A client is diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease and receives a prescription for esomeprazole 20 mg capsule daily. When providing this client with discharge teaching, the nurse should include which instruction?

A.Drink fluids between meals to relieve gastric distress.

B.Monitor for an increase in blood pressure during therapy.

C.Dissolve capsule contents in fruit juice for easier ingestion.

D.Take at same time each day one hour before eating a meal.

A client is taking cyclosporine for renal allograft rejection prevention. After 9 months of drug therapy, the nurse reviews laboratory data and notes that the blood urea nitrogen level is 36 mg/dl. What additional finding should the nurse identify?

A.Hypotension.

B.White blood cell count 10,000.

C.Creatinine 2.8 mg/dl (0.25 mmol/L).

D.Anaphylactic reaction

A pediatric client who has been diagnosed with partial seizures receives a prescription for topiramate. Which information should the nurse provide to the child's parents?

A.Do not crush the tablet prior to administration.

B..Give the medication with 8 oz of orange juice.

C.Avoid prolonged exposure to direct sunlight.

D.Administer the tablet an hour before meals.

A client with chronic pancreatitis receives a new prescription for pancrelipase. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include in this client's teaching?

A.Avoid prolonged exposure to direct sunlight.

B.Stay away from products containing alcohol.

C.Ingest 8 oz of grapefruit juice with the medication.

D.Take the medication when consuming food.

A client with rheumatoid arthritis is receiving a prescription for minocycline. Which side effect is most important for the nurse to instruct the client to report?

A.Loss of balance and dizziness.

B.Nausea and vomiting.

C.Headache and mouth sores.

D.Abdominal pain and diarrhea.

A client with depression receives a prescription for amitriptyline. Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching?

A.Do not ingest foods with tyramine.

B.Avoid the consumption of alcohol.

C.Obtain daily blood pressure readings.

D.Take with a glass of orange juice.

A client receives a prescription for esomeprazole for heartburn. Which finding in the client's history should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before administering the prescription?

A.Eats spicy food three times a week.

B.History of deep vein thrombosis.

C.Drinks 2 alcoholic beverages on weekends.

D.Family history of diabetes mellitus.

A client with chronic gouty arthritis takes allopurinol and experiences an acute attack of gouty arthritis. The healthcare provider prescribes concurrent low-dose colchicine. Which information should the nurse provide the client that best explains the action of the colchicine?

A.Acts like aspirin to relieve pain.

B.Facilitates the excretion of uric acid.

C.Reduces inflammation at the affected site.

D.Prevents formation of uric acid crystals.

A 38-year-old gravida 2 para 2 is diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis 9-months postpartum. A prescription is written for metronidazole. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain from the client before initiating treatment?

A.Sexual history.

B.Use of oral contraceptives.

C.Method of infant feeding.

D.Possibility of pregnancy.

The healthcare provider prescribes pyridostigmine bromide tablets for a client with myasthenia gravis (MG). Which instruction should the nurse provide this client?

A.Increase activity in the afternoon when the medication is most effective.

B.That the medication is not a cure, but it does relieve symptoms.

C.Use a PRN dose for increasing muscular weakness or fasciculations.

D.Give the client a dietary guide that describes low-protein foods.

What pathophysiological action supports the expected outcome for a client with chronic cancer pain who is treated with imipramine, a tricyclic antidepressant?

A.Increases pain threshold by stimulating opiate receptors in the CNS to release of endogenous enkephalins.

B.Decreases perception of pain by blocking opiate receptors in the brain and descending inhibitory nerves.

C.Decreases transmission of pain impulses by altering serotonin and norepinephrine activity at nerve synapses.

D.Increases pain tolerance through relief of depression by increasing the amounts of norepinephrine in the brain.

A client receives a new prescription for ciprofloxacin, a synthetic quinolone. When teaching about this drug, which information in the client's history requires special emphasis by the nurse?

