.

What is used to determine the position of cannulated screws during repair of a femoral neck fracture?

Guide pins

8.

The instruments show are used to dilate the:

Cervix

9.

What are the instruments below called and used for what procedure

Hagar dilators / D&C

10.

Prior to being placed in the Eto sterilizer, items must:

Be completely dry

11.

During general anesthesia induction, which sense is the last to be experienced by the patient?

Hearing

12.

The purpose of creating an arteriovenous fistula is for:

Hemodialysis

13.

What nerve is at greater risk during a thyriodectomy?

Recurrent laryngeal

14.

Which nerve could be compressed against the humerus in the prone position?

Radial

15.

What is the surgical procedure for reducing testosterone in prostate cancer?

Orchiectomy

16.

What is the name of the retractor shown below?

Harrington
Great for retracting abdominal organs

17.

If the broth in the steam sterilization biological indicator is yellow after incubation, what action to be taken?

Items must be immediately recalled

18.

A specimen that is 5 centimeters is equal to:

2 inches

19.

Which of the following vessels arises from the right ventricle of the heart?

Pulmonary artery

20.

The instrument below is used to:

Osteotome - cut bone

21.

Which area is prepped first when performing the skin prep for a skin grafting procedure?

Donor site

22.

Which of the following has legal significance in the mishandling of a bullet?

Damaging ballistic markings

23.

Which procedure requires preoperative high-level disinfection of the endoscope?

Bronchoscopy

24.

What maintains the position of the uterus?

Broad ligament

25.

What device would the surgeon use to preserve facial motor and sensory functions during a parotidectomy?

Nerve stimulator

26.

if the surgeon uses a knife blade to incise the oral mucosa, the preferred blade is:

12

27.

The gravity steam sterilization process can be rendered ineffective if the:

Temperature is below 250deg

28.

A suture used to retract a structure to the side of the operative field is a/an:

Traction suture

29.

What must the circulating surgical technologist do when placing the patient in the supine position?

Confirm angles are not crossed

30.

What body system aids in the metastatic spread of cancer cells?

Lymphatic

31.

Which of the following is inserted into the symphonic membrane incision during a myringotomy?

PE tube

32.

Which organelle contains digestive juices?

Lysosome

33.

During a thyriodectomy, if all parathyroid glands are accidentally removed, what complications will occur?

Tetany

34.

Which of the following surgical instruments is used to retract the lung?

Allison

35.

Which of the following instruments would be used to remove nasal polyps?

Krause nasal snare

36.

What anatomical structure is Mersilene tape sutured around during a cerclage?

Cervix

37.

What does the suffix - ectomy mean?

Excision

38.

What would the preoperative diagnosis be for an infant undergoing craniotomy?

Craniosynostosis

39.

Where is the anterior chamber of the eye located?

Posterior to the cornea and anterior to the iris

40.

What would contraindicate preoperatively setting up the cell saver machine?

patient has cancer

41.

Which medication is contraindicated for patients with a history of malignant hyperthermia?

Succinylcholine (triggers malignant hyperthermia)

42.

What is an incision into the tympanic membrane for the removal of accumulated fluid?

Myringotomy

43.

What is not required when a patient is placed in the prone position

safety belt is placed below the knees

44.

A tissue specimen being sent to pathology for a frozen section is prepared by placing it into a :

container without preservative

45.

The body's first line of defense against infection is:

intact skin

46.

Which stapling device would be used to create an anastomosis during a low anterior resection?

EEA

47.

Packing material would be placed as a dressing after surgery on the:

rectum

48.

What is the lining of the thoracic cavity?

Pleura

49.

What is the proper method of removing the knife blade from the handle when breaking down the Mayo stand?

Use a heavy hemostat or needle holder

50.

What route of drug administration is parenteral

Intravenous

51.

The vascular, fibrous covering of bone is the:

Periosteum

52.

What type of dressing would usually be used for a laparotomy procedure?

pressure

53.

To prevent deep-vein thrombosis in the bariatric patient, what preoperative drug is given?

Heparin

54.

Which space is entered during a thymectomy?

Mediastinum

55.

Femoral rasps are used for what reason:

Prepare the intramedullary space for a prosthesis

56.

What is part of the immune system?

Spleen

57.

What incision is frequently used for pediatric aortic coarctation repair?

Posterolateral thoracotomy

58.

Type and cross match for blood is completed:

If blood loss with replacement is anticipated

59.

The purpose of the kidney elevator is to:

Increase the space between the lower rib and iliac crest

60.

When storing information on the hard drive of a computer, what is clicked?

save

61.

What is the proper method for handling disposable suction containers when turning over an OR?

Wipe down outside of the container and place in biohazard bag for disposal

62.

Which of the following can cause lumbosacral strain in the lithotomy position?

Buttocks extend past table break

63.

