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Summer Immuno Lecture 12

1.

A pregnant patient’s placenta produces a cytokine that shifts maternal helper T cells away from a Th1 profile to improve fetal survival. Which cytokine is responsible?

IL-4

2.

Because of placental immune biasing during pregnancy, most humans are born with helper T cells skewed toward which cytokine profile?

Th___ cytokines

Th2 cytokines

3.

A child raised with limited microbial exposure later develops multiple environmental allergies. Which concept best explains this association?

A. Molecular mimicry

B. Hygiene hypothesis

C. Epitope spreading

D. Anergy escape

B. Hygiene hypothesis

4.

According to the hygiene hypothesis, early childhood microbial infections tend to bias immune responses toward which helper T-cell subset?

A. Th17 cells

B. Tfh cells

C. Th2 cells

D. Th1 cells

D. Th1 cells

5.

In populations with improved hygiene and fewer childhood infections, which disease pattern is expected to increase?

A. Allergic disease

B. Severe neutropenia

C. Complement deficiency

D. Chronic granulomas

A. Allergic disease

6.

Early exposure to certain allergens is thought to reduce later allergy risk by promoting which immune bias?

A. Th2 polarization

B. Th1 polarization

C. IgE fixation

D. Mast-cell priming

B. Th1 polarization

7.

Which T-cell population helps prevent IgE production against common environmental allergens?

____ ____ cells

Regulatory T cells

8.

A tissue helper T cell is induced to suppress allergic antibody production. What cell type has it most likely become?

____ cell

iTreg cell

9.

An iTreg suppresses allergic sensitization by producing cytokines that redirect antibody class switching. Which cytokine pair is involved?

A. IL-4 and IL-5

B. IL-2 and IL-12

C. IFN-gamma and TNF

D. IL-10 and TGF-beta

D. IL-10 and TGF-beta

10.

In non-atopic individuals, most CD4+ T cells specific for common allergens belong to which population?

A. Th17 cells

B. Regulatory T cells

C. Cytotoxic T cells

D. Follicular T cells

B. Regulatory T cells

11.

A patient has mutant IgE receptors that signal excessively after crosslinking. Which mast-cell cytokine is abnormally increased?

IL-4

12.

Excessive IL-4 secretion from mast cells in an atopic patient would most directly increase production of which antibody class?

IgE

13.

Omalizumab prevents allergic activation by binding which region of IgE?

___ region

Fc region

14.

Omalizumab blocks IgE from binding most directly to which allergy-effector cell?

A. Eosinophils

B. Mast cells

C. Th1 cells

D. Tregs

B. Mast cells

15.

What defines autoimmune disease?

A. Loss of self-tolerance

B. Excessive IgA switching

C. Persistent eosinophilia

D. Failed antigen uptake

A. Loss of self-tolerance

16.

Chronically stimulated self-reactive T cells are normally eliminated after ligation of which surface molecule?

____

Fas

17.

Which tolerance mechanism eliminates chronically stimulated T cells through Fas-mediated signaling?

A. Somatic hypermutation

B. Molecular mimicry

C. Class switching

D. Activation-induced cell death

D. Activation-induced cell death

18.

Molecular mimicry is when a microbe expresses an _____ that resembles a _____ _____ , activating self-reactive _____ .

antigen

host antigen

lymphocytes

19.

Molecular mimicry can activate lymphocytes that had previously failed to respond to which antigen type?

____-____

Self-antigens

20.

A patient develops seasonal allergic rhinitis after exposure to outdoor aeroallergens. Which source most likely triggered hay fever?

A. Mold spores or pollens

B. Animal venoms

C. Indoor endotoxins

D. Bacterial capsules

A. Mold spores or pollens

21.

Compared with hay fever allergens, asthma-triggering allergens are most commonly found in which location?

Indoors

22.

A non-allergic person and an atopic person encounter the same environmental antigen. Which antibody pattern is most likely?

A. IgE versus IgG

B. IgG versus IgE

C. IgA versus IgM

D. IgM versus IgA

B. IgG versus IgE

23.

During initial allergen sensitization, mast cells bind which region of newly produced IgE?

A. Fab region

B. Variable region

C. Hinge region

D. Fc region

D. Fc region

24.

An atopic patient is re-exposed to an allergen after prior sensitization. What event directly initiates mast-cell degranulation?

A. IgE crosslinking

B. IgG opsonization

C. Fas ligation

D. Treg induction

A. IgE crosslinking

25.

Free IgE in blood has approximately what half-life?

A. Two months

B. Two weeks

C. Two days

D. Two hours

C. Two days

26.

When IgE is attached to mast cells, it can persist for approximately how long?

A. Hours

B. Days

C. Weeks

D. Months

D. Months

27.

Which cells mediate the immediate phase of allergic reactions?

_____ cells and _____

Mast cells and basophils

28.

Which allergic effector cell is primarily stationed in tissues?

Mast cell

29.

Which allergic effector cell is primarily found circulating in blood?

Basophil

30.

Which cell type mainly mediates the delayed phase of allergic reactions?

_____

Eosinophils

31.