A.Snacks on dairy products such as yogurt or ice cream.

B.Previously had a mild allergic reaction to a cephalosporin.

C.Consumes alcoholic drinks occasionally on the weekends.

D.Works twenty hours a week as a lifeguard at the local pool.

The healthcare provider prescribes medication for an older adult client who is complaining of insomnia and instructs the client to return in two weeks. The nurse should question which prescription?

A.Zolpidem 10 milligrams orally at bedtime.

B.Eszopiclone 10 milligrams orally at bedtime.

C.Temazepam 7.5 milligrams orally at bedtime.

D.Ramelteon 8 milligrams orally at bedtime.

Which is the effect of beta-blocking agents when used for the treatment of glaucoma?

A.Inhibiting aqueous humor production.

B.Enhancing aqueous humor outflow.

C.Increasing intraocular pressure.

D.Preventing extraocular infection.

The healthcare provider has prescribed digoxin for a client who has been taking furosemide for six months. What laboratory serum levels should the nurse review before administering the digoxin?A.Calcium.

B.Magnesium.

C.Potassium.

D.Furosemide.

Which is the expected outcome of esomeprazole when prescribed for a client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?

A.Promotion of rapid tissue healing.I

B.ncreased gastric emptying.

C.Improved esophageal peristalsis.

D.Neutralization of gastric secretions.

A school-aged child is taking methylphenidate hydrochloride for the treatment of attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). The mother tells the nurse that she gives the medication at bedtime so it is "working" during school the next morning. Which modification to the administration plan should the nurse recommend to this mother?

A.Continue administering the medication dose at bedtime.

B.Give the medication when the child arrives at school.

C.Take the medication with meals.

D.Administer at least six hours before bedtime.

A client who is diagnosed with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus receives a prescription for vancomycin. Which assessment should the nurse perform to identify a potential adverse effect?

A.Whisper test.

B.Romberg test.

C.Tactile discrimination.

D.Skin turgor.

A client at 30 weeks gestation is in preterm labor. The healthcare provider prescribes two 12-mg doses of betamethasone intramuscularly every 12 hours. The client asks the nurse why she is receiving betamethasone. Which information should the nurse use to explain the action of the medication?

A.Suppresses uterine contractions.

B.Stimulates fetal surfactant production.

C.Reduces maternal and fetal tachycardia associated with terbutaline administration.

D.Maintains adequate maternal respiratory effort and ventilation with magnesium administration.

Based on the blood culture and sensitivity results, the healthcare provider prescribes an IV aminoglycoside antibiotic and discontinues the current prescription for another broad-spectrum antibiotic. The medication administration record indicates that the client received the broad-spectrum antibiotic two hours ago. Which action should the nurse implement?

A.Obtain peak and trough serum levels so the aminoglycoside antibiotic can be initiated.

B.Administer the initial dose of the aminoglycoside antibiotic as soon as possible.

C.Withhold antibiotic administration until the healthcare provider clarifies the prescriptions.

D.Schedule the initial dose of the aminoglycoside antibiotic for the following day.

A client with pneumonia receives a prescription for tetracycline. Which precaution should the nurse include in this client's teaching?

A.Take the medication with a glass of orange juice.

B.Avoid over-the-counter medications containing alcohol.

C.Avoid dairy products for 2 hours after taking the medication.

D.Do not use teeth whitening agents during the treatment regimen.

A client who takes a statin and gemfibrozil for hyperlipidemia reports the onset of muscle pain and weakness. Which additional assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain?

A.Serum liver enzymes.

B.T3 and T4 blood levels.

C.Bowel function.

D.Peripheral sensation.

Miotic drug therapy for the treatment of glaucoma is based chiefly upon which physiologic action?

A.Enhancing aqueous humor outflow.

B.Inhibiting aqueous humor production.

C.Maintaining intraocular pressure.

D.Preventing extraocular infection.

Which findings should the nurse identify in an adult client with possible chronic salicylate intoxication?