A midline xiphoid to pubis incision is commonly made for a/an:

Abdominal aortic aneurysmectomy

64.

Which item should the surgical technologist confirm is available for a nerve repair?

Loupes

65.

How often should biological testing of EtO sterilization be conducted?

Every load

66.

Which of the following is a liquid chemical sterilant often used for sterilizing endoscopes with a cycle time of 30 minutes?

Peracetic acid

67.

When should the first closing sponge, sharp and instrument count be completed?

prior to closure of the body cavity

68.

Which of the following skin preps is contraindicated for use around eyes and ears because of potential for corneal abrasions and ototoxicity?

Chlorhexidine

69.

A short-acting narcotic opioid given intramuscularly for preoperative sedation is:

Meperidine

70.

The leg extensor muscle:rectus femurs, vastus laterals, vastgus medial is and the vast us intermedius are collectively called the;

Quadriceps femoris

71.

What does the term - scope mean?

viewing

72.

How many minutes should a Frazier suction tip be immediate-use sterilized (flash sterilized) in a gravity steam sterilizer?

10

73.

What preoperative procedures should be completed for the diabetic patient

Antiembolic stockings placed on patient

74.

Induced hypothermia is typically associated with which of the following surgical specialities?

Cardiothoracic

75.

What block involved medication being injected into the subarachnoid space?

spinal

76.

What conditions might require use of a Silastic urethral catheter?

latex allergy

77.

A patient received preoperative instructions to remove nail polish to:

Prevent pulse oximeter malfunction

78.

How often should the steam sterilizing machine's strainer be cleaned?

daily

79.

What is the smallest microorganism that requires a host cell for replication?

virus

80.

Which surgeon might provide the operative exposure for the neurosurgeon in a transphenoidal approach to the sell turcica?

Otorhinolaryngologist

81.

An intraoperative mutagenic and carcinogenic hazard of laser use is:

Laser plume

82.

What type of solution is recommended for cleaning the OR floors during room turnover?

Detergent-disinfection

83.

What is used to remove resected prostatic tissue during a TURP?

Ellik

84.

A patient is instructed to be NPO for 8 hours prior to surgery to prevent:

Aspiration

85.

The essential element of hemoglobin is:

Iron

86.

In which procedure would the instrument shown below be used?

Hysterectomy

87.

A large, bony process found on the femur is a :

Trochanter

88.

What incisions would be performed for repair for a liver laceration?

Midline

89.

Just before the surgeon makes the skin incision which of the following must be performed?

time-out

90.

The pulse rate of pregnant patients:

Increases

91.

Which portion of the stomach is superior to the esophageal sphincter?

fundus

92.

A linen pack to be steam sterilized must not weigh more than:

12lbs

93.

The closing sponge count should be initiated at the:

operative field

94.

During which procedure is it imperative that the surgical tech maintain the sterility of the back table and mayo stand until the patient is transported out of the OR?

Tonsillectomy

95.

Which statements concerning peel-packs is correct?

When labeling with felt-tip marker write on the plastic side

96.

Which two structures are identified and ligated during a cholecystectomy?

cystic artery and cystic duct

97.

Which is the primary responsibility of the first scrub surgical tech during a cardiac arrest in the OR?

Protect the sterile field

98.

What does pneumonectomy mean?

removal of a lung

99.

How many hours must the steam biological indicator by incubated before reading the results?

24

100.

Which of the following is responsible for causing transmission of spongiform encephalopathy?

Prion

101.

The thyroid gland consists of right and left lobes joined by the ;

Isthmus

102.

A sustained contraction produced by rapid stimuli is called:

tetany

103.

What type of heart rate does tachycardia describe?

Fast

104.

What would be the least likely complication of suprapubic prostatectomy?

Acute phlebitis

105.

When is the surgical consent typically signed?

Before preoperative medications are administered

106.

What is the order for postoperative case management?

Remove drapes; preserve sterile field until patient leaves OR; remove gown and gloves; don non-sterile gloves to break down back table.

107.

What type of needle is used when suturing the skin?

Reverse cutting

108.

Which ultrasonic devices can be used intraoperatively to assess the patency of arterial blood flow?

doppler probe

109.

The instrument shown below is used to:

Dissect periosteum from bone
Key periosteal elevator

110.

The area of the brain that controls respiration is the:

medulla oblongata

111.

What factor is used to determine the inflation pressure of a tourniquet?

patients age

112.

What describes the time from incision to the dressing application?

Intraoperative

113.

At the end of a procedure, and after the patient has been transported out of the OR, the surgical tech should remove the:

gown

114.

The instrument shown below is used during a/an

thyroidectomy
Green retractor

115.

What is considered the operative stage of anesthesia?

third

116.

When performing the surgical scrub, the hands and arms are considered:

surgically clean

117.

What is an obstetric complication resulting from overstimulation of the clotting processes?

disseminated intravascular coagulation

118.