In chronic allergic reactions, T-cell production of which cytokine recruits eosinophils from bone marrow?

IL-5

32.

A germinal center dominated by Th1 cells is most likely to generate B cells producing which antibody class?

IgG

33.

Th1-dominated germinal centers promote IgG class switching through secretion of which cytokine?

IFN-gamma

34.

A germinal center dominated by Th2 cells is most likely to generate B cells producing which antibody class?

IgE

35.

Th2-dominated germinal centers promote allergic antibody production through which cytokines?

A. IL-2 and IL-12

B. IL-10 and TGF-beta

C. IL-4 and IL-5

D. IFN-gamma and TNF

C. IL-4 and IL-5

36.

An atopic patient has recurrent allergic rhinitis and asthma after common environmental exposures. Which helper T-cell subset would be increased?

A. Th1 cells

B. Th2 cells

C. Th17 cells

D. Tfh cells

B. Th2 cells

37.

A Th1 cell secretes TNF during a cellular immune response. Which innate immune cell is most directly activated?

___ ___ cell

NK cell

38.

A Th1 response produces IL-2 during intracellular infection. Which cell populations proliferate in response?

____ cells and ____

NK cells and CTLs

39.

At the maternal-fetal interface, placental cytokines shift helper T cells away from Th1 immunity. Which helper T-cell fate is promoted?

A. Th17 cell

B. Tfh cell

C. Th1 cell

D. Th2 cell

D. Th2 cell

40.

An infant’s early microbial infection biases later immune responses toward which helper T-cell subset?

A. Th1 cells

B. Th2 cells

C. Tfh cells

D. Treg cells

A. Th1 cells

41.

The composition of the intestinal microbiota is mainly established during which period?

A. First few years

B. Early adolescence

C. Late adulthood

D. Fetal development

A. First few years

42.

A patient has inherited allergy susceptibility involving antigen presentation to CD4 cells. Which gene group is implicated?

A. Class I MHC

B. Class II MHC

C. TCR alpha

D. CD8 coreceptor

B. Class II MHC

43.

An atopic patient has inherited IgE receptor variants that amplify mast-cell signaling. Which cytokine becomes elevated?

A. IL-10

B. IFN-gamma

C. IL-4

D. IL-12

C. IL-4

44.

A patient receives glucocorticoids for severe allergic disease. Which immune effect explains symptom improvement?

Block ____ ____

Block helper cytokines

45.

Glucocorticoids reduce allergic responses partly by lowering helper T-cell cytokines. What downstream B-cell effect follows?

Fewer activated ____ cells

Fewer activated B cells

46.

A patient on chronic glucocorticoids has improved allergies but develops recurrent infections. What adverse immune effect explains this?

A. Weakened immune system

B. Enhanced Th1 immunity

C. Increased complement lysis

D. Excessive IgA secretion

A. Weakened immune system

47.

Which allergy treatment is described as the only approach capable of curing allergies?

A. Omalizumab therapy

B. Glucocorticoid therapy

C. Specific immunotherapy

D. Antihistamine therapy

C. Specific immunotherapy

48.

Specific immunotherapy treats allergy by repeatedly giving which type of exposure?

A. Decreasing allergen doses

B. Increasing allergen doses

C. Single allergen bolus

D. Continuous steroid pulses

B. Increasing allergen doses

49.

Current theory suggests allergen immunotherapy induces regulatory T cells to produce which cytokines?

A. IL-4 and IL-5

B. IFN-gamma and TNF

C. IL-2 and IL-12

D. IL-10 and TGF-beta

D. IL-10 and TGF-beta

50.

An allergy patient develops increased IL-10 after therapy. What outcome would this cytokine most likely promote?

A. Prevent allergic reaction

B. Increase IgE secretion

C. Activate mast cells

D. Recruit eosinophils

A. Prevent allergic reaction

51.

A child has autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome with enlarged lymph nodes. What mechanism best explains the disorder?

____ signaling defect

Fas signaling defect

52.

In autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome, defective Fas signaling causes which cellular abnormality?

A. B cells die early

B. T cells survive too long

C. NK cells lose cytotoxicity

D. Eosinophils leave marrow

B. T cells survive too long

53.

A patient with Canale-Smith syndrome develops lymphadenopathy and autoantibodies. Which cell type accumulates abnormally?

A. T cells

B. Mast cells

C. Neutrophils

D. Basophils

A. T cells

54.

Which finding is characteristic of autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome?

A. Self-reactive antibodies

B. Absent class II MHC

C. Low lymphocyte counts

D. Failed IgE binding

A. Self-reactive antibodies

55.

For autoimmune disease to occur, MHC molecules must be able to present which antigen type?

____ antigen

Self antigen

56.

Which lymphocyte feature is required for autoimmune disease development?

Self-____ ____

Self-reactive receptors

57.

Besides genetic susceptibility and self-reactive lymphocytes, which factor often contributes to autoimmunity?

____ trigger

Environmental trigger

58.

A patient develops autoimmune disease after infection because lymphocyte receptors cross-react with host tissue. Which hypothesis explains this?

Molecular mimicry

59.