A.Tinnitus and hearing loss.

B.Photosensitivity and nervousness.

C.Acute gastrointestinal bleeding and anorexia.

D.Hyperventilation and central nervous system effects.

A male client who is in the terminal stage of cancer is cared for at home by his family and receives a prescription for morphine at a rate to control intractable pain. When the hospice nurse visits, the client awakens, moans in severe pain, and asks for an increase in the morphine dosage. After determining the client's respirations are 10 per minute, what is the best action for the nurse to implement?

A.Titrate the morphine dose upward until the client has adequate pain relief.

B.Suggest to the family that they can also give the client ibuprofen, a non-narcotic analgesic.

C.Hold additional morphine until the client's respirations are at least 16 per minute.

D.Inform the client that an increased dose of morphine increases side effects without additional pain control.

A client is receiving fentanyl via an epidural infusion. Which side effect should the nurse anticipate in the first 24 hours of epidural analgesia?A.Headache.

B.Agitation.

C.Urinary retention.

D.Abdominal cramping and diarrhea.

Which drug of choice is indicated for acute ventricular dysrhythmias associated with myocardial infarction?A.Diltiazem.

B.Bretylium.

C.Amiodarone.

D.Adenosine.

Which route should the nurse clarify with the healthcare provider prior to administering a drug with a high first-pass effect?A.Oral.

B.Buccal.

C.Sublingual.

D.Intravenous.

A client who has Trichomonas vaginalis receives a prescription for metronidazole. Which instruction should the nurse provide during client education?

A.Do not ingest with dairy products.

B.Notify the clinic if the urine changes color.

C.Obtain liver function tests every 3 months.

D.Avoid over-the-counter antitussives.

A client diagnosed with multiple sclerosis is experiencing profound weakness, blurry vision, and shooting pains in both legs. Which medication is considered the best course of treatment for the nurse to administer?

A.High dose methylprednisolone intravenously.

B.Baclofen three times a day.

C.Broad spectrum antibiotic coverage orally.

D.Immunomodulatory drug therapy periodically.

The nurse should expect the healthcare provider to prescribe which treatment regimen for a client with a peptic ulcer caused by Helicobacter pylori ? (Select all that apply.)Select all that apply

A.Clarithromycin.

B.Sulfisoxazole.

C.Misoprostol.

D.Omeprazole.

E.Metronidazole.

F.Sucralfate.

When assessing a client prior to the administration of digoxin, which data is most important for the nurse to consider?

A.Presence of a grade 2 murmur.

B.Nailbed capillary refill of 5 seconds.

C.Irregular apical pulse with a rate of 87.

D.Bilateral lower extremity dependent rubor.

The nurse is administering haloperidol 0.5 mg IM PRN to a client for the first time. What side effects should the nurse assess the client for during the initial dose?

A.Bradykinesia.

B.Dystonia.

C.Somatization.

D.Akathisia.

A client with Paget's disease is started on calcitonin 500 mcg subcutaneously daily. During the initial treatment, which is the priority nursing action?

A.Assess the injection site for inflammation.

B.Evaluate the client's level of pain.

C.Monitor the client's alkaline phosphatase levels.

D. Observe the client for signs of hypersensitivity.

What teaching should the nurse provide a client who has received a new prescription for sildenafil? (Select all that apply.)

A.Frequent use can lead to the development of hypertension.

B.Most effective if taken after at least 6 hours of REM sleep.

C.Take within 30 to 60 minutes of sexual stimulation.

D.Report rebound priapism that occurs for 4 hours or more.

E. Can cause facial flushing and headache.

A client receives a new prescription for nitroglycerin tablets. Which instruction should the nurse include in this client's teaching?

A.Take the medication at least an hour before every meal.

B.Monitor your pulse for 60 seconds before administration.

C.Place under the tongue as needed every 5 minutes up to 3 times.

