The property of a test to detect only a certain antibody or antigen and not to react with any others is

a. agglutination

b. sensitivity

c. precipitation

d. cross-reaction

e. specificity

e. specificity

The serum of a person with blood type A and Rh^- will have the ability to make which antibodies?

a. Anti-a, anti-b, and anti-Rh

b. anti-a

c. anti-b

d. anti-B and anti-Rh

e. anti-a and anti-Rh

e. anti-B and anti-Rh

African sleeping sickness is caused by...

a. Plasmodium falciparum

b. Trypanosoma brucei

c. Trypanosoma cruzi

d. Isospora belli

e. Leishmania braziliensis

b. Trypanosoma brucie

Titer is the amount of _______ in serum.

a. WBC

b. complement

c. antibody

d. antigen

e. memory cells

c. antibody

The antibody-secreting progeny cells of a B-cell clone are called

a. activated macrophages

b. sensitize T cells

c. bursa cells

d. plasma cells

e. antibodies

d. plasma cells

Which of the following is a special binding substance that enhances immunogenicity and prolongs antigen retention at the injection site?

a. booster

b. antibodies to toxin

c. adjuvant

d. "Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine

e. gamma globulin

c. adjuvant

Which process involves a more rapid synthesis and greatly increase titer of antibodies when the immune system is subsequently exposed to the same antigen?

a. anamnestic response

b. opsonization

c. neutralization

d. agglutination

e. complement fixation

a. anamnestic response

Impetigo is caused by

a. C. diphtheriae

b. Both S. aureus and S. pyogenes are correct

c. S. aureus

d. S. pyogenes

e. P. acnes

b. Both S. aureus and S. pyogenes are correct

Your friend is bitten on the leg by an aggressive dog. Since the dog ran and was not caught and since the dog bit many other people without reason it is suspected that it had rabies. The city health department recommends the rabies vaccination for her, even though she has already been exposed to the infectious agent. Which statement best describes why the vaccine can be given post exposure?

a. there were a few virus particles in the by, so her immune system has enough time to kick into high gear

b. The virus exhibits a long incubation period in many cases providing the vaccine adequate time to have a protective effect in the patient

c. this particular strain of the rabies virus is probably nonpathogenic, so the vaccine is given to simply boost immune systems own protective functions

D. Since there's nothing really else to do, they suggest a vaccine as a last possibility

b. The virus exhibits a long incubation period in many cases providing the vaccine adequate time to have a protective effect in the patient

The toxin of Staphylococcus aureus strains that causes blisters and desquamation of skin in scalded skin syndrome is

a. toxic shock syndrome toxin

b. erythrogenic toxin

c. enterotoxin

d. exfoliative toxin

e. hemolysin

d. exfoliative toxin

Soluble antigens are detected in this type of test

a. cross reactions

b. precipitation

c. agglutination

d. sensitivity

e. specificity

b. precipitation

A frequent cancer that is seen and AIDS patients is

a. melanoma

b. Kaposi's sarcoma

c. Leukemia

D. Hodgkin's lymphoma

E. Myeloma

b. Kaposi's sarcoma

Autoantibodies cause tissue injury and all of the following diseases except

a. myasthenia gravis

b. Rheumatoid arthritis

c. Tuberculin reaction

D. Graves disease

E. Multiple sclerosis

c. Tuberculin reaction

Tetanus differs from botulism in that...

A. there is a vaccine for botulism not tetanus

b. muscles cannot relax in tetanus, while muscles cannot contract in botulism

c. all of the choices are correct

d. tetanus results in flaccid paralysis, while botulism paralysis is rigid

e. tetanus results from an exotoxin, botulism from an endotoxin

b. muscles cannot relax in tetanus, while muscles cannot contract in botulism

When minute samples of DNA needs to be genetically analyzed for identification purposes, which test can be effectively used?