What does the term symbiosis mean?

Relationship between unlike species of organisms

119.

What statements is true concerning cleaning OR walls between surgical procedures?

clean areas of wall splashed with blood or debris

120.

Which anatomical structure is removed during a total hip arthroplasty?

femoral head

121.

What controls the arrow on your monitor?

Mouse

122.

Wound dressings should be opened:

After the last count is completed.

123.

A stent may be placed to identify the ureter during which of the following procedures?

right colectomy

124.

A rapid-onset muscle relaxant used for intubation is:

Anectine

125.

A general consent form authorizes:

routine medical treatment

126.

During which Step of an abdominal hysterectomy would the instrument shown below be used?

Make last cut to free the uterus
Jorgensen Scissors

127.

What must be completed preoperatively if a patient underwent a barium study of the day of surgery?

Enema

128.

What suture is contraindicated in the presence of infection?

Silk

129.

When the surgical technologist is breaking down the back table, instruments with ratchets should be:

Placed in a basin with enzymatic solution in open position for transport to decontamination

130.

The cup-like extensions of the renal pelvis that collect urine from the pyramids are:

Calyces

131.

What is a type of one-layer dressing?

steri-strips

132.

Braided nonabsorbable sutures should not be used in infected wounds because suture crevices:

Can harbor bacteria that travel length of suture

133.

What postoperative complication can result from excess or prolonged planter flexion?

Foot drop

134.

What immediate postoperative complication most often occurs with pediatric patients?

airway difficulty

135.

Another name for a corneal transplant procedure is:

keratoplasty

136.

Fertilization normally occurs in the:

Fallopian tube

137.

What is the name of the instrument show below?

Kocher

138.

The inner layer of an artery is the:

Intima

139.

Which laser can be used on light and dark tissues?

Carbon dioxide

140.

Which implant is used for individuals with sensorineural deafness?

cochlear implant

141.

Splenectomy places the patient at an increased risk for:

Infection

142.

In the presence of infection, the absorption rate of surgical gut is:

Increased

143.

Dark blood in the sterile field could indicate?

Hypoxia

144.

Which instrument will the surgeon use to free the entrapped orbital fat during repair of an orbital floor fracture?

Freer

145.

A urinary tract infection, following a cystoscopy, is an example of what type of infection?

healthcare-acquired infection

146.

What is a type of meniscal tear?

bucket handle

147.

Which surgical procedure may require a suprabubic catheter to drain the urinary bladder?

Prostatectomy

148.

What microorganisms is least likely to be associated with wound infections?

Treponema Pallidum (normally associated with syphilis)

149.

Liquid agents used to reduce microorganisms on the patient's skin.

antiseptics

150.

Which closed wound drainage requires being connected to a bulb evacuator?

Jackson-pratt

151.

What term refers to items remaining indefinitely until the wrapper is compromised?

event-related sterility

152.

Which vein would be harvested during a CABG?

Saphenous

153.

When incubated, the ETo biological indicator can be read after:

24 hours

154.

The structure that facilities the exchange of nutrients and wastes between the fetus and mother is the:

Placenta

155.

When helping to turn over an OR between patients, the surgical technologists should:

Use a clean mop head

156.

Vitrectomy is the removal of the:

Gel from the eye

157.

When using ETO sterilization, the recommended aeration time for an aerator set at 140deg F is:

24 hours

158.

Where should the biological indicator test be placed on the steam sterilizer cart?

bottom front

159.

Which vessel empties into the right atrium?

Superior vena cava

160.

Knife blades should be loaded onto the handle with:

Needle holder

161.

Which vitamin is essential for the clotting proccess?

Vitamin K

162.

From where do most intracanial aneurysms arise?

Circle of willis

163.

What equipment would require preoperative draping by the surgical technologist?

c-arm

164.

What dietary substance enhances the production of collagen?

Protein

165.

The normal range of intraoperative pressure for the insufflator during a laparoscopy is?

12-15mm Hg

166.

Where should the ETO biological indicator be placed in the load?

center

167.

What is the proper way to remove a patient from the lithotomy position?

Lower legs together slowing in unison

168.

What procedure should the first scrub technologist set up for when a female patient is undergoing a repair for a cystocele and rectocele?

anterior and posterior colporrhaphy

169.

Which vein drains the small intestine?

Hepatic portal

170.

Which specialized retractors are used during a rotator cuff repair?

Bankart

171.

The concave notch of the kidney through which the ureter exits is the:

Hilum

172.

The large artery found posterior to the knees is the:

Popliteal

173.

Proper placement of the Foley catheter is confirmed prior to the balloon inflation by which of the following:

urine flowing out of the catheter

174.

Which portion of the small intestine joins to the large intestine?

ileum

175.

Which tank would be brought into the OR if a surgical technologist is preparing an oscillating saw?

compressed nitrogen