D.Resume normal activities after chest pain relief is obtained

A client who was recently diagnosed with myasthenia gravis receives a prescription for pyridostigmine, a cholinergic agent. Which information should the nurse instruct the client to implement when taking this medication?

A.Always take with meals to avoid gastrointestinal distress.

B.Plan the doses close together for maximal therapeutic effect.

C.To report muscle weakness or bradycardia.

D.Avoid dairy products two hours before and after taking medications.

The nurse should withhold which medication if a client reports nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea?

A.Colchicine.

B.Erythromycin.

C.Naproxen.

D.Labetolol.

The healthcare provider prescribes oral antifungal therapy for a client with onychomycosis. Which information should the nurse tell the client?

A.A single dose of the oral antifungal agent is usually sufficient to treat the infection.

B.The infection is difficult to eradicate and requires prolonged therapy for 3 to 6 months.

C.Complete eradication is important because of the risk of a systemic infection.

D.Prolonged therapy provides no benefit and increases the risk of adverse effects.

The healthcare provider discontinues prednisone, a glucocorticoid, for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Which instructions should the nurse give the client about the regimen to follow?

A.Life-long treatment is common for chronic disease.

B.The drug should be stopped immediately if no longer needed.

C.The dose must be tapered over the course of 7 to 10 days.

D.Another glucocorticoid should be used to prevent cross-tolerance.

A male client with meningitis is prescribed cefotaxime IV and asks the nurse why he cannot receive an oral drug, such as cefaclor or cefadroxil, that he has taken before for infections. How should the nurse respond when considering the actions of cephalosporins?

A.Cefazolin is another IV antibiotic that can be prescribed.

B.Cefaclor is a good alternative to suggest to the healthcare provider.

C.Cefadroxil is usually prescribed when the IV is discontinued.

D.Cefotaxime provides therapeutic CNS concentrations.

Which side effects should the nurse monitor for a client who is receiving dexamethasone following neurosurgery? (Select all that apply.)

A.Mood swings.

B.Decreased appetite.

C.Increased weight gain.

D.Serum glucose level of 65 mg/dl.

E.Delayed incisional wound healing.

F.Serum hemoglobin level of 9 mg/dl.

A client receives a prescription for sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim for a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which instruction should the nurse provide the client?

A.Ingest food prior to taking the antibiotic.

B.Drink at least 8 glasses of water a day.

C.Take the medication with grapefruit juice.

D.Avoid prolonged exposure to sunlight.

A client receives a new prescription for pentazocine, a mixed opioid agonist-antagonist after an opioid agonist is discontinued. Which is the advantage for the client when the new prescription is implemented?

A.Tolerance does not occur.

B.Less agitation is experienced.

C.The analgesic ceiling is higher.

D.Used to decrease substance use disorder.

A female client receives a prescription for cefadroxil for a urinary tract infection. The client informs the nurse that she is currently taking oral contraceptives (OCP). Which information is important for the nurse to share with the client?

A.The antibiotic may be less effective while taking OCP.

B.The medication combination potentiates the risk of adverse reactions.

C.Avoid prolonged sun exposure while taking the antibiotic.

D.Use an additional form of contraception until your menstrual cycle.

A client is taking sulfisoxazole for a urinary tract infection (UTI) and complains of nausea and gastric upset since starting the medication. Which additional adverse reaction should the nurse instruct the client to report?

A.Rash.

B.Diarrhea.

C.Hematuria.

D.Muscle cramping.

A client calls the clinic and states that she forgot to take her oral contraceptives for the past two days. Which instruction is best for the nurse to provide to this client?

A.Take 2 pills a day for 2 days and use an alternate method of contraception for 7 days.

B.Quit the pills for this cycle, use an alternate method of contraception, and resume pills on the fifth day of menstruation.

C.Take one extra pill per day for the rest of this cycle, then resume taking pills as usual next cycle.

D.Take 4 pills now and use an alternate method of contraception for the rest of this cycle.