A. PCR

b. Direct florescence antibody

c. Widal

D. Western blot

E. Weil Felix reaction

A. PCR

The property of a test to detect even small amounts of antibiotics or antigens that are tests targets is

A. Cross-reaction

b. Agglutination

C. Specificity

D. Sensitivity

E. Precipitation

D. Sensitivity

What brain defense restricts substances from entering the brain by the vascular system

A.blood brain barrier

b. Microglia

c. Meninges

D. Macrophages

e. Cranium

A.blood brain barrier

Which organism is a common cause of meningitis in AIDS patients and can be found in bird droppings

a. Haemophilus influenzae

b. STreptococcus agalactiae

c. Listeria monocytogenes

d. Neisseria meningitidis

e. Cryptococcus neoformans

e. Cryptococcus neoformans

The gram-negative bacillus associated with abscesses from cat bites or scratches is

a. Francisella tularensis

b. Yersinia entercolitica

c. Brucella suis

d. Bartonella henselae

e. Salmonella typhimurium

d. Bartonella henselae

Which of the following is not a phenotypic method of identification

A. Antibody response

b. Endospore production

C. Gram stain reaction

D. Morphology

E. Acid-fast reaction

A. Antibody response

The testing method involving the separation of serum proteins by electrophoresis, their subsequent transfer to special filters, and the probing with patient Sarah is the

A. Immunoelectrophoresis

B. Western blot

C Ouchterlony double diffusion

D. Radioimmunoassay

E. the Quellung test

B. Western blot

The swelling over a pore leading out of a hair follicle that has been clogged is called

a. Furuncle

B. papule

C. pustule

D. Carbuncle

E. Comedo

E. Comedo

The causative agent of this febrile disease characterized by a rash can cross the placenta and cause serious fetal damage

A rubella

B. Measles

C. mumps

D. croup

E. Influenza

A rubella

Which test cannot be used for identification of a person's HIV status

A. Western blot

B. Immunochromatographic testing

C. Biochemical tests

D. Elisa

C. Biochemical tests

The causative organism of malaria is a

A. Bacterium

B. Virus

C. Protozoan

D. Prion

E. Fungus

C. Protozoan

The organism responsible for the majority of neonatal meningitis is

Streptococcus agalactiae

The initial encounter with an allergen is called the _______ dose

A. Hypersensitivity

B. Allergic

C. Provocative

D. Sensitizing

E. Desensitizing

D. Sensitizing

Acquired specific immunity involves the response of

a. Interferon

B. Skin barriers

C. B and T lymphocytes

D. Mucous membranes

E. Lysozyme

C. B and T lymphocytes

An example of a secondary acquired immunodeficiency is

A. DiGeorge syndrome

B. SCID

C. Aids

D. Adenosine deaminase deficiency

E. Agammaglobulinemia

C. Aids

Any heightened immune response resulting in tissue damage is called an

A. Autoimmune disease

B. Desensitization

C. Transfusion reaction

D. Immunodeficiency

E. Hypersensitivity

E. Hypersensitivity

Pasteurization of milk helps to prevent

a. Mononucleosis

B. Tularemia

C. Brucellosis

D. Endocarditis

E. Plague

C. Brucellosis

Which of the following is/are a sign or symptom of meningitis

A. All of the choices are correct

B. Headache

C. Fever

D. White blood cells in cerebrospinal fluid

E. Stiff neck

A. All of the choices are correct

All nucleated cells contain

A. class I MHC

B. Secretory antibodies

C. IgD receptors

D. IgE receptors

E. class II MHC

A. class I MHC

Specific immunity provides long-lasting protection through the production of

A. phagocytotic cells

B. Memory cells

C. Antibodies

D. T-helper cells

E. Plasma cells

B. Memory cells

There are many infectious agents that would make excellent biological weapons which one of the following would be the best choice for such a weapon considered dissemination of the weapons, death rate, etc. when you answer this question

Bacillus anthracis

Staphylococcus aureus can be identified by mixing organism with specific antibody, and visually recognizing a clumping reaction between the antigen and antibody this is an _________ test.