Rheumatic heart disease after streptococcal infection is classically an example of which mechanism?

Molecular mimicry

60.

A self-reactive T cell encounters a microbial mimic of self antigen. What additional condition is needed for activation?

A. Simultaneous local inflammation

B. Absent antigen presentation

C. Complete cytokine silence

D. Immediate eosinophil depletion

A. Simultaneous local inflammation

61.

For molecular mimicry to activate self-reactive T cells, inflammation must occur in tissue that also expresses what?

A. IgE receptor

B. Self antigen

C. Fc fragment

D. Complement receptor

B. Self antigen

62.

In insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus, which pancreatic cell type is initially targeted by autoimmune injury?

A. Alpha cells

B. Beta cells

C. Delta cells

D. Acinar cells

B. Beta cells

63.

In insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus, beta cells are located in which organ?

A. Pancreas

B. Thyroid

C. Adrenal gland

D. Pituitary

A. Pancreas

64.

Which immune cell initially attacks beta cells in insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus?

____ ____ cells

Killer T cells

65.

Reduced CTLA-4 RNA increases diabetes susceptibility by impairing control of which cells?

_____-____ T cells

Self-reactive T cells

66.

Which molecule normally helps restrain self-reactive T cells in diabetes susceptibility?

A. CTLA-4

B. CD40L

C. IL-17

D. IgM

A. CTLA-4

67.

Plaque psoriasis most characteristically produces which skin finding?

____ and ____

Thickening and scaling

68.

Plaque psoriasis is driven mainly by which immune cell type?

A. Th2 cells

B. B cells

C. CD8 cells

D. Neutrophils

C. CD8 cells

69.

In plaque psoriasis, CD8 cells produce which cytokine that promotes keratinocyte proliferation?

IL-17

70.

In plaque psoriasis, IL-17 causes proliferation of which cell type?

A. Keratinocytes

B. Fibroblasts

C. Chondrocytes

D. Oligodendrocytes

A. Keratinocytes

71.

The proposed self-reaction in psoriasis involves class I MHC recognition of streptococcal antigens and what self-cell target?

A. Cartilage

B. Keratinocytes

C. Myelin

D. Beta cells

B. Keratinocytes

72.

The proposed infectious trigger in plaque psoriasis involves which organism group?

A. Mycobacteria

B. Epstein-Barr virus

C. Streptococcal bacteria

D. Candida species

C. Streptococcal bacteria

73.

Rheumatoid arthritis is primarily characterized by autoimmune inflammation of which structure?

A. Pancreatic islets

B. Central myelin

C. Hair follicles

D. Joints

D. Joints

74.

In rheumatoid arthritis, autoimmune cells react against cartilage and a protein from which infection?

A. Tuberculosis

B. Epstein-Barr virus

C. Streptococci

D. Influenza

A. Tuberculosis

75.

Which tissue antigen is targeted in rheumatoid arthritis?

A. Myelin

B. Cartilage

C. Keratin

D. Insulin

B. Cartilage

76.

In rheumatoid arthritis, abundant IgM antibodies bind which region of IgG?

A. Fab region

B. Hinge region

C. Fc region

D. Variable region

C. Fc region

77.

The IgM antibody that binds IgG Fc in rheumatoid arthritis forms which pathogenic structure?

A. Cytotoxic synapse

B. IgE tetramer

C. MHC complex

D. Immune complex

D. Immune complex

78.

In rheumatoid arthritis, IgM-IgG immune complexes activate which inflammatory cell?

A. Macrophage

B. Mast cell

C. Basophil

D. Keratinocyte

A. Macrophage

79.

Activated macrophages in rheumatoid arthritis produce which cytokine causing inflammation?

TNF

80.

Multiple sclerosis involves immune-mediated destruction of which structure?

A. Cartilage

B. Keratin

C. Myelin

D. Beta cells

C. Myelin

81.

Myelin is required primarily for which nervous-system function?

A. Cytokine production

B. Antibody secretion

C. Cartilage repair

D. Electrical signaling

D. Electrical signaling

82.

Multiple sclerosis occurs almost exclusively in people previously infected with which virus?

Epstein-Barr virus

83.

Epstein-Barr virus establishes chronic infection in which cell type?

____ cells

B cells

84.

The classic facial rash of lupus involves which areas?

____ and ____

Forehead and cheeks

85.

The “red wolf” appearance in lupus refers most directly to which manifestation?

A. Kidney damage

B. Hair loss

C. Arthritis

D. Facial red rash

D. Facial red rash

86.

Systemic lupus erythematosus results from breakdown of tolerance in which lymphocyte groups?

A. B and T cells

B. NK and mast cells

C. CD8 and basophils

D. Neutrophils and monocytes

A. B and T cells

87.

In lupus, loss of B- and T-cell tolerance results in production of which self-reactive antibody class?

IgG

88.

One proposed lupus mechanism involves defective interaction between Fas and which partner molecule?

Fas ligand

89.

Another proposed lupus mechanism involves mutation in which innate immune receptor family?

A. IgE receptors

B. TNF receptors

C. IL-2 receptors

D. Toll-like receptors

D. Toll-like receptors