The nurse is providing medication teaching for a client who has recently received a prescription for clozapine. Which instruction should be included in this client's teaching plan?

A.Avoid prolonged sun exposure.

B.Rise slowly from a lying position.

C.Do not eat any aged cheese.

D.Take as needed for anxiety.

Which statement by a client warrants further instruction by the nurse about the changing insulin needs of a diabetic client during pregnancy?

A."Episodes of hypoglycemia are more likely to occur during the first 3 months."

B."I will increase my insulin dosage by 5 units each month during the first trimester."

C."Insulin dosage will likely need to be increased during the second and third trimesters."

D."Breastfeeding will decrease my insulin needs to lower than my prepregnancy levels."

A client receives a new prescription for an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. Which client history contraindicates its use?

A.Asthma.

B.Heart failure.

C.Renal artery stenosis.

D.Coronary artery disease.

When prescribed for a client with hepatic encephalopathy, which is the therapeutic action of lactulose?

A.Lowers the pH of the colon.

B.Softens the stool.

C.Increases glucose absorption.

D.Stimulates peristalsis.

The nurse receives a unit of blood from the blood bank for a postoperative client who is currently in the X-ray department. Which action should the nurse implement?

A.Return the blood to the blood bank for refrigeration within 30 minutes.

B.Hang the blood transfusion as soon as the client returns to the unit.

C.Store the blood bag in the nursing unit's refrigerator until the client returns.

D.Take the unit of blood to the X-ray department to initiate the transfusion.

A 48-year-old client is experiencing a severe anaphylactic reaction to an injection of contrast media. Which pharmacologic agent is of greatest use in this situation?

A.Dopamine.

B.Loratadine.

C.Nitroprusside.

D.Epinephrine.

Which action should the nurse implement to provide analgesic titration for a client in pain?

A.Teach the client to increase the time range between doses of pain medication.

B.Monitor the effects of continuous intravenous infusion of narcotic analgesics.

C.Plan with the client how to use a specific total dose of analgesic over a 24-hour period.

D.Determine the optimal analgesic dosage required that causes the least side effects.

A client who uses ipratropium reports having nausea, blurred vision, headaches, and insomnia after using the inhaler. Which action should the nurse implement first?

A.Withhold medication and report symptoms and vital signs to the healthcare provider.

B.Give PRN medication for nausea and vomiting and evaluate client in 30 minutes.

C.Reassure client that the ipratropium given will alleviate the symptoms.

D.Delay administration of ipratropium until next maintenance medication is scheduled.

The nurse should instruct a client to avoid which product while taking carisoprodol for muscle spasms?

A.Aspirin products.

B.Antacids.

C.Alcoholic beverages.

D.Dairy products.

A client with chronic schizophrenia illness is admitted after taking risperidone 10 mg/day for three months. The nurse implements a daily assessment using the "Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale" (AIMS). Which findings should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

A.Cogwheel rigidity.

B.Drowsiness and dizziness.

C.Tremors and muscle twitching.

D.Dry mouth, constipation, and blurred vision.

A client is beginning therapy with montelukast PO 10 mg once a day in the evening. The client asks the nurse, "When should I begin to feel better?" How should the nurse respond?

A.Immediately.

B.Peak is 3-4 hours with duration of 24 hours.

C.In about 12 hours.

D.30 minutes to 1 hour.

A client is admitted for atrial fibrillation, and the healthcare provider prescribes disopyramide. After explaining the action of this antidysrhythmic agent, which complaint should the nurse instruct the client to report?

A.Joint pain.

B.Dizziness or muscle weakness.

C.Daily weight gain of 2 pounds.

D.Dry mouth.

An older client is taking warfarin sodium PO 2.5 mg twice a day. Which laboratory value should the nurse identify as a therapeutic response of the medication?

A.INR of 2 to 3.

B.PT of 4 seconds.