A. Elisa

B. Agglutination

C. MicroArray

D. Biochemical

B. Agglutination

Tissue transplanted from one body site on a patient to a different body site on that patient is called a

A. Isograft

B. Hypograft

C. Allograft

D. Autograft

E. Xenograft

D. Autograft

If a person was never been infected with the varicella zoster virus comes in contact with the person who has shingles they will come down with

A. Herpes labialis

B. Infectious mononucleosis

C. Shingles

D. Chickenpox

E. Herpes keratitis

D. Chickenpox

A foreign molecule that causes a specific immune response is a/an

A. PAMP

B. hapten

C. antibody

D. marker

E. antigen

E. antigen

Which type of hemorrhagic fever is also known as "breakbone fever" because of the severe pain in bones?

A. Dengue fever

B. Yellow Fever

C. Marburg

D. Ebola

E. Lassa fever

A. Dengue fever

The microbial pathogen associated with the development of acne is

Propionibacterium acnes

Which process involves antibodies cross-linking cells or particles into large aggregates?

A. opsonization

B. neutralization

C. agglutination

D. complement fixation

E. anamnestic response

C. agglutination

Neonatal meningitis is most commonly transmitted by

A. Exposure in birth canal

B. Breast Feeding

C. Hospital personnel D. Exposure from other infants

E. Transplacental infection

A. Exposure in birth canal

A blood specimen from the patient has been taking about a doctor, with which he made a blood smear on a microscope slide. The doctor takes the blood smear down the hall to one of the labs what he uses a regular light microscope to survey the blood, after staining. Which of these diseases would likely be identified in this way?

A. Chagas disease

B. HIV

C. E bola hemorrhagic fever

D Dengue Fever

A. Chagas disease

This organism can infect deeper wound sites and produce exotoxins, enzymes, and gas that cause tissue and muscle necrosis

Clostridium perfringens

blood vessels are found in the

A. Stratum Basale

B. Dermis and subcutaneous layer

C. Dermis

B. Stratum Corneum

E. Subcutaneous layer

B. Dermis and subcutaneous layer

Small foreign molecules that are too small by themselves to elicit an immune response are termed

A. Epitopes

B. Haptens

C. Variable Regions

D. Antigen Binding Sites

B. Haptens

which drugs interfere with the action of an HIV enzyme needed for final assembly and maturation of the virus

A. Integrase Inhibitors

B. Protease Inhibitors

C. Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors

D. Fusion Inhibitors

B. Protease Inhibitors

The seasonal reaction to inhaled allergens is

A. Asthma

B. Anaphylaxis

C. Eczema

D. Allergic Rhinitis

E. Atopic Dermatitis

D. Allergic Rhinitis

Bee sting venom is considered to be which type of Allergen

A. Ingestant

B. Inhalant

C. Contactant

D. Injectant

D. Injectant

which of the following is not used as an anti-septic

A. Merthiolate

B. Iodophor

C. 3% Hydrogen Peroxide

D. Aqueous Glutaraldehyde

E. Chlorhexidine

D. Aqueous Glutaraldehyde

A type of monocyte that has long, thing processes to trap pathogens is a

a. Macrophage

B. mast cell

C. Dendritic cell

D. Eosinophil

E. Platelet

C. Dendritic cell

In the formation of recombinant DNA, what enzyme is needed to seal the sticky ends of genes into plasmids or chromosomes

A. DNA polymerase I

B. DNA polymerase II

C. DNA helicase

D. DNA ligase

E. primase

D. DNA ligase

This is a promising treatment for stopping the expression of an unwanted gene

A. Cloning

B. DNA fingerprinting

C. Gene therapy

D. Antisense therapy

D. Antisense therapy

The stage of an infectious disease when specific signs and symptoms are seen and the pathogen is at peak activity is the

A. Convalescent Stage

B. Period of Invasion

C. Incubation Period

D. Prodromal Period

B. Period of Invasion

Nutrients that encourage the growth of beneficial microbes in the intestines are known as

A. Riboswitches

B. Prebiotics

C. Probiotics

D. Lantibiotics

E. Phytobiotics

B. Prebiotics

Which is not terminology used for resident biota

A. Normal microbiota

B. Commensals

C. Normal biota

D. Pathogenic biota

E. Indigenous biota

D. Pathogenic biota

Each of the following is a mechanism for drug assistance transfer between microorganisms except

A. Transposons

B. R-plasmids

C. Conjugation

D. Mutation

C. Conjugation