C.PTT of 20 seconds.

D.aPTT of 3 times normal.

A healthcare provider prescribes cefadroxil for a client with a postoperative infection. It is most important for the nurse to assess for which additional drug allergy before administering this prescription?A.Penicillins.

B.Aminoglycosides.

C.Erythromycins.

D.Sulfonamides.

A client asks the nurse to explain the meaning of a narrow therapeutic index of a medication. Which information should the nurse use to answer the question?A.The onset of action for the medication occurs very quickly.

B.A small margin exists between safe and toxic plasma levels.

C.Bioavailability is significantly reduced by the first-pass effect.

D.Minimum dosage is needed for the medication to be effective.

While reviewing the client's electronic medical record (EMR), the nurse assesses a client who is at risk for a possible interaction with an over-the-counter (OTC) decongestant. Which client health history should the nurse report to the healthcare provider concerning the OTC medication? (Select all that apply).

A.Type I diabetes mellitus (DM).

B.Closed angle glaucoma.

C.Chronic hypertension.

D.Rheumatoid arthritis.

E.Crohn's disease.

A resident of a long-term care facility is taking lithium carbonate to treat bipolar disorder. Which instruction should the nurse provide to this client's caregivers?

A.Offer the morning dose of the medicine before breakfast.

B.Have the client chew the pill if it is difficult to swallow.

C.Encourage high energy fluid intake by providing sports drinks or sodas.

D.Report symptoms of hypothyroidism such as fatigue and constipation.

Which common side effect should the nurse alert a female client about when medroxyprogesterone is prescribed?A.Leg or calf pain.

B.Headaches or visual changes.

C.Vaginal bleeding after discontinuing the medication.

D.Jaundice during the first 3 weeks of administration.

A client is taking danazol for endometriosis and calls the clinic nurse to complain of a dark, swollen, and painful leg. Which instructions should the nurse provide the client?

A.Wear support stockings.

B.Elevate both legs and apply heat.

C.Proceed to the closest emergency room.

D.Walk for 20 to 30 minutes to reduce muscle cramps.

The mother of a newborn asks the nurse why her infant needs the vitamin K injection. Which information should the nurse provide?

A.Bacteria that synthesize vitamin K are not present in the newborn's intestinal tract.

B.Oral vitamin K impedes the synthesis of clotting factors in the liver.

C.The maternal diet is often deficient in vitamin K, so the infant is also deficient in the vitamin.

D.The synthesis of vitamin K is inadequate for 3 to 4 months in the newborn.

An emergency department triage nurse is interviewing a female client who has a history of epilepsy with tonic-clonic seizures controlled by phenytoin. Which information is most significant in planning this client's care?

A.She has missed 2 menstrual periods.

B.She has had no dental care for several years.

C.She ran out of her medication 4 days ago.

D.She has smoked 3 packs of cigarettes a day for 10 years.

A client who is receiving chemotherapy is prescribed ondansetron. Which side effect should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

A.Headache.

B.Dry mouth.

C.Impaired taste.

D.Blurred vision.

The nurse administers the initial dose of a fentanyl transdermal patch to a client with chronic pain. When monitoring the client an hour later, which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain?

A.Level of consciousness.

B.Moistness of mucosa.

C.Bowel sound activity.

D.Numeric pain scale.

The therapeutic effect of insulin in treating type 1 diabetes mellitus is based on which physiologic action?

A.Facilitates transport of glucose into the cells.

B.Stimulates function of beta cells in the pancreas.

C.Increases intracellular receptor site sensitivity.

D.Delays carbohydrate digestion and absorption.

The nurse reviews the new prescription, phenelzine, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI), for a client on the psychiatric unit with depression. Which information is most important for the nurse to assess?

A.Consumption of any alcohol or tyramine-rich foods.

B.Complaints of nausea or vomiting.

C.Therapeutic serum drug levels.

D.Blood pressure and pulse prior to taking each dose.